4A171 CDC Volume 2 UREs

Question 1

Who may grant final approval for medical expense equipment requests from non-medical units?

Answer 1

Medical treatment facility commander.

Question 2

Which is a primary responsibility when working in a medical equipment management office (MEMO)?

Answer 2

Maintain equipment authorization and in-use asset records.

Question 3

Who must review all equipment requests to determine if structural changes are required?

Answer 3

Facility manager.

Question 4

What is the main difference between Equipment Management (EM) standard reports and inquiries?

Answer 4

Inquiries are not produced automatically on a periodic schedule.

Question 5

Which Equipment Management (EM) inquiry provides a list of accountable equipment records for a customer account and includes a signature block for the custodian?

Answer 5

Custodian Receipt/Location List.

Question 6

Which Equipment Management (EM) inquiry provides a means to verify the type and accuracy of transactions processed in the system for a specified date-range?

Answer 6

Document Register Report.

Question 7

Which Equipment Management (EM) inquiry identifies discrepancies between equipment authorizations and in-use records?

Answer 7

Equipment Out of Balance Report.

Question 8

The custodian receipt/location list (CR/LL) is considered to be one of the most important equipment documents because it is ?

Answer 8

An accountability document.

Question 9

What is the maximum dollar threshold for an item to be considered high cost expense equipment?

Answer 9

$249,999

Question 10

What is the minimum dollar threshold for an item to be considered medical investment equipment?

Answer 10

$250,000

Question 11

What must the BMET examiner determine during the initial inspection of an equipment item?

Answer 11

Determine if all accessories were received as ordered.

Question 12

Who is normally responsible for managing equipment warranties?

Answer 12

BMET.

Question 13

Who is responsible for ensuring that each in-use item is accounted for?

Answer 13

Medical equipment management office (MEMO).

Question 14

During an equipment inventory, which DMLSS report allows the filtering-out of items that have a current completed work order on file?

Answer 14

In-use Equipment Inventory.

Question 15

In the Equipment Shortage/Overage window, which option most accurately reflects how an item is listed if it belongs to a customer but was counted on another customer’s inventory?

Answer 15

On both sides.

Question 16

Which action can you perform from the EQUIPMENT SHORTAGE/OVERAGE window?

Answer 16

Transfer items.

Question 17

Within how many duty days after validating an equipment loss must MEMO forward all required information to the Report of Survey monitor?

Answer 17

10 days.

Question 18

Who is the certifying authority for in-use equipment Inventory Adjustment Documents?

Answer 18

Medical logistics flight commander.

Question 19

What individuals must be the same, between two organizations, before you can transfer equipment between them in DMLSS?

Answer 19

Equipment manager.

Question 20

When transferring equipment to another MTF, what must the losing MEMO send with the equipment?

Answer 20

Equipment detail report.

Question 21

What equipment action is a common reason for MEMO to process an equipment loss?

Answer 21

Transfer to another MTF.

Question 22

How frequently should you review the MEMO holding account to ensure efficient asset management?

Answer 22

Monthly.

Question 23

When an equipment item does not meet excess criteria and is condemned, what should you do with it first?

Answer 23

Have BMETs remove useable parts.

Question 24

Which of the following sections may be viewed from the EM excess window?

Answer 24

Item detail.

Question 25

If your MTF can use an item currently listed in your EM EXCESS window, you may reallocate the item to the gaining custodian from which on-screen section only?

Answer 25

Potential Excess.

Question 26

An Inventory Due pending action will appear when the next inventory date in the custodian record is within how many days?

Answer 26

30 days.

Question 27

In a personal service contract (PSC), who do the hired individuals work for?

Answer 27

Medical treatment facility.

Question 28

Non-personal service contracts (NPSC) require personnel performing under the contract to be ?

Answer 28

Surveyed and not supervised.

Question 29

What contract document is a performance-based description of the services required by an activity?

Answer 29

Statement of work (SOW).

Question 30

Which contracting document provides a systematic method to evaluate the services the contractor is required to perform?

Answer 30

Quality assurance surveillance plan.

Question 31

Which contracting method of surveillance is most appropriate for frequently recurring tasks?

Answer 31

Random sampling.

Question 32

Which contracting document is used by the contractor to ensure services conform to contract requirements?

Answer 32

Quality control plan.

Question 33

Which entity is considered to be a customer focused multifunctional team that plans and manages service contracts throughout the life of the requirement?

Answer 33

Business Requirements and Advisory Group (BRAG).

Question 34

Who serves as the installation business advisor and is responsible for forming the business requirements and advisory group?

Answer 34

Chief of Air Force contracting office.

Question 35

Who is primarily responsible for the actual performance of a given service?

Answer 35

Functional director.

Question 36

Which system is used by many bases to submit their purchase requests to contracting?

Answer 36

Automated Business Service System (ABSS).

Question 37

The Automated Business Service System (ABSS) interfaces with which other system?

Answer 37

Integrated Accounts Payable System.

Question 38

When coordinating service requests, who certifies availability of operations and maintenance (O&M) funding?

Answer 38

Resource Advisor.

Question 39

Which contracting system provides a method for transferring funds from one government branch to another?

Answer 39

Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR).

Question 40

Which term defines the administrative reservation of funds in anticipation of a future debt?

Answer 40

Commitment.

Question 41

Which term defines the legal reservation of funds to make a future payment?

Answer 41

Obligation.

Question 42

The adequacy of the warehouse’s controlled items vault or caged area is evaluated by whom?

Answer 42

Medical Logistics Flight Commander.

Question 43

How frequently must the controlled medical items custodian test the vaults alarm system?

Answer 43

Every three months.

Question 44

A copy of the vault combination should be stored in an envelope displaying which marking?

Answer 44

For use in emergency only.

Question 45

Who should be granted power of attorney to be the primary approving official for C-II controlled items?

Answer 45

Accountable base medical supply officer.

Question 46

What must vendors receive from the ordering activity before they will process a C-II order?

Answer 46

DEA Form 222.

Question 47

When receiving “R” coded items, what additional step should you take during the in-checking process?

Answer 47

Ensure manufacturer seal is not broken.

Question 48

What concept describes the procedure whereby a different person handles or accepts controlled items they must inventory and sign for?

Answer 48

Chain of custody.

Question 49

By what calendar day of each month should the inventory officer complete controlled item inventories?

Answer 49

Tenth.

Question 50

What information or statement must be added to the biennial controlled substance inventory certificate?

Answer 50

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) registration number.

Question 51

Conducting a controlled items pre-inventory before the formal monthly inventory gives you more time to do what?

Answer 51

Locate proper documentation.

Question 52

Who should prepare and submit the DEA Form 106, Report of Theft or Loss of Controlled Substances, to the nearest DEA office after a loss or theft has been determined?

Answer 52

Medical Logistics Flight Commander.

Question 53

What action should you take after identifying a controlled items shortage received from your prime vendor?

Answer 53

Process receipt as partial.

Question 54

Which Command Surgeon General is designated as the Air Force lead for patient movement items (PMI)?

Answer 54

Air Mobility (AMC)

Question 55

Who acts as the primary POC for deployed units on medical materiel and supply chain issues?

Answer 55

Air Force Medical Logistics Operations Center.

Question 56

Who must approve the loan of WRM materiel?

Answer 56

Medical treatment facility commander.

Question 57

Which Medical Contingency Response Plan (MCRP) annex should Medical Materiel be most concerned with?

Answer 57

Transportation.

Question 58

What are pilot units selected to develop and maintain?

Answer 58

Allowance Standards.

Question 59

Which Assemblage Management (AM) module function is used to identify your war reserve material (WRM) requirements?

Answer 59

LOG-owned assemblage shortages.

Question 60

Which program’s goal is to minimize investment in on-hand contingency inventories?

Answer 60

Deferred procurement.

Question 61

Which AM FUNDING window is used to revise, associate, and disassociate fund targets?

Answer 61

REVISED.

Question 62

DMLSS will calculate replenishment quantities to meet a project’s target dollar amount by sorting all critical item shortages and listing them in what order first?

Answer 62

Cheapest cost.

Question 63

When a medical war reserve materiel allowance standard indicates an on-hand item had been replaced by a new item, what should you do with the old item when it is serviceable and supports the requirement?

Answer 63

Retain as a substitute.

Question 64

(BW/CW) projects should be updated within how many days after notification of level adjustment?

Answer 64

30.

Question 65

Which (BW/CW) assemblage item requires additional safeguarding when issuing to a deployed unit?

Answer 65

Convulsion Antidote for Nerve Agent.

Question 66

How many Pyridostigmine tablets (P-tabs) are issued to each individual when authorized?

Answer 66

42.

Question 67

What does the first alpha-character represent when viewing an allowance standard code?

Answer 67

Increment.

Question 68

From where can you obtain the most recently published allowance standard levels for a specific project?

Answer 68

ASMS.

Question 69

The ASSEMBLAGE RECORD DATA CRITERIA window contains a field that allows you to automatically delete location codes when the assemblage data record for a line item is?

Answer 69

Zero.

Question 70

Which ASSEMBLAGE RECORD DATA CRITERIA window location-button should be used when a location exceeds its shortage capacity and you need to move stock to another location?

Answer 70

SPLIT.

Question 71

Which war reserve material (WRM) assemblage report identifies the total cost required to bring materiel availability percentages (MAP) up to the selected critical and non critical percentages?

Answer 71

Funds Requirements Estimate.

Question 72

Who codes all standardized medical items with a predetermined shelf life?

Answer 72

Defense Health Agency Medical Logistics Division.

Question 73

Who identifies which items are to be tested under the shelf life extension program (SLEP)?

Answer 73

USAMMA.

Question 74

What is the service-wide stock value required for a dated item to be economically tested for an extension?

Answer 74

$10,000

Question 75

Within how many days after receiving notification of an extension must shelf life extension program (SLEP) items be relabeled?

Answer 75

90.

Question 76

If used during an exercise, within how many days after the exercise must assemblages be inventoried?

Answer 76

60.

Question 77

What is the first step for initiating a WRM inventory in DMLSS?

Answer 77

Select the assemblage.

Question 78

Which criteria must be met prior to processing an assemblage outshipment loss?

Answer 78

There cannot be any commingled items.

Question 79

What funding source is used to purchase assets for a customer-owned assemblages?

Answer 79

O&M.

Question 80

What can you do in the Customer Owned Replenishment function that you cannot do in Assemblage Management (AM) Replenishments?

Answer 80

Bypass acquisitions.

Question 81

Expeditionary Medical Logistics should begin within how many hours after deployment?

Answer 81

24-48.

Question 82

Under the Expeditionary Medical Logistics concept, when established, who will be the primary point of contact for in-theater deployed materiel and equipment support?

Answer 82

TLAMM.

Question 83

During contingency operations, which cell under the theater combatant commander, directs the Patient Movement Item (PMI) activities for that theater?

Answer 83

Aeromedical Evacuation.

Question 84

Who identifies the core Patient Movement Items (PMI) that are certified for aeromedical evacuation (AE) operations and will be managed under the PMI program?

Answer 84

Joint Readiness Clinical Advisory Board.

Question 85

Which system allows you to organize your assemblages by specifying your materiel requirements, including the number 463L pallets, hazardous items, weights, dimensions, and cubes?

Answer 85

Logistics Module (LOGMOD).