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CL-350S Study Cards > LIMITATIONS > Flashcards

LIMITATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum Runway Length (DRY)

A

4000’ DRY

**Minimum distances are required for release only. Upon arrival, pilots may land if the LPA computed distance is less than the landing distance available.

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2
Q

OPS review required if runway length is less than what?

A

Contaminated: Less than 5500’

**Minimum distances are required for release only. Upon arrival, pilots may land if the LPA computed distance is less than the landing distance available.

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3
Q

Max Crosswind for TAKEOFF?

(Normal Conditions)

A

28 kts

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4
Q

Max crosswind for LANDING with NWS INOP?

A

15 kts. (operations on contaminated runways not authorized with NWS inop)

Takeoff with NWS INOP is NOT AUTHORIZED

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5
Q

Max crosswind for LANDING?

(Normal Conditions)

A

24 kts

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6
Q

Max crosswind for landing on a contaminated runway?

A

150 or greater runway width: 15 kts

149 or less runway width : 10 kts

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7
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

10 kts

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8
Q

Max ramp/taxi weight.

A

40,750

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9
Q

Max takeoff weight.

A

40,600

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10
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

34,150

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11
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

45,000 feet

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12
Q

Max turbulent air penetration speed

A

265/.75

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13
Q

Max landing gear extension speed (VLO EXT)

A

250 kts.

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14
Q

Max landing gear retraction speed (VLO RET).

A

200 kts.

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15
Q

Max flap extension speeds?

A

Flaps 10°- 210
Flaps 20°- 210
Flaps 30°-175

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16
Q

Maximum cabin differential pressure for landing.

A

1.0 psid

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17
Q

Max cabin differential for ground operations.

A

0.1 psid

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18
Q

APU starter limits

A

3 start attempts with 1 minute intervals (then 20 minutes cooling, 2 additional attempts, then 40 minutes cooling)

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19
Q

APU airborne attempts allowed

A

ONLY 1

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20
Q

EMERGENCY FUEL

A

1300 lbs.

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21
Q

Max altitude for APU start

A

30,000 feet

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22
Q

Max Altitude for APU operation.

A

37,000 feet

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23
Q

Max airspeed for APU start.

A

285 Kts

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24
Q

Min Altitude for autopilot engagement.

A

700 feet AGL

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25
Q

Min altitude for using autopilot during a precision approach (GP angle 3.5 degrees or less)

A

80 feet.

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26
Q

Min altitude for using autopilot during a non- precision approach (GP angle of 3.5 degrees or less) or visual approach.

A

200 feet.

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27
Q

Approach Category

A

C

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28
Q

Max time on APR

A

10 minutes (when automatically activated)

5 minutes (when manually activated)

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29
Q

Max time in TO thrust.

A

5 minutes

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30
Q

Max Zero fuel weight

A

28,200 lbs

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31
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

10,000 feet

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32
Q

Max altitude with yaw damper off

A

31,000

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33
Q

Max runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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34
Q

VMO up to 8000 feet msl

A

300 KIAS

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35
Q

VMO (8001-29,475 ft)

A

320 KIAS

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36
Q

MMO

A

.83 Mach

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37
Q

Max gear extension altitude

A

18,000 feet

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38
Q

Max gear EXTENDED speed

A

250 KIAS

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39
Q

Max Flap extension altitude

A

18,000 feet

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40
Q

Tire speed limit

A

182 KIAS

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41
Q

Min Oil temp for starting

A

-40 C

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42
Q

Min oil pressure at IDLE

A

28 psi

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43
Q

Min IDLE N2

A

46%

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44
Q

Max ground START ITT

A

650 C

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45
Q

Engine Starter Limits

A

3 starts, followed by 15 minutes cooling period.

engine must be motored for 30 seconds after an aborted start

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46
Q

How long can the engine be motored for?

A

5 minutes followed by a 15 minute cooling period.

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47
Q

Max ITT to initiate a start

A

350 C

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48
Q

Max ITT FADEC begins a start at

A

250 C

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49
Q

Minimum airspeed with spoilers extended

A

Vref + 8

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50
Q

Minimum altitude with spoilers extended

A

500 ft AGL

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51
Q

When can you use EMER speed brakes?

A

Emergency, QRC or QRH

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52
Q

When must power/gravity crossflow be off?

A

Takeoff

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53
Q

Minimum go around fuel (per wing)

A

500 lbs (collector tank capacity)

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54
Q

Max fuel imbalance.

A

250-600 lbs depending on fuel load (The higher fuel the load, the less the imbalance can be)

> 13,700————> 250lbs
10,000-13,699—–> 315lbs
4,700-9,999——–> 450lbs
600lbs

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55
Q

Max bulk fuel temperature for takeoff

A

50 C

56
Q

Minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff

A 
JET-A = -30 C
JET-A1= -35 C
57
Q

Max Altitude to use APU for electrics

A

30,000

58
Q

Max altitude to use APU for ECS.

A

20,000 feet

59
Q

Thrust reverser limitations

A

Paved surfaces only
do not deploy tr’s in flight
do not use to back up airplane
do not use for touch and go’s

60
Q

Limitation for TRIM AIR ONLY.

A

trim air only is prohibited on ground.

61
Q

Max Altitude for crew/passenger oxygen masks.

A

40,000 feet

prolonged passenger O2 mask ops above 25,000 feet cabin altitude is not recommended.

62
Q

FMS V speeds prohibited above _______

A

ISA +33

63
Q

VNAV prohibited on _______ operations

A

QFE

64
Q

Is FMS rannge/fuel info advisory only?

A

YES

65
Q

When conducting an instrument approach with a T-Transition and using VNAV for descent guidance, IAS at the IAF must be _____ KTS or LESS.

A

210

AOM Chapter 9

66
Q

VMCG

Flaps 10 _____
Flaps 20_____

A

Flaps 10: 115

Flaps 20: 114

CH 350 AFM (Collections 250)

67
Q

VMCA (takeoff)
Flaps 10 ______
Flaps 20 ______

A

Flaps 10: 110

Flaps 20: 109

AOM (Limitations)

68
Q

VMCL (landing min control speed

Flaps 10 _____
Flaps 20 _____
Flaps 30 _____

A

Flaps 10: 115

Flaps 20: 110

Flaps 30: 107

AOM (Limitations)

69
Q

Icing Systems Limitt: Minimum temperature- L and R WING/ENG

A

-40 C

AOM (Table 9.13)

70
Q

45-minute IFR Reserve

A

1850 lbs.

**The DO or designee may authorize reduction of this quantity under certain circumstances.

71
Q

Inclement weather parking Fuel.

A

5400 lbs. minimum

See “Parking in Inclement Weather” AOM SECTION 4.4

72
Q

Hot Spare Fuel Load

A

6000 lbs.

73
Q

Minimum Runway Width

A

70’

74
Q

Max Slope (+/-)

A

2%

75
Q

The Following Equipment must be operational in RVSM AIRSPACE:

A
  • Autopilot (1)
  • Altitude Alerting Device (1)
  • ATC Altitude Reporting Transponder (1)
  • Air Data Computers (ADC) (2)
  • Pitot Probe Heaters (2) on the probes linked to the ADC in use.
76
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

28,200 lbs.

77
Q

Max Flap Extended Altitude

A

18,000’

78
Q

Max Altitude for Start, Takeoff, Landing

A

10,000 ft.

79
Q

Maximum Gear Extended ALTITUDE

A

18,000 ft.

80
Q

VMO

A

320 KTS

81
Q

MMO

A

.83 M

82
Q

Max Tire Ground Speed.

A

182 kts

83
Q

Minimum Control Speeds VMC

VMCG flaps 10:
VMCG flaps 20:

VMCA flaps 10:
VMCA flaps 20:

VMCL flaps 10:
VMCL flaps 20:
VMCL flaps 30:

A

VMCG flaps 10: 115 kts
VMCG flaps 20: 114 kts

VMCA flaps 10: 110 kts
VMCA flaps 20: 109 kts

VMCL flaps 10: 115 kts
VMCL flaps 20: 110 kts
VMCL flaps 30: 107 kts

84
Q

Visual Inspection of the aircraft is NOT required when an over-speed event occurs under the following conditions:

A
  • Level Flight
  • No Turbulence
  • Landing Gear and Flaps Retracted
  • Did Not Exceed the following:
    - VMO +15 KTS
    - MMO +M 0.03
85
Q

Maximum Differential (psi)

A

9.4

86
Q

Maximum Differential Overpressure (psi)

A

9.6

87
Q

Maximum Negative Differential (psi)

A

-0.5

88
Q

Where can you find the oxygen duration Tables?

A

QRH1 OXYGEN DURATION TABLES (S-21), also FCOM 2 (OXYGEN SYSTEM SECTION 08-01-5), FCOM 1 (Oxygen Duration Tables 05-12-10)

89
Q

Max altitude to Start the Left Engine with the APU

A

9000 ft (pressure altitude)

90
Q

Do not operate the APU under the following conditions

A
  • Above 37,000 ft
  • During Ground De-ice/Anti-ice procedures
91
Q

Do not Use the APU Generator above:

A

30,000 feet

92
Q

Do not use APU Bleed Air above:

A

20,000 feet

93
Q

When Operating at an airport with a 5G NOTAM, Disconnect the autopilot below:

A

400 ft. AGL

94
Q

Maximum Generator Load (In Flight 2 or 3 Generators operating, or on ground)

A

400A

95
Q

Maximum Generator load (1 GENERATOR OPERATING)

A

500 A

96
Q

Maximum TRANSIENT Generator load.

A

600 amps (5 Minutes)

97
Q

Do not extend the flight spoilers below what approach speed?

A

Vref +8 kts.

98
Q

Do not extend the flight spoilers below what altitude?

A

500 ft. AGL

99
Q

Do not select the Flight Spoilers to EMER except during:

A
  • Emergency conditions
  • When required by a procedure
100
Q

Pressure fueling is limited to ________ psi

A

55 psi

101
Q

Max total Fuel Quantity (pressure refueling)

A

14,150 lbs

102
Q

Max Total Fuel quantity ( gravity fueling)

A

13,000 lbs.

103
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance > 13,700 lbs

A

250 lbs

104
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance (10,000-13,699 lbs)

A

315 lbs

105
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance (4700-9999 lbs)

A

450 lbs

106
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance < 4700 lbs.

A

600 lbs

107
Q

Minimum go-around Fuel

A

1000 lbs Total (500 lbs. per tank)

108
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance during gravity refueling

A

250

109
Q

Takeoff is PROHIBITED with the bulk fuel temperature above:

A

50 degrees C

110
Q

If Bulk fuel temperature is above 45 degrees Celsius the minimum fuel quantity is:

A

2800 lbs

**if the fuel quantity Is less than 1000 lbs per side, do not operate engines for more than 30 minutes.

111
Q

Cockpit Speaker mute Limits

A

When Cockpit speakers are muted, both pilots must use headsets.

When one pilot removes his/her headset, select COCKPIT SPEAKER MUTE- OFF

112
Q

Operate Engine and airframe anti-icing systems on the ground and in flight when the following conditions are present:

A
  • Visible Moisture (rain, snow, or visibility less than 1 mile)
  • Operating on contaminated surfaces.

AND

On the Ground/SAT 10 C and > 5 C: L and R ENG Anti-Ice ON.

On the Ground/SAT 5 C and below: L and R ENG and WING Anti-Ice ON. (If de-iced with type 2,3,4, delay turning ON WING anti ice just prior to applying takeoff power)

IN-FLIGHT: TAT 10 C or below,
L and R ENG - ON and WING - ON ( SPEED is below 210 KTS for WING or, anytime the ICE DETECTED Amber CAS message is displayed)

113
Q

Do not use the FMS for the following:

A

Navigation at latitudes South of 60 degrees South

Navigation at Latitudes North of 73 degrees North and for Canadian Northern Airspace

114
Q

Do not Use the FMS as the primary source of navigation:

A

When dead reckoning (FMS DR annunciation)

115
Q

Always retrieve approaches from ___________ database.

A

CURRENT

116
Q

FMS en route and terminal operations must use __________database or _________ ___________ waypoints.

A

CURRENT database or

Pilot Verified waypoints

117
Q

Do not use FPLN UPLINK ___ ___________.

A

In Flight

The FPLN UPLINK must complete or cancelled before taxiing.

118
Q

Do not use FANS CPDLC FMS auto-load function to load any CPDLC clearance containing _________ constraints.

A

RTA

119
Q

Do not select FANS CPDLC INSERT MOD when within ____ minutes of a TO waypoint.

A

2

120
Q

Flight plan received through CPDLC, ensure the entire flight plan is __________ in the FMS.

A

Loaded

121
Q

Do not conduct RNAV operations when any of the following FMS messages are annunciated:

A
  • FMS DR (PFD MFD or CDU)
  • IRS ONLY (PFD MFD or CDU)
  • VOR/DME ONLY (CDU) or V/D ONLY (PFD)
  • VOR/DME DIST > 40.0 NM (CDU)
  • CHK POS (PFD or CDU)
122
Q

Do not conduct RNP operations when any of the following massages are displayed:

A
  • NO APPR (FMS A1 on PFD)
  • LOI (FMS A1 on PFD)
  • LOSS OF INTEGRITY (on CDU)
  • GNSS NOT AVAILABLE (on CDU)
  • GNSS-FMS DISAGREE (on CDU)
123
Q

Do not use IFIS CHARTS if related databases (charts airspace airways geo political or graphical weather) are not ____________.

A

Current

124
Q

Do not use Geopolitical boundaries, controlled and special use airspace on MFW MAP for _________.

A

NAVIGATION

125
Q

Do not use the _____________ ______________ on digital approach and taxi charts for navigation or precision maneuvering on the ground.

A

Aircraft Symbol

126
Q

Do not use the Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) for _________________.

A

NAVIGATION

127
Q

Synthetic Vision System (SVS).

Do not use the SVS for airplane _____________.

A

Navigation

128
Q

Deselect the SVS prior to passing the FAF when conducting an approach in airspace NOT referenced to:

A

WGS-84 or NAD-83

129
Q

If SVS database is not current, DESELECT SVS prior to _______________and prior to passing the _________.

A

Takeoff/FAF

130
Q

For ILS, LOC, and BC approaches, do not use _______ as the primary navigation source inside the FAF.

A

FMS

131
Q

When conducting an instrument approach with a T – transition and using our VNAV for descent guidance, indicated airspeed at the initial approach fix must be _______kts or less.

A

210

132
Q

Initiate missed approach if the appropriate annunciator, or any of the following annunciators are displayed:

A

NO APPR

UNABLE RNP

133
Q

For ACCURATE COMPASS READINGS, SELECT L and R WSHLD/WINDOW TO ______.

A

OFF

134
Q

The following EICAS COLORS Mean what?

GREEN

RED

AMBER

CYAN

WHITE

A

GREEN - NORMAL (safe) operating range

RED - WARNING - Indications of hazard which may require immediate corrective action.

AMBER- Caution – indications of possible need of corrective action.

CYAN- Advisory Messages.

WHITE- Status Messages.

135
Q

If the door actuator is operated three times in a three minute period, allow Cabin door motor to cool for _____ minutes

A

5

136
Q

Minimum Oil Temperature for Takeoff?

A

27 degrees C

CL-350S Study Cards (14 decks)

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