Chapter 1, 2, 3, and 9 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

“white paper”

A

“Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society”

  • detailed # deaths/injuries
  • identified issues with prehospital care
  • made recommendations for improvements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

EMS system

A

the continuum of patient care that extends from the time of injury or illness until rehabilitation or discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

A
  • part of the Department of Transportation
  • leader in developing emergency services
  • 2005 National EMS Core Content
  • 2006 The National EMS Scope of Practice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards (10)

A
  1. Regulation and Policy
  2. Resource management
  3. Human resources and training
  4. Transportation
  5. Facilities
  6. Communications
  7. Public information and education
  8. Medical direction
  9. Trauma systems
  10. Evaluation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enhanced 911 System (E-911)

A

provides automatic number ID (ANI) and automatic location ID (ALI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PSAP (public service answering point)

A

public service answering point:

  • receive all 911 calls
  • records call info
  • alerts responding service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EMD

A

emergency medical dispatcher

  • staff PSAP
  • provide instructions for emergency care over the phone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Basic 911

A

wireless service providers must transmit cals to a PSAP regardless of subscription status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Phase I Enhanced 911

A

wireless service provider must provide PSAP with phone number and transmitting tower of caller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Phase II Enhanced 911

A

wireless service provider must provide latitude and longitude of caller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

National EMS Scope of Practice Model

A
  • released by NHTSA in 2005
  • national standards
    Identifies 4 levels of EMS practitioners:
    1. Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)
    2. Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)
    3. Advanced EMT (AEMT)
    4. Paramedic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

EMR scope of practice

A

x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

EMT Scope of Practice

A

x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AEMT Scope of Practice

A

x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Paramedic Scope of Practice

A

x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hyperbaric Center

A

treatment of certain toxic exposures, diving emergencies, and other conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Obstetrical Center

A

for treatment of high-risk obstetric (birth) patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State EMS Agency Role

A
  1. Overall planning of the statewide EMS system
  2. Coordination of the system
  3. Regulation of the system
  4. Licensing local EMS agencies and personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Medical Director

A

physician who is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of the EMS system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Medical Direction

A

Develop and establish protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Protocols

A

guidelines under which the EMS personnel function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Off-line medical direction

A

set of predetermined, written guidelines that allow EMTs to use their judgement to administer care without having to contact a physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Standing Orders

A

subset of protocols that do not require real-time physician input (type of offline medical direction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Medical Oversight

A

all of clinical and administrative functions and activities performed by the medical director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

A

system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an emergency medical system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Evidence-based Medicine

A

focuses on research to provide clear evidence that certain procedures, medications and equipment improve the patient’s outcome

  1. Formulate a question
  2. Search medical literature
  3. Appraise the evidence
  4. Change protocols and implement the change as needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

5 Emotional Stages (DABDA)

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Acute Stress Reaction

A

results from exposure to a high-stress situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Delayed Stress Reaction (PTSD)

A
  • can occur months or years after incident

- nightmares, irritability, insomnia, inability to think clearly or concentrate…

30
Q

Cumulative Stress Reaction

A
  • result from extended exposure to stress

- Burnout: state of exhaustion and irritability, anxiety

31
Q

Categories of Stress Reaction Symptoms

A
  1. Thinking
  2. Psychological
  3. Physical
  4. Behavioral
  5. Social
32
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)

A

process to deal with stress encountered by EMT
2 forms:
1. Debriefing (CSID)
2. Defusing

33
Q

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD)

A
- held within 24-72 hours of the incident
counselers help:
1. review facts of event
2. identify signs and symptoms
3. plan of action to return to job
etc
34
Q

Defusing

A
  • version of CISD held within 1-4 hours of incident

- less organized, vent emotions, prepare for CISD

35
Q

Bacteria

A

microscopic single-celled organisms that have the capability of reproducing on their own within a host

36
Q

Virus

A

require a host cell to reproduce

37
Q

Pathogens

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
  5. Helminths
38
Q

Helminths

A

parasitic worms

39
Q

Standard Precautions pg. 24

A
  • developed by OSHA
  • aka Body Substance Isolation (BSI)
  • guidelines to protect EMT from infection and disease transmission
40
Q

Standard precautions for TB

A
  1. Gloves
  2. Eyewear
  3. HEPA or N-95 Respirator
  4. hand washing
41
Q

Cleaning

A

washing with soap and water

42
Q

Disinfecting

A

cleaning plus a hospital-grad disinfectant or germicide

43
Q

Sterilization

A

object is subject to a chemical or physical substance that kills all microorganisms on the surface of an object

44
Q

Purified Protein Derivitave (PPD) test for TB

A

test every year

45
Q

Nat. Standard for High-Vis… pg 33

A

developed by ANSI and ISEA

46
Q

Scope of Practice

A

actions and care that EMTs are legally allowed to perform by the state

47
Q

Standard of Care

A

performing the right assessment and care, or what to do and how to do it
“reasonable person standard”

48
Q

Informed Consent

A

patient is informed of care, risks and consequences

49
Q

Implied Consent

A

“emergency doctrine”

patient is unconscious or mentally impaired

50
Q

Expressed Consent

A

patient clearly cooperates and consents with care

51
Q

Minor Consent

A

Consent by parents or guardians to treat a minor

52
Q

Advance Directives

A
  • written in advance

- signed by patient and physician

53
Q

Living Will

A

specific guidelines for care i.e. life support

54
Q

Durable Power of Attorney

A

aka Health Care Proxy

-makes med decisions for patirent sdfa

55
Q

Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST)

A

specifies the level/limits of treatment as desired by the patient (expected to live less than 1 year). w/ dr. contact info and dates

56
Q

Signs of Death

A
  1. Lividity
  2. Rigor Mortis
  3. Decapitation
  4. Incineration
  5. Ivisceration?
57
Q

If patient refuses care:

A
  1. Try to convince patient to go to the hospital
  2. Fully inform patients of rights
  3. Thoroughly document
  4. Patient signs AMA (release of liability), witness forms, etc.
  5. If unsure if patient is mentally sound, contact medical direction
58
Q

EMTALA

A

hospital assumes care until release or transfer of patient

59
Q

COBRA

A

with EMTALA

60
Q

Involuntary Consent

A

mentally incompetent adult or individual in the custody or law enforcement or incarcerated

61
Q

Neonate

A

child from birth to 1 month of age

62
Q

Infant

A

child from 1 month to 1 year of age

63
Q

Passive Immunity

A
  • first 6 months of life

- antibodies from mother

64
Q

Fontanelles

A

indirect estimate of hydration for babies

65
Q

Neonate Vitals

A

30-40 respirations per minute
100-160 beats per min (bpm)
70-90 mmHg systolic blood pressure
98-100 degrees F

66
Q

Toddler Vitals (1-3 years of age)

A

20-30 respirations per minute
80-130 bpm
70-100 systolic blood pressure
98.6 - 99.6 degrees

67
Q

Adolescent Vitals (12-18 years)

A

12-20 respirations per minute
55-105 bpm
100-120 systolic bp
98.6 degrees

68
Q

Adult Vitals

A

16-20 respirations per minute
70 bpm
120/80 bp
98.6 degrees

69
Q

Vitals in Children

A

heart and respiratory rates decrease while systolic blood pressure increases

70
Q

Kids Vitals (School Age)

A

20-30 respirations
70-110 bpm
80-120 systolic
98.6 degrees