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Lukas > Bio Comp > Flashcards

Bio Comp Flashcards

1
Q

What is an independent variable, dependent variable, control variable?

A

In an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that is varied or manipulated by the researcher, and the dependent variable is the response that is measured. An independent variable is the presumed cause, whereas the dependent variable is the presumed effect. The control variable is a variable that remains unchanged or held constant to prevent its effects on the outcome.

If you are trying to determine whether heating water allows you to dissolve more sugar in the water then your independent variable is the temperature of the water. If heating water affects the amount of sugar you can dissolve, the mass or volume of sugar (whichever you choose to measure) would be your dependent variable.

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2
Q

How do you formulate a hypothesis? What is the purpose of the hypothesis?

A

Ask a question. A possible answer to the question.

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3
Q

What are the 7 characteristics of life?

A

(GRADERM)

1) grow and develop
2) reproduce
3) adapt/evolve
4) diverse
5) exchange matter
6) respond to stimuli
7) made of cells

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4
Q

What makes a molecule a macromolecule?

A

They are big

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5
Q

What is the relationship between polymers and monomers?

A

Polymer means many monomers. Sometimes polymers are also known as macromolecules or large-sized molecules. Usually, polymers are organic (but not necessarily).

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6
Q

Why are carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and proteins considered macromolecules?

A

They are polymers

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7
Q

Why are lipids not technically considered macromolecules?

A

Lipids are not technically macromolecules, because they’re not built in the same way—they’re not polymers made up of individual subunits called monomers. But they are sometimes considered as part of that family, and they are pretty important molecules in the cell.

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8
Q

What is the molecular ratio of all monosaccharides?

A

CH2O

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9
Q

What is the main monosaccharide used by all organisms?

A

carbohydrates

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10
Q

What is a disaccharide and a polysaccharide?

A

disaccharide - 2 sugars bonded together

polysacharide - are polymers of monosaccharide

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11
Q

Give the 4 main polysaccharides, their function, and in which organisms they are found

A

starch (plants), cellulose (plant cell walls), chitin (fungi cell walls), glycogen (humans)

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12
Q

Lipids contain hydrocarbons. How is a hydrocarbon different from a carbohydrate?

A

There is no ratio and low oxygen

Hydrocarbons contain hydrogen and carbon only (e.g methane CH4). Carbohydrates contain carbon combined with an oxygen and hydrogen in the ratio which they occur in water. (e.g. glucose C6H12O6).

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13
Q

What are the 4 main types of lipids and their functions?

A

steroid - chem. message, hormones
tryglyceride - fat and oils
waxes - waterproofing
phospholipids - cell membrane

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14
Q

Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated lipids. There are 5 key differences

A

Saturated:

1) all C bond to H
2) No C = C
3) double bonds
4) saturated with H long
5) straight change, solid at room temp.

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15
Q

Proteins are the polymer of what?

A

amino acids

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16
Q

What is the quality of proteins that allow them to perform the work of a cell?

A

They have the ability to change their shape

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17
Q

What is the function of an enzyme?

A

speeds up reactions

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18
Q

What is activation energy?

A

energy needed to start a reaction

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19
Q

What is a substrate?

A

reactant when using an enzyme

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20
Q

What is the part of an enzyme that the substrate binds to?

A

Protein enzyme

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21
Q

What happens to the enzyme after the reaction?

A

returns to its original shape

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22
Q

What are the 2 patterns of the naming of enzymes?

A

molecule it’s using plus “-ase”

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23
Q

Nucleic acids are the polymers of what?

A

nucleotides

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24
Q

What is common with all monomers of nucleic acids? There are at least 5. (only found three)

A

both nucleotides, made of sugar phosphate, nitrogenous bases

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25
Q

What are 3 key differences between DNA and RNA?

A

DNA: deoxyribose, thymine, 2 strands

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26
Q

What is the formula for water?

A

H2O

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27
Q

What bonds hold these atoms together in a single water molecule?

A

covalent bonds

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28
Q

Covalent bonds are a type of _____ force

A

weak force

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29
Q

What does the term electronegativity refer to?

A

The pull of a nucleus on its outer most electrons

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30
Q

Which element of water is most electronegative?

A

oxygen

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31
Q

Which element in water will have a slightly negative charge? A slightly positive charge?

A

Hydrogen: slightly positive
Oxygen: slightly negative

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32
Q

The difference in chrage across a molecule gives the molecule the property of being ____

A

polar

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33
Q

This property makes the molecule act like a small weak______

A

magnets

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34
Q

What does hydrophilic mean? What does hydrophobic mean?

A

hydrophilic - likes water

hydrophobic = hates water

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35
Q

Water can make what kinds of bonds between other water molecules?

A

hydrogen bonds

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36
Q

What kind of force are hydrogen bonds?

A

They are a type of intermolecular force

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37
Q

What is cohesion?

A

Cohesion allows substances to withstand rupture when placed under stress

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38
Q

What is surface tension?

A

cohesion at the surface of water

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39
Q

Water can make what kinds of bonds with other hydrophilic molecules?

A

hydrogen bonds

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40
Q

What is adhesion

A

adhesion is the attraction between water and other molecules.

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41
Q

The process of a hydrophilic fluid climbing up a tube and bringing other water molecules with it is known as….

A

capillary action

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42
Q

What 2 properties can make the fluid move farther up the tube on its own?

A

thinner tube and more polar

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43
Q

Because water molecules “stick” to each other, it takes extra energy to separate them and get them to speed up. Because of this water has high _______

A

concentration

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44
Q

What is heat vaporation?

A

water’s ability to store heat at moderate body temperature and climate

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45
Q

pH measures the concentration of what in a fluid?

A

acidity - acidic, neutral, basic

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46
Q

What pH are acidic, neutral, and basic?

A

acidic: 1-6
neutral: 7
basic: 8-14

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47
Q

How many times more acidic is a pH of 1 vs 2? vs. 3? vs. 7? vs. 9? vs. 14?

A

10^-2, 10^-3, 10^-7, 10^-9, 10^-14

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48
Q

What are Robert Hooke and Aton von Leeuwenhoek’s contribution to our knowledge of cells?

A

The cell theory

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49
Q

What are the 3 components of cell theory?

A

1) all organisms are made of one or more cell
2) cells are the basic unit of life
3) cells come from existing cells

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50
Q

Why are cells small?

A

Food and waste must pass through the cell surface

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51
Q

How do you calculate the surface area: volume ratio of a cubic cell?

A

.

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52
Q

What happens to the surface area of a cell as a cell increases in size?

A

it gets bigger

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53
Q

What happens to the surface area: volume ratio as a cell increases?

A

It gets smaller

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54
Q

What are the components of prokaryotic cell?

A

cell membrane, ribosomes, cytosol, single circular chromosome, cell wall, flagela, nucleotide

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55
Q

What is missing from prokaryotic cells?

A

Prokaryotes have no organized nucleus.

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56
Q

What are the 2 domans of prokaryotic organisms?

A

bacteria, archea

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57
Q

Compare the number of cells in a prokaryote with eukaryote?

A

prokaryotes are single celled

eukaryotes are multicellulared

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58
Q

What is the main advantage with being multicellular?

A

cell specialization

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59
Q

What is the composition of the cell membrane?

A

phopholipid bilayer

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60
Q

Describe the parts and qualities of those parts of a single phosolipid?

A 
head = polar
tail = nonpolar
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61
Q

What are all of the organelles and cell structures that can be found in eukaryotic cells and give the function of each?

A

.

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62
Q

What are the properties of a phospholipid?

A

hydrophillic head, hydrophobic tail

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63
Q

How are phospholipids arranged in a biological membrane?

A

heads near water, tails covered by head

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64
Q

What particles can diffuse directly through the phospholipids of a membrane?

A

small particles

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65
Q

What are the 2 key characteristics of passive transport?

A

doesn’t require energy

high concentration to low concentration

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66
Q

Describe the phenomenon of dynamic equilibrium

A

both concentrations are the same, but still moving

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67
Q

What is meant by simple diffusion? Give an example

A

nonpolar particles pass through the cell membrane

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68
Q

What is meant by facilitated diffusion? Give an example

A

The membrane has a channel and carrier proteins that allow large polar particles or ions to pass through the membrane

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69
Q

Define the terms hypotonic, hypertonic, and isotonic. How does water move when the solution is any of these conditions? How does water move when the cell is any of those conditions?

A

hypertonic - high concentration outside of cell

hypotonic - low concentration outside

isotonic - same concentration within cell and out/off diffusion

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70
Q

What will be the condition of a cell when placed in hypotonic, hypertonic, and isotonic conditions of solution?

A

hypertonic - cell shrinks
hypotonic - grow
isotonic - stays the same

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71
Q

You have a cell in an isotonic solution. How do you make the potato hypotonic to the solution? How do you make the potato hypertonic to the solution?

A

hypotonic = adding salt

hypertonic - decreasing salt

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72
Q

What will prevent a plant cell from lysing, a fungal cell from lying, a protozoan from lysing, and an animal from lysing if too much water enters the cell?

A

plan cell - cell wall
a fungal cell - chitin
a protozoan - contractil/vacuole
animal - epidermis

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73
Q

How do O2 and CO2 diffuse in respect to the blood in your lungs? How do O2 and CO2 diffuse in respect with the blood near your muscle cells?

A

O2 goes to blood

CO2 does opposite

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74
Q

What are the 2 key characteristics of active transport?

A

requires energy

low concentration to high concentration

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75
Q

How is ATP related to active transport?

A

ATP is the energy used for active transport

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76
Q

What are the 3 main types of active transport? Describe each and how each affects the cell membrane.

A

protein pumps, exocytosis, endocytosis

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77
Q

Draw and label the 3 distinct parts of an ATP molecule

A

.

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78
Q

What is adenosine? What is the difference between ATP and ADP? Where is the usable energy stored in ATP?

A

adenine + ribose.

ATP = 3P
ADP = 2P
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79
Q

What is ATP directly used to do? Give an example.

A

Change the shape of proteins

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80
Q

Differentiate between autotrophs and heterotrophs

A

Autotrophs - generates energy without consuming other organisms

Heterotrophs - rely on other living organisms to generate energy

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81
Q

Differentiate between producers and consumers

A

producers - autotrophs

consumers - heterotrophs

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82
Q

What is the complete balanced equation for photosynthesis?

A

6CO2 + 6H2O –> C6H12O6 + 6O2

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83
Q

What is the ultimate source of all energy found on Earth?

A

sunlight

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84
Q

Be able to draw chloroplast: photosynthesis diagram from memory

A

.

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85
Q

What are the 3 main stages of the Light Reactions?

A

P.S. II –> ETC –> P.S.I

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86
Q

What is the overall purpose of the light reactions?

A

create 6O2, ATP, and NADPH for the calvin cycle

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87
Q

What are the main purpose of the Calvin Cycle?

A

To create NADP+, ADP+P, and C6H12O6

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88
Q

Why are plants green?

A

They absorb all the colors of the spectrum, but reflect green

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89
Q

What are the 4 main factors that determine the rate of photosynthesis and what do their graphs look like?

A

.

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90
Q

Why does excessive heat cause the rate of photosynthesis to go down?

A

The proteins used denature and change their shape

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91
Q

Compare cellular respiration to photosynthesis with regards to the following things: energy, CO2, O2, glucose, H20, and the equation

A

Cellular respiration - releases energy, CO2 released, O2 used, uses glucose, H20 released

Photosynthesis - stored energy, CO2 keeps, O2 releases, makes glucose, H2O used

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92
Q

What is meant by the term anaerobic respiration?

A

anaerobic respiration doesn’t require oxygen

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93
Q

What are the 2 steps of anaerobic respiration in order?

A

Step 1) glycolysis

Step 2) fermentation (alcohol, lactic acid)

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94
Q

What are the 2 types of fermentation steps? What organisms perform each?

A

Lactic acid fermentation and alcohol ferementation

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95
Q

What organisms perform glycolysis?

A

plants

96
Q

What is the purpose of performing glycolysis?

A

To create sugars (glucose)

97
Q

Which type do humans perform, which parts of humans perform it, and why would humans perform it?

A

lactic acid fermentation
muscles
to slow us down

98
Q

Why is cellular respiration also called aerobic respiration?

A

requires oxygen

99
Q

What are the 3 steps in order of cellular respiration?

A

glycolysis –> Krebs cycle –> ETC

100
Q

What are all of the inputs and NET outputs of glycolysis?

A

inputs: glucose
outputs: 2NADH, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP

101
Q

Where does glycolysis take place?

A

mitochondria

102
Q

What are all of the inputs and the NET outputs for glycolysis for per 1 molecule of glucose?

A

glucose, 2 ATP, 4 ADP, 2 NAD+ –> 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH

103
Q

Where specifically does the Krebs Cycle take place?

A

In the matrix of the mitochondria

104
Q

What are the inputs and outputs for the Krebs Cycle per 1 molecule of glucose?

A

inputs: 2 pyruvate
outputs: 2 FADH, 8 NADH, 2 ATP, 6CO2

105
Q

What is the main purpose of the Krebs Cycle?

A

regenerate electron carriers for the etc.

106
Q

Where specifically does the Electron Transport Chain take place?

A

cell membrane

107
Q

What are the inputs and outputs of the ETC per 1 molecule of glucose?

A

inputs: 2 NADH, 6O2, 2 FADH, 8 NADH
outputs: 32 ATP, 6H20

108
Q

Describe the steps of the ETC, both in reality and with waterwheel analogy

A

.

109
Q

What is the ETC made of?

A

proton pumps

110
Q

What powers it?

A

electrons

111
Q

What is the benefit of the mitochondria having 2 membranes?

A

movement in the 2 membranes

112
Q

Why is the inner membrane (cristae) folded?

A

want more etc.

113
Q

ATP synthase performs what 2 functions?

A

enzyme and a proton channel

114
Q

What is the function and purpose of O2 in aerobic respiration?

A

takes electrons and protons after use

115
Q

How much more ATP is generated in aerobic respiration versus anaerobic respiration?

A

aerobic - 36 ATP

anaerobic - 2 ATP

116
Q

How many times more ATP is generated in cellular respiration vs. anaerobic respiration?

A

18x

117
Q

Where would the ETC be located on a prokaryote?

A

cell membrane

118
Q

What is the origin of the mitochondria? How is the mitochandria different from its ancestor?

A

both prokaryotes that were brought in by hosts cells

119
Q

What are the 4 main reasons why cells reproduce? Explain each.

A

S.A.: V
DNA overload
repair and replacement
browth

120
Q

What is meant by the term “asexual reproduction”?

A

offspring is genetically identical to the parent

121
Q

What are the 3 main forms of asexual reproduction?

A

budding, fragmentation, binary fission

122
Q

What is an organism’s genome?

A

total of all of its gene

123
Q

How is a genome contained in a prokaryotic cell?

A

in a single circular chromosome

124
Q

How is a genome contained in a eukaryotic cell?

A

many or linear chromosomes

125
Q

Where is genome contained in prokaryote?

A

nucleoide

126
Q

Where is a genome contained in a eukaryote?

A

nucleus

127
Q

What is the process by which prokaryotes asexually divide?

A

binary fission

128
Q

In prokaryotes, DNA is found alone. In eukaryotes the DNA is coupled with _____ to create a material called ________

A

histones, chromatin

129
Q

A single strand of chromatin is called

A

chromatid

130
Q

What is a chromosome? What are its 2 varieties? Draw out both of them

A

structures made of chromatin, \, x

131
Q

What is meant by a cell being diploid?

A

contains 2 of each chromosome

132
Q

Why are your human somatic (body) cells diploid?

A

1 of each chromosomes will be passed down to the offspring

133
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the cell cycle?

A

meiosis and mitosis

134
Q

What are the 3 parts, in order, of the 1st part of the cell cycle, and what happens in both?

A

interphase

G1, S, G2

135
Q

Name and describe the 2 parts of cell division (m-phase)

A

mitosis and cytokinesis

136
Q

What are the 4 phases in order of mitosis and what happens in each?

A
  1. prophase
  2. metaphase
  3. anaphase
  4. telophase
137
Q

Draw a cell interphase and in each phase of mitosis

A

.

138
Q

How is cytokinesis different from mitosis?

A

mitosis is division of nucleus/ cytokinesis is division of the cytoplasm

139
Q

How does cytokinesis happen in animals? In plants?

A

animals - membrane pinches

plans - builds cell plate

140
Q

What regulates the timing of the cell cycle?

A

cyclins

141
Q

Describe anchorage and density-dependence with respect to the cell cycle?

A

density = dependence = once cell is at max density cell stops dividing

142
Q

Growth factors are chemicals secreted by a cell to make other cells around it grow. When would a cell secrete these growth factors?

A

growth and development or repair

143
Q

What is heredity?

A

passing genes to offspring

144
Q

What is genetics?

A

study of heredity

145
Q

What is trait?

A

characteristics

146
Q

What is a gene?

A

factor that controls a trait

147
Q

What is an allele?

A

variation of a gene

148
Q

What is a genotype?

A

the alleles

149
Q

What is a homozygous?

A

both alleles are same

150
Q

What is a heterozygous?

A

alleles differ

151
Q

What is true-breeding?

A

homozygous

152
Q

What is hybrid?

A

heterozygous

153
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

trait

154
Q

How do dominant and recessive alleles interact?

A

dominant - expressed recessive - suppressed

155
Q

What is the dominant eye color in humans? What geneotypes will code for its expression?

A 
brown
widows peak (?)
156
Q

What type of hair line is dominant in humans? What geneotypes code for it? Which is more common?

A

black

r - flat hairline (?)

157
Q

What does it mean when a trait is said to be controlled by Incomplete dominance? Give an example?

A

The 2 traits are blended

158
Q

What is mean when a trait is said to be controlled by co-dominance? Give an example.

A

both alleles are expressed equally

159
Q

Be able to construct a Punnett square.

A

.

160
Q

Compare Segregation to Independent Assortment:

A

.

161
Q

What is the function of DNA?

A

has genetic information

162
Q

What are the 3 components of a nucleotide?

A

A sugar (called deoxyribose)

A Phosphate (1 phosphorus atom joined to 4 oxygen atoms)

One of 4 bases (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine)

163
Q

Which component of a nucleotide can change between different nucleotides?

A

.

164
Q

What is the purpose of the sugar and phosphate?

A

provide backbone of a DNA strand

165
Q

Compare Purines and Pyrimidines. How many nitrogenous rings are on each? Which bases are classified as which?

A

Purines: Adenine and Guanine

Pyrimidines: Cytosine and Thymine

166
Q

Which bases can pair with each other in the double strands of DNA?

A

A=T

C=G

167
Q

Be able to calculate base frequencies with Chargaff’s rule

A

% Adenine = % Thymine

% cytosine = % Guanine

168
Q

What is the shape of a strand of DNA?

A

double helix

169
Q

What causes the DNA to twist?

A

hydrogen bonding

170
Q

What are the proteins that bind to DNA in a eukaryote chromatin?

A

histones

171
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

DNA wrapped around a group of histones

172
Q

What is meant by the term supercoil?

A

nucleosomes that are coiled around each other

173
Q

When does DNA replicate in the cell cycle?

A

.

174
Q

What are the 3 steps of replicating DNA?

A
  1. unzipping
  2. base pairing
  3. double checking
175
Q

What is the purpose of unzipping?

A

DNA helicase unzips the double helix strand of DNA

176
Q

What enzyme is used in unzipping?

A

.

177
Q

How are new nucleotides added in base pairing?

A

Free nucleotides are added to both new single strands of DNA by DNA polymerase

178
Q

What enzyme is used in base pairing?

A

DNA polymerase

179
Q

What is the purpose of double checking?

A

The DNA polymerase can double check the strand to correct any errors in base pairing

180
Q

What enzyme is used in double checking?

A

DNA polymerase

181
Q

What would be the problem if DNA was always replicated with 100% accuracy and precision?

A

we would all be the same

182
Q

What is the error rate of DNA replication?

A

1: 100 million

183
Q

Using the error rate of DNA replication, how many errors would you expect in a human cell that contains 3 billion nucleotide base-pairs?

A

30

184
Q

What is a replication fork?

A

sight where unzipping takes place

185
Q

The two strands made from replication fork will be what to each other?

A

identical

186
Q

Define transcription

A

DNA transcription is a process that involves transcribing genetic information from DNA to RNA (In other words, an RNA copy of a gene sequence is made during transcription.) The transcribed DNA message, or RNA transcript, is used to produce proteins.

187
Q

Define translation

A

Translation is the process of translating the sequence of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule to a sequence of amino acids during protein synthesis.

188
Q

Describe the term semi-conservative

A

Each daughter stand of DNA are half of the parent strand

189
Q

Why is it acceptable that human cells gain mutations every time they go through the cell cycle? (Give 3 reasons)

A

1) less than 5% are genes
2) each cell uses some genes
3) some mutations don’t change proteins

190
Q

Define the term gene expression

A

Gene expression is the process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product. It is the process by which the information contained within a gene becomes a useful product.

191
Q

What molecules do the work of the cell?

A

Proteins do most of the work in cells.

192
Q

DNA is used to directly make what product?

A

proteins

193
Q

Where does transcription take place?

A

cell nucleus

194
Q

What happens to introns and to exons after mRNA is made?

A

During the process of RNA splicing, introns are removed and exons are put back together.

195
Q

mRNA is used by what cellular structure?

A

ribosome

196
Q

What 2 places can ribosomes be found?

A

Free ribosomes are found in cytosol. Bound ribosomes are found on endoplasmic reticulum, which is a membrane in the cytoplasm

197
Q

What is a codon?

A

Info written in a code. It is a sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule.

198
Q

What is an anti-codon?

A

Codes for codons. It is a sequence of three nucleotides in tRNA.

199
Q

What molecule contains an anticodon?

A

tRNA

200
Q

What are 3 differences between DNA and RNA?

A
  1. Location - DNA is found in nucleus. RNA is found in nucleus and cytoplasm.
  2. Sugar: DNA sugar is deoxyribose. RNA sugar is ribose.
  3. Bases: DNA bases are A,T,C,G. RNA bases are A,U,C,G
201
Q

To what does the nitrgenous base Uracil bind?

A

In RNA, uracil binds with a ribose sugar to form the ribonucleoside uridine. Uracil pairs with adenine through hydrogen bonding.

202
Q

What are all of the molecules involved in the process of transcription?

A

(?) mRNA, rRNA, tRNA

203
Q

What are all of the molecules involved in the process of translation?

A

(?) mRNA, tRNA, and then a polypeptide (chain of amino acids)

204
Q

What contribution did Lyell make to evolution?

A

If the earth is changing perhaps organisms are changing as well

205
Q

What contribution to Hutton make to evolution?

A

The earth is more than 6000 yaers old

206
Q

What contribution did Malthus make to evolution?

A

Human population has limiting factors

207
Q

What contribution did Lamarck make to evolution?

A

organisms adapted to their environments through acquired traits

208
Q

What contribution did Darwin make to evolution?

A

everything in evolution changes

209
Q

Compare and contrast Darwinian evolution to Lamarckian evolution

A

Darwin: top have less competition
Larmark: perfection with use and need

210
Q

What contribution did Mendel make to evolution?

A

He determined that organisms have 2 factors for each trait, but only passed on one to each offspring.

211
Q

What contribution did Avery make to evolution?

A

He determined that chromosomes have genetic info

212
Q

What contribution did Wallace make to evolution?

A

He discovered principles of evolution and natural selection

213
Q

What contribution did Hershey Chase make to evolution

A

He determined that the DNA of a chromosome had genetic info., not proteins

214
Q

What can be learned from studying fossil records?

A

Fossils in layers show organisms have populated earth for a long period of time.

215
Q

What are homologous structures and what do they tell us about the organisms that possess them?

A

remnants of structures that were function in ancestral species

216
Q

What are analogous structures and what do they tell us about the organisms that possess them?

A

separate evolution of structures

217
Q

Why do vertebrate embryos look similar at early stages of development?

A

came from common ancestors

218
Q

What can be learned from comparing the embryos of vertebrates throughout development

A

different stages of development changes organisms

219
Q

How does the molecular record compare between closely related organisms and distantly related organisms?

A

Closely related species have sequences that are more similar than distantly related species

220
Q

How can artificial selection be used as evidence for natural selection?

A

breeding can use variations in populations to create vastly different breeds and varieties

221
Q

Describe how a pathogen can become resistant to antibiotics

A

inherited resistance to antibiotics from parents

222
Q

What are the key elements required for natural selection to take place?

A

1) Organisms have inheritable variation
2) There is always competition for scarce resources. There will be more organisms that can survive.
3) Those best adapted to environment will best survive and pass traits to offspring.

223
Q

What leads to directional, disruptive, and stabilizing selection?

A

Directional selection: Individuals with extreme traits are more fit. (Directional selection is a type of natural selection that favors one extreme phenotype over the mean or other extreme.)

Disruptive selection: One population divides itself between 2 niches, so 2 species will arise.

Stabilizing selection: Individuals with average traits are more fit. Eliminates extremes.

224
Q

What is genetic drift? Say two things about it.

A

1) Sometimes a mutation causes a new phenotype that neither benefits nor reduces the population fitness.
2) Genetic drift is the effect of chance events

225
Q

Compare the founder effect and bottleneck event

A

Founder effect: new population is started by only a few individuals

Bottleneck effects: Some factor (e.g., disaster) reduces population to a small number and the population recovers and expands again.

226
Q

What is ecology the study of?

A

The study of the interactions of organisms with each other and their environment.

227
Q

What is a niche?

A

How an organism lives in relationship to the other members of its biotic community or ecosystem

228
Q

What is the difference between biotic and abiotic factors in an ecosystem?

A

abiotic: non-living; physical rather than biological
biotic: living things

229
Q

How much energy is able to be transferred from one trophic level to the next?

A

10%

230
Q

Why are tropic pyramids usually short?

A

energy constantly lost

231
Q

What happens to nutrients in an ecosystem?

A

nutrients are constantly recycled

232
Q

What classifies a species as a keystone species?

A

species that a larger impact on the environment then would be predicted by their population size - apex predators

233
Q

What are non-native, or invasive, species so dangerous to an ecosystem?

A

They are not natural predators. Often disrupts the balance in a previously stable environment. Takes over the environment.

234
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

A relationship between organisms that live closely together

235
Q

Compare the 5 main types of symbiosis

A

competition : -/-
Predation/parasitism: -/+
mutualism: +/+
commensalism: +/o

236
Q

What is “aposematic” coloration?

A

Bright warning to predators

Lukas (16 decks)

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