Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology and Oncology > EXAM #2: REVIEW > Flashcards

EXAM #2: REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the plasmodium lifecycle.

A

1) Sporozites infect the blood and travel to the liver
2) Sporozites transform into Merozites in the liver
3) Merozites can become:
- Trophozites that
- Schiznots that
4) Gametocytes are ingested by subsequent mosquitoes to continue the lifecycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cytokines produced by the immune response to Malaria infection can cause a reduction in erythropoieses?

A

TNF-alpha

IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What species of Babesia are rodents the reservoir for?

A

B. merzoti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What species of Babesia are cattle the reservoir for?

A

B. divergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the Direct Coombs Test.

A
  • Blood sample is taken from patient with hemolytic anemia
  • Autoantibodies are bound to the RBCs
  • RBCs are washed and presented with anti-human antibodies

Positive test results in agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the Indirect Coombs Test.

A
  • Patient serum is obtained with autoantibodies
  • Donor blood is added to serum and autoantibodies bind
  • Anti-human antibodies are added and cause RBC agglutination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the five indications for IVIG.

A

1) Primary humoral immunodeficieicny
2) Immune thrombocytopenia
3) Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
4) Hypogammaglobulinemia
5) Post-exposure prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the indications for FFP?

A

1) Decreased coagulation factors in massive transfusion

2) Hemophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two antigens are primarily responsible for alloimmunization?

A
  • HLA

- HPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three indications for plasma?

A

1) Coagulation factor deficit
2) Massive transfusion
3) ADAMSTS13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the contents of cryoprecipitate.

A
  • Fibrinogen
  • vFW
  • VIII
  • XIII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the indications for cyroprecipitate?

A

Bleeding–>fibrinogen
Von Willebrand’s Disease–> vFW
Factor VIII–> Hemophilia A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for TRALI?

A

1) No pre-exisiting lung injury or disease
2) Onset within 6 hours of infusion
3) Hypoxemia with SaO2 less than 90% on room air
4) Bilateral infiltrates on CXR
5) No circulatory overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What four transfusion reactions initially present with fever?

A
  • TRALI
  • TABI
  • TA-GHD
  • Acute hemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What antigen is primarily responsible for delayed hemolysis?

A

Kidd (anti-kidd antibody)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the normal lymphocyte percentage in a neonate?

A

30%

17
Q

What are the signs/ symptoms of polycythemia?

A
  • Poor feeding
  • Ruddy complexion
  • Irritability
  • Tremors
  • Lethargy
  • Respiratory depression
18
Q

List the causes of polycythemia.

A
  • INcreased EPO ?
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Maternal DM
  • Trisomy
  • Erythrocyte transfusion
19
Q

What is the basis for the WHO categorization of AML?

A
  • Pathology
  • Cytogenetics
  • Molecular characteristics
20
Q

What are the markers for Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

CD15

CD30

21
Q

What lab features are characteristics of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Increased IgG or IgA in serum or urine

22
Q

What is the general unifying feature of all AMLs?

A

Undifferentiated myeloblast accumulation in the bone marrow

23
Q

List the three major myeloproliferative neoplasms.

A

1) Polycythemia vera
2) Essential Thrombocythemia
3) Primary Myelofibrosis

24
Q

What lab value is associated with Solitary Plasmacytoma?

A

No or low immunoglobulin

25
Q

Generally, what is myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Stem cell disorder that results in ineffective hematopoiesis

26
Q

Generally, what is Multiple Myeloma?

A

Mature B-cell cancer

27
Q

What are the PBS hallmarks of CLL?

A

1) Increased small round lymphocytes

2) Smudge cells

28
Q

List the major plasma cell disorders.

A

1) Multiple myeloma
2) Plasmacytoma
3) Primary Amyloidosis
4) MGUS
5) POEMS Syndrome
6) Waldenstrom Macrolobinemia

29
Q

What are the three major causes of microcytic/ hypochromic anemia in children?

A

1) Iron deficiency
2) Pb toxicity
3) Thalassemia

30
Q

If you see a normocytic anemia and decreased RC count, what three things should your differential include?

A

1) DBA
2) TEC
3) Parvovirus B19

31
Q

List the three encapsulated bacteria that children with Sickle Cell Disease (that are functionally asplenic) are at risk of.

A

S. pneumonia
H. influenza
N. meningitidis

32
Q

When in surgical oncology is surgery used as a secondary treatment?

A

Advanced stage of the following:

  • Esophageal
  • Rectal
  • Lung
  • Breast

BUT not stage 4 cancer.

33
Q

List the indications for radioembolization or Y90 therapy.

A

1) Unresectable liver tumors
2) Metastatic colon cancer
3) Neuroendocrine tumors

34
Q

List the five advantages of cryoablation.

A

1) Outpatient
2) No general anesthesia
3) Nephron sparing
4) Few complications
5) Can be repeated for residual tumor

35
Q

What are the risk factors for HCC?

A

1) Hepatitis B or C
2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
3) Metabolic Syndrome
4) Aflatoxin Exposure

Hematology and Oncology (38 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions