Exam 2 - more endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

2 drugs to treat hyperthroidism

A
  1. sodium levothyroxine (T4, Synthroid/Levoxyl)

2. sodium liothyronine (T3, Cytomel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA for sodium levothyroxine

A

alters DNA transcription/protein synthesis
promotes GNG
promotes glycogen stores
Increases BMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 drugs for hypothroidism

A
  1. propylthiouracil PTU
  2. Iodides
  3. methimazole (Tapazole)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 oral side effects of Tapazole

A
  1. taste alteration

2. salivary gland swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 side effects of PTU

A
  1. skin rash
  2. nausea
  3. agranulocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MOA for PTU

A

Blocks iodination (synthesis of T3/T4) reaction in thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MOA for Tapazole

A

Blocks iodines ability to combine with Tyrosine to form T3/T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

5 side effects of Tapazole

A
  1. hematologic disorders
  2. fever
  3. rash
  4. vasculitis
  5. arthralgia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What diabetes medication helps to improve glycemic control in type 1 and type 2?

A

Long acting Lantus Solostar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Side effect of Lantus Solostar

A

mouth numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

5 classes of type 2 diabetes medications

A
  1. sulfonylureas
  2. biguanides
  3. alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
  4. thiazolidinesdiones (TZDs)
  5. Incretins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

example of a biguanides

A

metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

5 effects of metformin

A
  1. inhibits absorption of glucose from gut
  2. decreases hepatic glucose production
  3. increase insulin activity
  4. increase peripheral glucose uptake and utilization
  5. reduces LDL cholesterol and triglycerides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 side effects of metformin

A
  1. lactic acidosis

2. GI effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 drugs from the 1st generation of sulfonylureas?

A
  1. tolbutamide
  2. tolazamide
  3. acetohyxamide
  4. chlorpropramide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 drugs from the 2nd more potent generation of sulfonylureas

A
  1. glipizide

2. glyburide

17
Q

3 effects of sulfonylureas

A
  1. promote insulin release from beta cells
  2. increase insulin release in pancreas in presence of glucose
  3. enhance effect of insulin to stimulate glucose uptake in muscle and fat cells
18
Q

Major drug interaction associated with sulfonylureas

A

Aspirin - may enhance hypoglycemic response

19
Q

2 drugs from the alpha glucosidase inhibitor class

A
  1. acarbose

2. miglitol

20
Q

MOA for alpha glucosidase inhibitors

A

Inhibits enzyme that degrades carbs so no monsaccharides are absorbed

21
Q

2 drugs in the TZD class

A
  1. pioglitazone

2. rosiglitazone

22
Q

TZDs: ____ blood glucose by improving target cell response to insulin _____ increasing pancreatic insulin secretion. “____” insulin receptors = reduces insulin resistance. Activity depends on presence of ____ ____. Decrease ___ glucose output. Increase insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in ___ ____. Decreases _____ in adipocytes.

A
Lower
WITHOUT
Reset
insulin activity
hepatic
skeletal muscle
lipolysis
23
Q

How do incretins work?

A

Mimic hormones produced by the body to stimulate the release of insulin

24
Q

3 types of estrogen replacement drugs (HRT)

A
  1. conjugated equine estrogens (Premarin)
  2. estrified estrogens
  3. Estradiol preps
25
Q

Long term findings of HRT drugs?

A

decrease in cholesterol but increase in blood clots and no reduction of heart disease and may increase risk of stroke.
(Increase risk of breast cancer and women with an intact uterus -> risk for endometrial cancer(

26
Q

Combination HRT drug

A

Prempro (adding progesterone reduces risk for endometrial cancer)

27
Q

2 progesterone replacement drugs

A
  1. norethindrone (OC)

2. Provera

28
Q

What is Provera used for?

A

tx of abnormal uterine bleeding, secondary amenorrhea, endometrial cancer

29
Q

EVISTA: activates ____ receptors in bone FDA approved for prevention of _____ in postmenopausal women. Does not activate estrogen receptors in the ____, thus helps prevent cancer. Only medicine proven to reduce both risk of ___ fractures and risk of ___ ___ in postmenopausal women. _____ action on bone. Absence of ____ bleeding and _____ and ____ stimulation.

A
estrogen
osteoporosis
breast
spinal
breast cancer
anti-resorptive 
vaginal
endometrial
breast
30
Q

2 side effects of Evista

A

hot flashes and leg cramps

31
Q

3 oral bisphosphonates (poor bioavailability)

A
  1. Fosamax
  2. Actonel
  3. Boniva
32
Q

4 IV bisphosphonates

A
  1. Didronel
  2. Aredia
  3. Zometa
  4. Skelid
33
Q

1 IV prevention bisphosphonate

A

Reclast

34
Q

3 side effects of bisphosphonates

A
  1. erosive esophagitis
  2. headache
  3. GI distress
35
Q

Bisphosphonates: approved to treat _____ in postmenopausal women, increase bone ____ density, inhibits ____ activity, and inhibits formation, growth, and dissolution of bone ____ ____/

A

osteoporosis
mineral
osteoclastic
hydroxyapatite crystals

36
Q

_____ increase plasma Ca and maintains levels

A

PTH

37
Q

Hormone form of Vit D

A

calcitriol - produced by kidneys in response to PTH