review deck Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of fibrocystic changes

A

duct proliferation
duct dilation
apocrine metaplasia
fibrosis

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2
Q

3 fibrocystic changes associated with increased risk of breast CA

A

ductal hyperplasia- 2x
sclerosing adenosis- 2x
atypical hyperplasia- 5x

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3
Q

cell type and staining in rhabdomyosarcoma

A

cell type- rhabdomyoblast

staining + myogenic and desmin

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4
Q

3 risk factors for cervical cancer

A

HPV infection
smoking
immune deficiency

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5
Q

somatic mutation associated with development of cervical cancer

A

LKB1 (Peutz-Jeghers)

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6
Q

most important risk factor for the progression of endometrial hyperplasia to carcinoma

A

atypia

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7
Q

hyperplasia pathway endometrial CA (arises from, influenced by, assoc mutation, spread)

A

arises from hyper plastic endometrium
influenced by unopposed estrogen
assoc with PTEN mutation
spreads locally

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8
Q

sporadic pathway endometrial CA (arises from, histologic finding, assoc mutation, spread)

A

arises from atrophic endometrium
histologic- psammoma bodies
p53 mutation
aggressive spread

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9
Q

3 histologic classifications of endometrial hyperplasia

A

simple- cystic
complex- crowded
atypical- crowded and atypical

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10
Q

unique mets for ovarian cystadenocarcinoma

A

to omentum (omental caking)

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11
Q

2 types of GYN tumors with psammoma bodies

A

ovarian cystadeno/carcinoma

sporadic endometrial ca

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12
Q

most common cause of pregnancy loss (0-12 weeks, 13-19 weeks, 20-24 weeks, over 25 weeks)

A

0-12 weeks- chromosomal
13-19 weeks- organ specific
20-24 weeks- inflammatory
over 25 weeks- vascular/placental

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13
Q

teratogenic effects of isotretinoin, phenytoin and cyclopamide

A

isotretinoin- hearing/visual, cleft lip/palate
phenytoin- digit hypoplasia, cleft lip/palate
cyclopamide- cycloplegia

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14
Q

epithelium of ovary

A

simple cuboidal

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15
Q

epithelium of fallopian tubes

A

simple columnar

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16
Q

epithelium of uterus

A

simple columnar

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17
Q

call-exner bodies

A

in granolas cell tumors of the ovary, rosette pattern with pink (eosinophilic) center

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18
Q

uterine changes from adenomyosis

A

diffuse enlargement

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19
Q

biggest risk factor for penile CA

A

being uncircumcised

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20
Q

epispadias is related to ___ which has an increased risk for ____

A

bladder exostrophy

adenocarcinoma of the bladder

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21
Q

appearance of the testes after mumps orchitis

A

patchy atrophy, may lead to infertility

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22
Q

elevated B-HCG in men can cause (2)

A

gynecomastia, hyperthryoidism

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23
Q

why does bHCG cause hyperthyroidism?

A

very similar in structure to TSH, can bind receptor

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24
Q

where is inhibin made? function?

A

made in seminiferous tubules

functions to exert - feedback on FSH

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25
Q

patent processus vaginalis increases risk for (2)

A

indirect inguinal hernia

hydrocele

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26
Q

klinefleters- chromosomes, hormones

A

47 XXY
low testosterone, increased FSH and LH,
increased estrogen

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27
Q

3 changes in kidney secondary to malignant nephrosclerosis

A

flea bitten appearacne
fibrinoid necrosis
onion skinning

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28
Q

4 predisposing factors to renal papillary necrosis

A

DM
analgesic abuse
sickle cell
chronic pyelonephritis

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29
Q

in membranous GN, autoantibodies are directed against-

A

podocytes

30
Q

why does diabetic nephropathy initially cause hyper filtration?

A

affects efferent arteriole first

31
Q

what is the appearance of the glomerulus in diffuse proliferative GN?

A

wire loop

32
Q

2 m/c causes of asymptomatic hematuria

A

IgA nephropathy

benign familial hematuria (thin BM)

33
Q

histologic finding in chronic pyelonephritis

A

thyroidization

34
Q

2 findings in malakoplakia

A

raised mucosal lesions in bladder, PAS+ macrophages in kidney

35
Q

condition associated with angiomyolipoma of the kidney

A

tuberous sclerosis

36
Q

gene loss in sporadic RCC

A

VHL (3p)

37
Q

pathogenesis of RCC

A

loss of VHL - increased IGF1 - increased HIF - increased VEGF

38
Q

WAGR syndrome

A

Wilms, aniridia, genital, retardation (WT1)

39
Q

Denys-Drash

A

Wilms, male pseudohermaphrodite (WT1)

40
Q

Beckwith-Wiedeman

A

Wilms, organomegaly, hemihypertrophy (WT2)

41
Q

3 causes of SCC of bladder

A

chronic cystitis, schistosoma hematobium, chronic renal stones

42
Q

3 causes of adenocarcinoma of bladder

A

bladder exostrophy
urachal remnant
cystitis glandularis

43
Q

most RCC originate from what part of the nephron

A

proximal tubules

44
Q

antibodies associated with idiopathic membranous nephropathy

A

IgG4 antibodies against PLA2R

45
Q

what does ANCA stand for?

A

anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody

46
Q

what is the MOST specific urine finding for acute pyelonephritis?

A

WBC casts

47
Q

appearance of GBM in Alport disease

A

lamellated

48
Q

shape of cysteine stones

A

hexagonal

49
Q

effect of prolonged obstructive uropathy on kidneys

A

parenchymal pressure atrophy

50
Q

describe recovery phase of ATN, complications (2)

A

recovery = polyuric phase

complications are dehydration, hypokalemia

51
Q

why do RCC cells appear clear?

A

full of lipid and glycogen

52
Q

labs in post-strep GN (5)

A

elevated ASO titer, elevated anti-DNase B, decreased C3, decreased total complement, present cryoglobulins

53
Q

precursor to wilm’s tumor

A

nephrogenic “rests”

54
Q

HSP characteristic kidney/skin/GI/joint findings

A

kidney- IgA immune complexes
Skin- palpable purpura
GI- pain, bleeding
Joints- pain

55
Q

TTP-HUS pentad

A

fever, neurologic symptoms, renal failure, anemia, low platelets

56
Q

why does TTP-HUS cause renal symptoms? blood smear?

A

microvascular thrombosis of renal vessels, blood smear has schistocytes

57
Q

BRCA1

A

medullary breast cancer
cystdenocarcinoma of the ovary/tubes
17q21

58
Q

BRCA2

A
breast cancer (males, females)
13q12.3
59
Q

CDH

A

gene for E-cadherin (lost in LCIS and invasive lobular carcinoma)

60
Q

p53 mutations present in (3)

A

sporadic pathway of endometrial ca
flat transitional cell cancer
non-HPV vulvar cancer

61
Q

LKB1

A

peutz-jeghers

associated with cervical cancer

62
Q

PTEN mutations present in (2)

A

hyperplasia pathway of endometrial cancer

prostate cancer

63
Q

NR51A and ESR2

A

endometriosis

64
Q

GSTP1 and TMPRSS2-ETS

A

prostate cancer

65
Q

PKDH1

A

fibrocystin

AR PKD

66
Q

APKD 1/2

A

polycystin

AD PKD

67
Q

NPHS2

A

podocin

MCD and FSGS

68
Q

VHL

A

3p

renal cell carcinoma (clear cell)

69
Q

MET

A

papillary RCC

70
Q

WT1

A

11p13- WAGR, DD

71
Q

WT2

A

11p15.5- BW