APEA PREDICTOR TEST APRIL #2 Flashcards

0
Q

The patient who has iron deficiency anemia should be advised that foods high in iron content include:

A.bananas, apples, and oranges.
B.yellow vegetables.
C.organ meats and dark, green leafy vegetables.
D.milk and dairy products.

A

C

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1
Q

The nurse practitioner suspects migraine in a 6 year old male with a 2 month history of recurrent headache. What finding would support a diagnosis of migraine headache?

A.Family history of migraine headache
B.Localized facial pain and ataxia
C.Problems at home, school, and with peers
D.Ipsilateral weakness and papilledema

A

A

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2
Q

Eligibility requirements for the ANP or FNP exam include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.clinical preparation in an ANP or FNP educational program.
B.an active RN license in the US.
C.a masters degree in nursing or an area.
D.didactic preparation in an ANP or FNP educational program.

A

C

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3
Q

Successful management of a patient with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is best achieved with:

A.stimulant medication along with behavioral and family interventions.
B.methylphenidate (Ritalin®) in conjunction with an antihistamine.
C.treatment by a pediatric psychiatrist.
D.firm discipline and removal of offending foods from the diet.

A

A

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4
Q

A 20 year old male patient complains of “scrotal swelling.” He states his scrotum feels heavy, but denies pain. On examination, the nurse practitioner notes transillumination of the scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Indirect inguinal hernia
B.Hydrocele
C.Orchitis
D.Testicular torsion

A

B

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5
Q

The developmental task for the family of an adolescent is to:

A.provide the adolescent with limits and restrictions.
B.encourage the adolescent’s mastery of physical skills.
C.enable the adolescent to form a lasting relationship with another person.
D.allow the adolescent increasing freedom and responsibility.

A

D

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6
Q

An 8 month old male presents with hemarthrosis of both knees and hematuria. The parents give no history of trauma, but say “he has always bruised easily.” The most likely diagnosis is:

A.physical child abuse.
B.idiopathic thrombocytopenia (ITT).
C.a type of hemophilia.
D.a form of leukemia

A

C

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7
Q

Which statement below about breastfeeding is NOT accurate?

A.An infant with hyperbilirubinemia should not be breastfed.
B.A mother with flat or inverted nipples may be able to breastfeed.
C.Improper positioning of the infant can result in the mother having sore nipples.
D.A mother with a plugged milk duct should not stop breastfeeding.

A

A

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8
Q

Babies should begin oral iron supplementation:

A.when they are able to eat iron-enriched cereal.
B.2 months-of-age.
C.4 to 6 months-of-age.
D.anytime after their teeth have erupted.

A

C

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9
Q

Nurse practitioners are permitted to perform male circumcisions in some states but not in others. This is related to:

A.standards of practice.
B.scope of practice.
C.prescriptive authority.
D.reimbursement.

A

B

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10
Q

The mother of a 2 week old infant with hypospadias requests circumcision for her infant. The nurse practitioner’s best response to this mother should be to:

A.arrange a surgical consult for the circumcision.
B.explain why an infant with hypospadias should not be circumcised.
C.explain the benefits and risks of infant circumcision.
D.refer her to a physician.

A

B

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11
Q

A 78 year old man has a diagnosis of emphysema. It is imperative that the nurse practitioner teach him to:

A.use oxygen at home during the night.
B.call the office at the first sign of infection.
C.limit intake of high protein foods.
D.be immunized annually with the polyvalent pneumococcal vaccine.

A

B

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12
Q

The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 35 year old female nurse. She has a history of hospitalization for hepatitis B infection 2 years ago. Her laboratory tests demonstrate positive HBsAg. The nurse practitioner would most likely diagnose:

A.chronic hepatitis B infection.
B.acute hepatitis B infection.
C.recovered hepatitis B infection.
D.recent hepatitis B vaccination

A

A

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13
Q

Which of the following is considered a non-inflammatory disease process?

A.Osteoarthritis (OA)
B.Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
C.Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE)
D.Psoriatic arthritis

A

A

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14
Q

Which of the following patients most warrants screening for hypothyroidism?

A.A young adult female with postpartum depression lasting 2 weeks
B.A patient taking a thyroid replacement preparation
C.A 40 year old male with unexplained tremors
D.An elderly female with recent onset of mental dysfunction

A

D

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15
Q

The nurse practitioner performs a routine physical examination of a 3 year old child. A hard, painless mass is palpated in the abdomen, along with lymph node enlargement and lower limb paresis. Blood and imaging studies provide markers for neuroblastoma. What information is correct to give to the parents?

A.The diagnosis must be confirmed by tissue biopsy or by bone marrow aspiration plus urine or serum catecholamine levels.
B.Neuroblastoma is the final diagnosis based on physical examination and blood and imaging markers.
C.Signs and symptoms, along with the blood imaging markers, define the tumor as stage D, metastasis beyond lymph nodes.
D.The prognosis is poor, based on the likelihood that there is metastasis to the bone.

A

A

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16
Q

Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is most common in which age group?

A.Under 3 years-of-age
B.Preschool children
C.6 to 12 years-of-age
D.Adolescents

A

C

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17
Q

The most appropriate therapy for an elderly patient with pernicious anemia is:

A.increased dietary intake of vitamin B-12.
B.oral vitamin B-12 supplementation.
C.intramuscular injections of vitamin B-12.
D.oral multivitamin supplementation.

A

C

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18
Q

An important measure to prevent complications in children with sickle cell anemia is:

A.tight restriction of physical activity.
B.trace mineral supplementation.
C.staying well-hydrated.
D.home schooling for infection control.

A

C

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19
Q

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is usually elevated in all of the following except:

A.adolescents and children.
B.pregnant women in the third trimester.
C.Paget’s disease.
D.nephrotic syndrome.

A

D

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20
Q

It is recommended that the therapeutic management of children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) should include:

A.avoidance of exercise.
B.immunosuppressant agents.
C.ophthalmologist examination at least annually.
D.avoidance of aspirin therapy.

A

C

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21
Q

A 24 year old male patient diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is concerned about long-term survival. The most accurate response by the nurse practitioner would be:

A.”The 5-year survival rate is about 80%.”
B.”Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has a better prognosis.”
C.”With radiation and chemotherapy, there is almost a 100% cure rate.”
D.”With surgical treatment, there is a 95% cure rate.”

A

A

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22
Q

Which of the following statements concerning informed consent is FALSE?

A.The risks, benefits, and alternatives must be written and explained in words the patient understands.
B.It ensures the patient’s right to choose or refuse an intervention.
C.It is not legally binding if the patient cannot write his or her name.
D.It may be signed by a surrogate decision-maker who has power of attorney for medical decisions.

A

C

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23
Q

A 59 year old postmenopausal woman has atrophic vaginitis. She has a history of breast cancer at age 40 years. What is the appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

A.Oral conjugated estrogens
B.Oral medroxyprogesterone acetate
C.Topical medroxyprogesterone acetate
D.Topical conjugate estrogen cream

A

D

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24
Q

Which activities are NOT characteristic of preschool children?

A.Social, cooperative, and shared play
B.Independent toileting with occasional accidents
C.Always follow rules during playground games
D.Use of security objects

A

C

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25
Q

A 2 year old presents with sudden onset of respiratory distress with unilateral wheezing. What is the likely cause?

A.Pneumonia
B.Foreign body aspiration
C.Asthma exacerbation
D.Epiglottitis

A

B

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26
Q

The mechanism by which nurses are held accountable for practice, based on the quality of nursing care in a given situation in accordance with established standards of practice, is:

A.outcome criteria.
B.process criteria.
C.peer review.
D.quality assurance.

A

C

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27
Q

A 26 year old female presents with vaginal itching and a malodorous vaginal discharge. Wet prep is positive for budding hyphae and flagellated protozoa and negative for WBCs and clue cells. KOH is positive. Based on these lab and microscopy findings, the most likely diagnoses are:

A.Gonorrhea and genital herpes.
B.Trichomoniasis and vaginal candidiasis.
C.Genital herpes and trichomoniasis.
D.Vaginal candidiasis and bacterial vaginosis.

A

B

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28
Q

Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of substance abuse in adolescents?

A.Poor school performance
B.Change in sleep habits
C.Increased blood pressure
D.Changes in behavior

A

D

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29
Q

Initial treatment of a child presenting with a severe head injury is:

A.aimed at prevention of seizure activity with prophylactic anticonvulsant medication.
B.prevention of coma, which is the most important determinant of neurologic recovery.
C.aimed at resuscitation, then maintenance of oxygenation and blood flow.
D.normalization of intracranial pressure, followed by intracranial pressure monitoring.

A

C

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30
Q

Your 45 year old patient with diabetes asks about the medications you have prescribed. You respond:

A.”A daily 81 mg of aspirin daily will help reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications from diabetes.”
B.”ACE inhibitors are no longer venoprotective after albuminuria is present.”
C.”Every diabetic should take a lipid-lowering drug to protect the blood vessels from damage.”
D.”As long as your blood pressure is normal, you’ll never need an ACE inhibitor.”

A

A

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding asymptomatic bacteriuria in institutionalized older women?

A.Treatment has not been shown to decrease mortality.
B.Treatment has been shown to decrease morbidity.
C.Screening should be done at least every 3 months.
D.Treatment will usually eradicate the organisms.

A

A

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32
Q

A patient complains of “stomach pains” on and off for the past month. In distinguishing between a gastric and duodenal ulcer, what question is least important to ask?

A.Have you been out of the country in the past several months?
B.Have you had dark, tarry, or bloody stools?
C.Is your stomach pain made worse by eating?
D.Does your stomach pain wake you up in the early morning?

A

A

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33
Q

Persons of Mediterranean descent have an increased incidence of which of the following?

A.Thalassemia
B.Pernicious anemia
C.Sickle cell anemia
D.Leukemia

A

A

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34
Q

A patient presents with a furuncle in his right axilla. The nurse practitioner should prescribe an oral antibiotic and:

A.frequent warm moist compresses.
B.benzoyl peroxide.
C.topical mupirocin ointment (Bactroban®).
D.topical hydrocortisone cream.

A

A

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35
Q

Which of the following is the most prevalent skeletal problem in the United States?

A.Osteomyelitis
B.Stress fracture
C.Osteoporosis
D.Rheumatoid arthritis

A

C

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36
Q

The daughter of a 75 year old patient reports that her mother roams the house at night saying she cannot fall asleep. She has fallen twice. Of the following choices, which would be the most appropriate to treat her insomnia?

A.doxepin (Sinequan®)
B.trazodone (Desyrel®)
C.diazepam (Valium®)
D.zolpidem (Ambien®)

A

D

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37
Q

A patient has Kawasaki syndrome. Which characteristic would be UNUSUAL?

A.Age > 15 years
B.Fever > 101F (38.3C)
C.Exudative pharyngitis
D.Painful rash

A

A

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38
Q

An 8 year old is sent home from school with a mucopurulent discharge from his eye. He is brought to the nurse practitioner for treatment. What is the most appropriate intervention?

A.Cromolyn sodium (Opticrom, Nalcrom) ophthalmic solution for 4 days
B.Doxycycline (Vibramycin) orally for 10 days
C.Bacitracin/polymyxin (Polysporin) ophthalmic solution for 7 to 10 days
D.No pharmacologic intervention is needed because this will resolve overnight without treatment.

A

C

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39
Q

The leading causes of morbidity and mortality in postmenopausal American women are cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis, and cancer. What intervention has the greatest impact on prevention of these disorders?

A.Hormone replacement therapy
B.Early screening for hyperlipidemia
C.Vitamin supplementation
D.Exercise

A

A

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40
Q

An important factor to consider when interviewing the geriatric patient is that:

A.elders are less skilled than young adults at decision-making.
B.the capacity to learn, re-learn, synthesize, and problem-solve diminishes in old age.
C.there is considerable variation in general health, mental status, and functional ability among elders.
D.abstract reasoning and conceptual skills decrease with advanced age.

A

C

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41
Q

What is the recommendation of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Resources regarding nicotine replacement therapy?

A.Encourage the use of nicotine replacement except in the presence of serious medical conditions.
B.Offer nicotine replacement only to those smokers who are unsuccessful after 3 attempts to stop smoking.
C.Discourage the use of nicotine replacement.
D.Offer nicotine replacement only to select populations of heavy smokers with a long history of smoking.

A

A

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42
Q

After hearing the news that she is pregnant, an overweight patient remarks, “I’m not in good enough shape to have a baby. How can I get in shape?” The nurse practitioner would appropriately advise her to:

A.join an aerobic exercise class.
B.begin walking about 3 times per week with a family member or friend.
C.take yoga or tai-chi lessons for mental and physical relaxation.
D.avoid exertion, as adequate rest is more important.

A

B

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43
Q

The diagnosis of Meniere’s disease is based on:

A.magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings.
B.exclusion of other pathologies.
C.the presence of high frequency hearing loss.
D.the presence of central vertigo.

A

B

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44
Q

An individual with a positive surface antibody and positive core would have developed immunity from having the disease, not the immunization. A nurse practitioner palpates a nodule during a prostate exam. What other clues may indicate prostate cancer?

A.Elevated PSA and hematuria
B.Urinary retention and scrotal pain
C.Urethral discharge and elevated PSA
D.Freely movable cystic mass and nonviable sperm

A

A

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45
Q

A 25 year old overweight patient presents with a complaint of dull achiness in his groin and history of a palpable lump in his scrotum that “comes and goes.” On physical examination, the nurse practitioner does not detect a scrotal mass. There is no tenderness, edema, or erythema of the scrotum and the scrotum does not transilluminate. Considering these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Testicular torsion
B.Epididymitis
C.Inguinal hernia
D.Varicocele

A

C

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46
Q

The nurse practitioner palpates an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node. The next action is to assess the:

A.throat, face, and right ear.
B.right neck and supraclavicular region.
C.right axilla and breast.
D.right forearm and hand.

A

D

47
Q

A 2 week old African-American male infant has ecchymotic-like marks over his lower back and upper buttocks. The most appropriate intervention is to:

A.report the finding to child protection services.
B.order bleeding studies and a complete blood count.
C.reassure the infant’s mother that this is a normal finding.
D.recommend a genetics consultation.

A

C

48
Q

Criteria for the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease include:

A.cerebral atrophy on CT scan.
B.slowing of brain wave activity on EEG.
C.insidious and progressive decline of cognitive functions.
D.significant disturbances of consciousness.

A

C

49
Q

Which of the following is appropriate to include in a breast cancer awareness seminar for women?

A.All women should have an initial mammogram by 40 years-of-age, but then annually by 50 years-of-age.
B.A palpable breast lump that is suspicious for breast cancer is usually round, soft, and tender or painful when palpated.
C.Menopause at a later age decreases the risk of breast cancer.
D.Breast examination performed annually by a professional health care provider is an adequate substitute for monthly self-breast examination.

A

A

50
Q

A 59 year old male complains of decreased range of joint motion “everywhere,” that gets better after the first 3 or 4 hours in the morning. He states that he “has no energy”. Spinal x-rays reveal joint space narrowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Osteoarthritis (OA)
B.Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
C.Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
D.Gout

A

B

51
Q

A 10 year old presents with hematuria, periorbital edema, and elevated blood pressure. He has a history of streptococcal pharyngitis 2 weeks earlier. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Essential hypertension
B.Hydronephresis
C.Acute glomerulonephritis
D.Kawasaki syndrome

A

C

52
Q

A characteristic of elders which affects the pharmacotherapeutics of drug therapy in that population is an increase in:

A.total body water.
B.lean muscle mass.
C.hepatic blood flow.
D.percent of body fat.

A

D

53
Q

A patient taking levothyroxine is being over-replaced. What condition is he at risk for?

A.Osteoporosis
B.Diarrhea
C.Bipolar disorder
D.Periorbital puffiness

A

A

54
Q

Most children who have been sexually abused have:

A.dilation of the vagina or rectum.
B.no detectable genital injury.
C.a sexually transmitted infection.
D.bruising of the genital area.

A

B

55
Q

The nurse practitioner is following a child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) who has been previously diagnosed and is being managed for the disease by a pediatric rheumatologist. The mother asks for information about the child’s long-term prognosis. The appropriate reply is that:

A.since her child is under the care of a rheumatologist, she should direct questions concerning the JRA to him.
B.JRA is a childhood form of rheumatoid arthritis and her child will have the illness for a lifetime.
C.most children with JRA achieve complete remission by adulthood, but its effects might cause lifelong limitations.
D.most children with JRA do not live to adulthood.

A

C

56
Q

A 53 year old postmenopausal female, with a 38 BMI, and gastric esophageal reflux disease, takes a daily calcium supplement for protection against osteoporosis. All of the following are appropriate teaching points for this patient EXCEPT:

A.take the calcium supplement with milk to facilitate absorption.
B.the addition of HRT may further decrease osteoporosis risk.
C.take an OTC calcium-containing antacid to increase calcium intake.
D.avoid caffeine-containing beverages.

A

A

57
Q

A person with 20/80 vision:

A.is legally blind.
B.will have difficulty reading a newspaper.
C.will be unable to see the big “E” on the eye chart.
D.has poorer vision than someone with 20/40 vision.

A

D

58
Q

Which of the following are the classic features of ulcerative colitis?

A.Right lower quadrant pain, frequently accompanied by a palpable mass, fever, and leukocytosis
B.Massive painful hematemesis, occasionally accompanied by melena
C.Rapidly progressive dysphagia to solid foods, anorexia, and weight loss out of proportion to the dysphagia
D.Remissions and exacerbations of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fecal incontinence, abdominal pain, and weight loss

A

D

59
Q

The client with iron deficiency anemia should be advised to take the iron supplement:

A.with milk to avoid stomach upset.
B.with milk of magnesia at bedtime to avoid constipation.
C.on an empty stomach between meals.
D.for 30 days to 6 weeks.

A

C

60
Q

A patient with a history of cerumen impaction presents with a feeling of fullness, itching, and decreased hearing bilaterally. What is most appropriate to say to the patient PRIOR to irrigating the ear to remove the impacted cerumen?

A.”I’m going to use cool water to irrigate your ear.”
B.”This will probably hurt, but it will only last a few seconds.”
C.”Let me know if you feel nauseated or dizzy.”
D.”I recommend using an over the counter cerumen solvent once weekly for this problem.”

A

C

61
Q

A good sunscreen lotion or sunblock may contain all of the following components. Which provides the LEAST protection against the sun’s harmful rays?

A.Zinc oxide
B.Benzophenones
C.Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
D.Lanolin

A

D

62
Q

Which drug class can potentially produce hypotension, bradycardia, and worsening HF?

A.Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE)
B.Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB)
C.Loop diuretics
D.Beta adrenergic blockers (BB)

A

D

63
Q

A 19 year old sexually active female is being counseled by the nurse practitioner about contraception. The nurse practitioner is accurate when she tells the patient that a diaphragm:

A.with a flat spring type is easier to use.
B.increases the incidence of urinary tract infection.
C.must be inserted immediately before intercourse.
D.increases the risk of sexually transmitted diseases.

A

B

64
Q

Long-range disease prevention programs are most likely to be successful if:

A.only long-range goals are included.
B.the programs are shaped to fit the cultural and health profiles of the population.
C.the practitioner convinces individuals that their beliefs are incorrect.
D.emphasis is placed on future health benefits.

A

B

65
Q

Correct instructions to give new parents who are transporting their newborn infant is:

A.a rear-facing infant car seat secured in the backseat is required until the infant weights 20 lbs.
B.the infant car set may be secured in the back or front seat, but must be rear-facing.
C.the infant car seat may be front-facing when the infant is 1-year-old.
D.a rear- or front-facing infant car seat must be secured in the back seat until the infant weight 20 lbs.

A

A

66
Q

When, in childhood, do the frontal sinuses usually present?

A.Birth
B.2 to 3 years
C.4 to 6 years
D.10 to 11 years

A

C

67
Q

A 35 year old man who has a history of injecting drug abuse is diagnosed with herpes zoster. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse practitioner now consider?

A.Varicella titer
B.Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
C.ELISA for HIV
D.Viral cultur

A

C

68
Q

Routine primary poliovirus vaccination for adults is:

A.3 doses of live oral trivalent polio vaccine (OPV), each 2 months apart.
B.3 doses of inactivated trivalent polio vaccine (IPV), each 2 months apart.
C.recommended only in persons with compromised immunity.
D.not routinely recommended in non-immunized adults.

A

D

69
Q

The nurse practitioner assesses a 10 year old who has never received any immunizations. Which immunization is NOT recommended from the first series for this patient?

A.IPV
B.Measles, mumps, rubella
C.Tetanus, diphtheria (Td)
D.Influenza type b (Hib)

A

D

70
Q

The nurse practitioner diagnoses eczema on the cheeks of a 2 year old female. The patient’s mother explains that she is embarrassed to take the child in public because her face is so red, dry, and crusted. She asks for a “strong” cortisone cream so the eczema will clear rapidly. The nurse practitioner knows that:

A.a high potency cortisone preparation applied to the face will shorten the duration of the eczema flare-up.
B.a high potency cortisone cream on the face will only be helpful if used in conjunction with a hydrating lotion.
C.a high potency cortisone cream is not recommended for use on children under 3 years-of-age.
D.a high potency cortisone cream may cause atrophy, telangiectasia, purpura, or striae if used on the face.

A

D

71
Q

A patient reports a red eye 2 days ago. Now both eyes are red. On awakening this morning, her eyelids were crusted and stuck together. On examination, the nurse practitioner finds bilateral swelling and inflammation of the lids and conjunctiva. Based on the most probable diagnosis, the treatment of choice is an ophthalmic:

A.mast cell stabilizer.
B.antibiotic-steroid combination.
C.steroid.
D.anti-viral.

A

B

72
Q

Oral and parenteral contraceptive methods:

A.stimulate secretion of LH.
B.inhibit secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
C.inhibit secretion of FSH.
D.inhibit hCG.

A

C

73
Q

Which of the following diagnoses has a high co-morbid association with HIV infection?

A.Chancroid
B.Secondary syphilis
C.Chlamydia
D.Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

A

74
Q

A patient presents with an inflamed upper eyelid margin. The conjunctiva is red and there is particulate matter along the upper eyelid. The patient complains of a sensation that “there is something in my eye.” What is the diagnosis and how should it be treated?

A.Hordeolum; treat with a topical antibiotics and warm compresses
B.Conjunctivitis; treat with topical antibiotics and warm compresses
C.Blepharitis; treat with warm compresses and gentle debridement with a cotton swab
D.Chalazion; refer to an ophthalmologist for incision and drainage

A

C

75
Q

The nurse practitioner is conducting a routine health assessment of a 28 year old patient. He states he is very “health conscious” and that he runs 6 miles daily. He denies current health problems and his past medical history is unremarkable. Routine urinalysis reveals proteinuria. What is the most likely cause of the proteinuria?

A.Fever
B.Exercise
C.Urinary tract infection (UTI)
D.Trauma

A

B

76
Q

In order to decrease deaths from lung cancer:

A.all smokers should be screened annually.
B.all patients should be screened annually.
C.only high risk patients should be screened routinely.
D.patients should be counseled to quit smoking.

A

D

77
Q

Which characteristic is NOT indicative of HF?

A.Fine basilar crackles on auscultation
B.Pulmonary edema
C.Dilated heart
D.Purulent sputum

A

D

78
Q

A positive drawer sign supports a diagnosis of:

A.sciatica.
B.cruciate ligament injury.
C.hip dislocation.
D.Patellar ligament injury.

A

B

79
Q

What is the most common causative agent of bronchiolitis in infants and children?

A.Staphylococcus aureus
B.Haemophilus influenza
C.Respiratory syncytial virus
D.Adenovirus

A

C

80
Q

A 50 year old, non-smoker, with no co-morbidity presents to the clinic and is diagnosed with pneumonia. His vital signs are normal except for temperature 101.6 degree F (38.6 degree C). A sputum specimen is collected and sent for culture and sensitivity. What action should the nurse practitioner take today?

A.Wait for the culture report before starting antibiotic therapy.
B.Start clarithromycin (Biaxin®) 500 mg 2 times a day for10 to 14 days.
C.Start penicillin V 500 mg 4 times a day for 7 to 10 days.
D.Start ciprofloxacin (Cipro®) 500 mg twice a day for 10 to 14 days.

A

B

81
Q

A 17 year old has mononucleosis. His CBC is best characterized by:

A.increased lymphocytes and decreased total white count.
B.increased neutrophils and increased total white count.
C.increased monocytes and increased total white count.
D.increased lymphocytes and increased neutrophils.

A

A

82
Q

A 25 year old married woman is being taught the natural family planning method (NFP) of contraception by the nurse practitioner. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates her understanding of NFP?

A.”Abstinence is required during the 14th through 16th day of my cycle.”
B.”Coitus is ‘safe’ when my basal body temperature increases.”
C.”Cervical mucus is clear and thin during ovulation.”
D.”Douching does not affect my ability to effectively practice NFP.”

A

C

83
Q

A 26 year old patient, 18 weeks pregnant with twins, has been healthy and has followed the recommendations of her nurse midwife. She is in the office to discuss results of her maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test which show an elevation. In this particular pregnancy:

A.elevated MSAFP is an indicator of Down syndrome.
B.low MSAFP is expected at 18 weeks gestation.
C.neural tube defect is highly probable.
D.elevated MSAFP is an expected finding.

A

D

84
Q

All of the following are medical emergencies which may be attributed to acute cocaine intoxication EXCEPT:

A.hyperthermia leading to extreme rhabdomyolysis.
B.hypertension with or without vasculitis causing cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
C.depression of cardiac conduction and contractility resulting in arrhythmias and myocardial infarction (MI).
D.decreased heart rate and vasodilation leading to hypersomnia.

A

D

85
Q

An early sign of multiple sclerosis (MS) is:

A.acute monocular vision loss.
B.memory loss.
C.personality changes.
D.brief losses of consciousness.

A

A

86
Q

Immediately after receiving 2 immunizations by injection, a 5 year old becomes pale and faints. He is placed on an exam table and in about 15 seconds he regains consciousness. He did not stop breathing. His mother asks what happened. The nurse practitioner correctly explains:

A.an allergic reaction to the vaccine is the likely cause.
B.the child became scared and had a vasovagal episode.
C.this happens frequently when immunizations are given.
D.this will likely recur next time the child receives an injection.

A

B

87
Q

Screening for increased intra-ocular pressure or early glaucoma is:

A.recommended annually beginning at 40 years-of-age.
B.indicated only if symptoms such as eye pain or vision are noted.
C.best performed by an eye specialist.
D.part of the routine physical examination of an adult.

A

C

88
Q

A healthy 4-week-old infant presents with continuous ipsilateral eye tearing for the past 3 days. There is absence of purulence, erythema, and swelling. The nurse practitioner diagnoses dacryostenosis and most appropriately recommends:

A.regular nasolacrimal duct massage.
B.an ophthalmic antibacterial agent.
C.no treatment, as the condition will resolve spontaneously.
D.an ophthalmic antibiotic/steroid combination.

A

A

89
Q

A 3-day old female infant has a blood tinged vaginal discharge. Which of the following is a correct statement about this condition?

A.Evidence of child abuse and should be reported.
B.This is a normal finding.
C.This condition which needs further follow up.
D.This represents a blood dyscrasia.

A

B

90
Q

A 23 year old female patient of Italian descent has been diagnosed with anemia secondary to glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency. It is important to teach this patient to avoid:

A.beef or pork liver.
B.fava beans.
C.phenylalanine.
D.milk and milk products.

A

B

91
Q

A patient with active tuberculosis (TB) has a negative PPD skin test. This phenomenon may be explained by any of the following EXCEPT:

A.oral steroid treatment.
B.frequent acute exacerbations of chronic asthma.
C.HIV infection.
D.malnourishment due to anorexia nervosa.

A

B

92
Q

Which of the following maternal situations is considered an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding?

A.Early HIV infection
B.History of breast cancer
C.Taking tuberculosis medication
D.Hepatitis C infection

A

A

93
Q

Which of the following drugs has a beneficial effect on benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A.doxazosin (Cardura®)
B.nifedipine (Procardia®)
C.propranolol (Inderal®)
D.nadolol (Corgard®)

A

A

94
Q

A patient is diagnosed with Bell’s Palsy. He is placed on high dose steroids. After 4 days of prednisone, the patient states that his eye still will not close completely. How should the nurse practitioner manage problem?

A.This patient should be referred to a neurologist.
B.This is not unusual. He should continue the plan.
C.The nurse practitioner should increase the dosage of prednisone.
D.The patient should have a CT scan to rule out other etiologies

A

B

95
Q

A 65 year old patient comes to the health clinic in October for an influenza vaccine. He has never had one before. A “yes” response to which of the following questions, would contraindicate vaccine administration?

A.Are you allergic to penicillin?
B.Did you have any reactions to the MMR vaccination?
C.Are you allergic to eggs?
D.Have you taken an antibiotic in the past week?

A

C

96
Q

According to the Standards of Advanced Practice Nursing developed by the American Nurses Association (ANA), an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) who informs the patient of the risks, benefits, and outcomes of a health care regimen is following which standard of practice?

A

D

97
Q

A 15 year old high school student presents with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The nurse practitioner suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?

A.Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen.
B.Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae.
C.Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
D.Obtain a urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase.

A

D

98
Q

Enlargement of the scrotum and testes with little change in the size of the penis characterizes which Tanner stage of sexual development?

A.Tanner 1
B.Tanner 2
C.Tanner 3
D.Tanner 5

A

B

99
Q

A 38 year old patient is being treated by the nurse practitioner for heavy vaginal bleeding secondary to multiple uterine leiomyomas. Her uterus is greater than 12 weeks gestational size, her hematocrit is 28%, and she has not responded to hormonal therapy. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention at this time?

A.Start iron replacement therapy.
B.Obtain a gynecological consultation.
C.Order a urine pregnancy test.
D.Begin medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera®)

A

B

100
Q

A 66 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most likely cause of this behavior?

A.Dementia
B.Delirium
C.Parkinson’s disease
D.Depression

A

B

101
Q

What condition is associated with mucus production greater than 3 months per year for at least 2 consecutive years?

A.Chronic asthmatic bronchitis
B.Emphysema
C.Chronic obstructive lung disease
D.Chronic bronchitis

A

D

102
Q

A 15 year old patient has a complaint of vaginal discharge. She is sexually active with multiple partners. Which of the following symptoms should lead the nurse practitioner to suspect pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A.Cervical motion tenderness (CMT)
B.A report of dyspareunia
C.A complaint of low back pain
D.A yellow vaginal discharge

A

A

103
Q

The CAGE, MAST, and AUDIT questionnaires to detect problem drinking should be used:

A.to detect early problems and hazardous drinking.
B.as supplements to the standard patient history.
C.as a diagnostic tool for the early detection of problem drinking.
D.to determine the level and pattern of alcohol use.

A

B

104
Q

A patient is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Blood pressure readings for the previous 3 months have been 154/100, 148/102, 158/104. This patient’s hypertension is categorized:

A

B

105
Q

The anemia associated with chronic disease is:

A.normocytic and normochromic.
B.macrocytic and hyperchromic.
C.microcytic and hyperchromic.
D.macrocytic and normochromic.

A

A

106
Q

Signs and symptoms of anemia, regardless of the specific cause or type, include all of the following EXCEPT:

A.weakness, dizziness, fatigue.
B.headache and impaired concentration.
C.dyspnea on exertion.
D.shakiness or jitteriness.

A

D

107
Q

A 30 year old female patient presents to the clinic with heat intolerance, tremors, nervousness and weight loss inconsistent with appetite. Which choice below would be most helpful in identifying the etiology of this patient’s complaints?

A.A serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level
B.A complete blood count (CBC)
C.An electrocardiogram (ECG)
D.Hamilton Anxiety Scale

A

A

108
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is NOT consistent with a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis in a 3-month-old infant?

A.Projectile vomiting
B.Severe dehydration as demonstrated by sunken eyeballs and depressed anterior fontanelle
C.A bloated and tense, tympanic, abdomen
D.A palpable mass, the size and shape of an olive, in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen

A

C

109
Q

A mother calls the office reporting that her child has burned his finger by touching a hot pot about 1 hour ago. She describes the burn as red, painful, dry, and without blistering. The child cried at the time of the accident and is complaining of pain now. The nurse practitioner should instruct the mother to:

A.apply cool water compresses and administer ibuprofen.
B.bring the child to the clinic for evaluation.
C.apply cooking oil.
D.apply moisturizing lotion

A

A

110
Q

The reason beta-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with asthma is that they may:

A.interfere with the action of inhaled beta-adrenergics.
B.potentiate pulmonary inflammation.
C.increase the tenacity of pulmonary secretions.
D.inhibit the cough reflex.

A

A

111
Q

Which of the following oral medications should be avoided in a child under 8 years-of-age?

A.cephalexin (Keflex)
B.tetracycline
C.rifampin
D.metronidazole (Flagyl®)

A

B

112
Q

Purposes for using a spacer for inhaling asthma medications include all of the following EXCEPT to:

A.allow a longer time for administration.
B.reduce cough associated with drug inhalations.
C.prevent oral yeast infection when using inhaled steroids.
D.reduce the dose of medication delivered per spray.

A

D

113
Q

Which antibiotic is demonstrated to be the most effective treatment for community acquired pneumonia (CAP) in young adults without any co-morbid conditions?

A.sulfa
B.clarithromycin (Biaxin®)
C.doxycycline (Vibramycin®)
D.penicillin

A

B

114
Q

Before initiating an HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders liver function studies. The patient’s aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated. What laboratory test(s) should be ordered?

A.Serologic markers for hepatitis
B.Serum bilirubin
C.Serum cholesterol with HDL and LDL
D.A liver biopsy

A

A

115
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with Type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A.Gestational diabetes, birth of a macrosomic infant
B.Hispanic, African-American, or Native American descent
C.Alcohol or other drug abuse
D.Obesity, hypertension, hypertriglyceridemia

A

C

116
Q

The most common cause of obesity is:

A.hypothalamic injury.
B.medication that increases appetite or decreases metabolic rate.
C.hypothyroid function.
D.caloric intake which exceeds caloric expenditure

A

D