#5 C2 Flashcards

(128 cards)

1
Q

Officially sanctioned beliefs, war fighting principles, and terminology that describes and guides the proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military operations

A

Doctrine

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2
Q

A common frame of reference on the best way to prepare and employee Air Force forces

A

Doctrine

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3
Q

As doctrine is the commanders intent but should not be blindly followed we must strive above all else to be doctrinally sound, not doctrinally

A

Bound

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4
Q

What are the different levels and depth of detail in Air Force AirPower doctrine

A

Basic, operational, and tactical

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5
Q

This doctrine describes the elemental properties of air power and provides the Airmans perspective

A

Basic doctrine

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6
Q

Applies the principles of basic doctrine to military actions. Provides the focus for developing the missions and tasks that must be executed through tactical doctrine

A

Operational doctrine

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7
Q

Air Force doctrine that is codified as tactics, techniques, and procedures in 3-series manuals

A

Tactical doctrine

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8
Q

Unity of command, objective, mass, maneuver, economy of force, Security, surprise, simplicity are all

A

Principles of war

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9
Q

Ensures concentration of effort for every objective under one responsible commander

A

Unity of command

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10
Q

Principal to direct military operations toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to strategic, operational, and tactical aims

A

Objective

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11
Q

Concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results

A

Mass

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12
Q

Places the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multidimensional combat space

A

Maneuver

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13
Q

The judicious employment and distribution of forces

A

Economy of force

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14
Q

Purpose is never to permit the enemy to acquire unexpected advantage

A

Security

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15
Q

Leverages the Security principal by attacking the enemy at a time, place, or in a manner for which they are not prepared

A

Surprise

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16
Q

Calls for avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations

A

Simplicity

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17
Q

Centralized control and decentralized execution, flexibility and versatility, synergistic affects, persistence, concentration, priority, and balance are all

A

Tenets of AirPower

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18
Q

Fundamental guiding truths that refine the application of AirPower

A

Tenets of AirPower

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19
Q

Strategic attack, counter air, land, and sea, air space control, space operations, air mobility, special operations, homeland operations, nuclear operations, irregular warfare, foreign internal defense, targeting, information operations, electronic warfare, and personnel recovery are all

A

Air Force operations

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20
Q

Air parity, air superiority, and air supremacy are all components of which Air Force operation

A

Counter air

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21
Q

Airlift, Air Refueling, air mobility support, and aeromedical evacuation are all components of which Air Force operation

A

Air mobility

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22
Q

A collection of beliefs, distilled through experience and passed on from one generation of Airmen to the next that guide how we operate

A

AEF doctrine

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23
Q

Readily available force, in place support, enabler force, institutional force, and AEF battle rhythm are all

A

Expeditionary Capabilities

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24
Q

Although these organizations do not represent a war fighting capability, the individuals assigned to these organizations are deployable

A

Institutional force

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25
The AEF operates on a ___ month lifecycle
24 month
26
The process the secretary defense and the chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff use to assign forces to combatant commanders for mission accomplishment and allocate additional forces in the event of contingency operations
Global force management
27
How frequently is a new 24 month AEF schedule established
Every 12 months
28
The posturing code that indicates the minimum number of unit type codes required to accomplish the units assigned missions deployable or in place
DP
29
The posturing code which represents the minimum number of unit type codes required to support critical home station operations
DX
30
The posturing code which indicates the maximum number of unit type code requirements available to support combatant commanders rotational mission
DW
31
Within how many days of arriving on station will and airman receive their AEF indicator
15 days
32
System of joint policies, procedures, and reporting structure supported by communications and computer systems
JOPES
33
System which consists of five volumes and associated databases and is the air forces supporting document to the joint strategic capabilities plan
War and mobilization plan
34
The air forces war planning system that provides an Air Force feed to joint operations planning and execution systems
Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segment
35
Document prepared by parent Major command that outlines each measured units capabilities and contains the units identification, mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and measurable resources
Designed operational capabilities statement
36
A short paragraph describing the mission capabilities that higher headquarters planners expect of a specific unit type code
Mission capability statement
37
Time phased force and deployment data is used when developing or executing plans to
coordinate the movement of forces into their operational locations
38
Centralized function aligned under the LRS commander responsible for identifying, validating, and distributing deployment tasking‘s and information.
Installation deployment readiness cell
39
The chain of command from the president to the secretary of defense to the secretaries of the military departments to the service Chiefs, exercises what
Administrative control Authority
40
The chain of command from the president through the secretary of defense to the combatant commander exercises what 3 types of command authorities
Operational control Tactical control Support relationship
41
Includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command
Operational control
42
This is inherent in operational control and may be delegated to and exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command
Tactical control
43
These are established at three levels: unified command, subordinate unified command, and joint task forces
Joint forces
44
This transformers national strategic objectives into activities by development of operational products that include mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization of joint forces
Joint operation planning
45
This is normally published by the chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff during planning which establishes command relationships and provides the mission, objectives, and known constraints
The warning order
46
What can the chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff send to supported commanders to direct execution planning before a course of action is formally approved by the secretary of defense and the President
The planning order
47
When does the headquarters commander prepare a time phased force deployment plan in deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segment for the Air Force portion of the supported commanders joint operations planning and execution system
When a planning order is issued
48
What is approved and transmitted by the secretary of defense to the supporting commander and joint planning and execution community announcing the selected course of action
The alert order
49
This is issued by the authority and direction of the secretary of defense and directs the deployment and or employment of forces
Execute order
50
This was a good example of joint and combined operations providing one of the greatest uses of joint and Coalition capabilities in recent history
Operation odyssey dawn over Libya in 2011
51
Represents The minimum level of code of conduct understanding needed for all members of the Armed Forces
Level A- entry level training
52
The minimum level of code of conduct understanding needed for service members who’s military jobs, specialties, or assignments entail moderate risk of capture, such as members of ground combat units
Level B - training after assumption of duty eligibility
53
Code of conduct level of training for high risk or higher rank members such as aircrew, special mission forces, para rescue teams
Level C – training upon assumption of duties or responsibilities
54
I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense
Article I of the Code Of Conduct
55
I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means resist.
Article II
56
If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will except neither parole nor special favors from the enemy
Article III
57
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way
Article IV
58
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I’m required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause
Article V
59
I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America
Article VI
60
Respect for Amn, self-awareness, cultural awareness, empathy, and credibility are all qualities demonstrated by effective ___
Counselors
61
Nondirective, directive, combined are approaches to what
Counseling
62
The four stages of the counseling process are
Identify the need prepare conduct the session follow up
63
To Model, Empathize, Nurture, Teach, Organize, Respond, Inspire, Network, Goal-Set is...
MENTORING
64
Core values, competencies, and actions at the tactical, operational, and strategic level are everyday components of
Strategic leadership
65
This program applies CCAF credits toward BA degrees requiring no more than 60 additional semester hours for completion.
AU-ABC program
66
Trust, ethical behavior, sharing of information, critical judgment, and cooperation are all traits of what
A Healthy team
67
Within the resource management system these individuals analyze subordinate organizational plans, identify imbalances in resource distribution, analyze alternative actions, and balance programs
Responsibility center managers
68
In the resource management system this is the basic production flight for work center
Cost center
69
This board reviews and approves or disapproves recommendations made by the financial working group to ensure balanced, valid financial programs and to consider all known or anticipated requirements
Financial management board
70
This group provides technical guidance to base activities on using their primary responsibility resources
The financial working group
71
covers costs associated with the operation of all Air Force organizations
Operating Budget
72
a unique process for implementing the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution
Air Force corporate structure
73
The planning, programming, budgeting, and execution process
The DoD resource allocation system
74
A key part of budget execution is the major command's
Operations and Maintenance Operation Plan
75
AF program execution reviews are in which three months?
February, April, and July
76
What is the minimum rank for the commander assigned facility manager for each of their facilities?
E-5
77
When programming facility requirements CE customer service must consider O&M thresholds which are?
$1M for minor military construction | $4M for laboratory revitalization
78
Compliance with energy management policy is assessed by taking measurements in two areas:
mobility energy and facility (utility) energy
79
The authorized daily average of enlisted members on active duty (other than for training) in pay grades E-8 and E-9 in a fiscal year may not be more than
2.5 percent and 1.25, respectively.
80
TIG/TIS for promotion to SrA
N/A & 1 year
81
TIG/TIS for promotion to SSgt
6 mo & 3 years
82
TIG/TIS for promotion to TSgt
23 mo & 5 years
83
TIG/TIS for promotion to MSgt
24 mos & 8 years
84
TIG/TIS for promotion to SMSgt
20 mos & 11 years
85
TIG/TIS for promotion to CMSgt
21 mos & 14 years
86
What % of TSgt's will move forward from Phase I promotion selection to Phase II (Board)?
60%
87
The purpose of this program is to equip senior leaders with objective, fact-based information about AF occupations and civilian occupational series
Occupational Analysis Program
88
This document displays current and projected requirements and can be configured to display desired fields in various formats
UMD
89
A statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program
Manpower requirement
90
What are the two types of manpower requirements?
Funded and Unfunded
91
Funded manpower requirements are ___
Manpower Authorizations
92
This can be used to request a change to the UMD for AFSC, position realignment, redistribution of funding, grade conversions
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
93
What are the 3 primary sources of civilian training?
Agency (Air Force), Inter-agency, and non-government
94
Where can you find a civilian employee's description of duties and responsibilities, and the supervisor's performance expectations?
Their Core Personnel Document
95
What is the basis for civilian personnel actions to ID and correct work performance problems, reward quality performance, improve productivity, and grant periodic pay increases?
Performance Appraisal
96
Approximately what percent of civilian employees are covered by labor agreements between unions and installations?
70%
97
Class mishap totaling $2M +, destruction of Acft, Fatality or total disability
Class A
98
Class mishap totaling $50K, Non-fatal injury or illness resulting in one or more days away from work
Class C
99
Class mishap totaling $500K, Permanent or Partial disability of 3 or more personnel
Class B
100
Class mishap totaling $20K, or record-able injury or illness not otherwise classified
Class D
101
4 levels to determine root cause of mishap dealing with Human Factors Analysis and Classification System
Organizational Influences Supervision Preconditions Acts
102
What are the two categories of "Acts" that are active failures or actions committed by the operator which complete the mishap event sequence?
Violations and Errors
103
Errors are commonly understood human factors and fall into what three areas?
Skill Based Judgement and Decision making Perception (visual illusion)
104
Air Force Form used to report a safety hazard
457
105
a decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation.
Risk Management
106
Which 5 step process includes ID Hazards, Assess Hazards, Develop Controls/Make Decisions, Implement Controls, Supervise & Evaluate
Risk Management Process
107
What are the four components of the Real-Time Risk Management or ABCD Model?
Assess the situation Balance controls Communicate Decide and Debrief the decision
108
Only SARC, Victim Advocates, Volunteer Victim Adviocates, and Healthcare Personnel can receive this type of report
Restricted Report
109
Within how many hours must the installation or host wing CC be notified of a restricted report?
24 Hrs
110
Planning, Time Management, Overload Avoidance, Relaxation, Exercise and good nutrition are all
Individual Stress Management Methods
111
Job design, improving the work environment, improving organizational communication, and personnel selection and job placement are all examples of
organizational stress management methods
112
If the task is not needed, work to eliminate it from the task load. Is one way to manage organizational stress using ___
Job Design
113
Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, Exposure are sources of what?
Operations Security Indicators
114
The characteristics of an indicator that make it identifiable or cases it to stand out
Signature
115
the relationship of an indicator to other information or activities.
Associations
116
each functional activity generates its own set of more-or-less unique signatures and associations. The sum of these signatures and associations is the activity’s?
Profile
117
any differences observed between an activity’s standard profile and most recent or current actions.
Contrasts
118
Refers to when and for how long an indicator is observed
Exposure
119
(TS) for Top Secret, (S) for Secret, and (C) for Confidential are symbols used to indicate the highest classification level in the portion are
Portion Marks
120
The goal of this program is to neutralize security threats throughout the base boundary in order to ensure unhindered Air Force operations.
Integrated Defense
121
Anticipate, Deter, Detect, Assess, Warn, Defeat, Delay, Defend, Recover are what?
Integrated Defense Effects
122
Protection Level Assigned to resources that would result in great harm to strategic capabilities. Nuclear Weapons, C2 facilities, Presidential Acft
PL1
123
Protection Level Assigned to resources that would result in harm to war-fighting capability. Nonnuclear alert forces, space launch systems, one of a kind assets, and intel gathering systems
PL2
124
Protection Level Assigned to resources that would damage war-fighting capability. Non-alert ready to gen, F-16's, comm facilities, non-unique space launch facilities.
PL3
125
Protection Level Assigned to resources that would adversely affect operational capability. arms, munitions, explosives, fuels, lox, vaults
PL4
126
Position, Task, Personal, Relationship, Knowledge are all ___ of ____
Types of Power
127
Stems from being good at a particular task
Task Power
128
Having expertise in an area
Knowledge Power