Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CDC questions > Set II > Flashcards

Set II Flashcards

1
Q

During which developmental stage does the body begin to slow down and there is a gradual decrease in functioning capacity of all organ systems?

A

Middle age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What factors affecting human development determine an individual’s height, weight, and appearance?

A

Hereditary factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which factors include all of the outside influences and conditions that affect a person’s life and development?

A

Environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What physiological factors are important roles in determining how one feels about one’s self?

hint: 4 things.

A

Vitality, health, chronic illness, and endocrine system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some examples of prenatal influences which can cause brain damage or dysfunctions for a fetus?

hint: t/d/ppc/m

A

Teratogens, diseases, poor prenatal care, malnutrition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify examples of perinatal or postnatal influences a parent can have on a child.

hint: m/a/a/i/m/p

A

Medication, anoxia, accident, illness, malnutrition, poisoning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most important biological factor to consider in the study of development?

A

Maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is physical development greater than at any other time in the life cycle?

A

Infancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During what stage of development do children develop a sense of their own individuality and willpower?

A

Middle childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During what stage of development do children become more athletic?

A

Middle childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Socialization and learning are major psychosocial development tasks during which stage of development?

A

Young adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does adolescence mean?

A

Becoming adult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does adolescence generally start?

A

Around age 12.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who does the adolescent identify with and gain a sense of belonging and self-acceptance from?

A

Adolescents identify with peers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the term “psychosocial moratorium” mean? What is its psychological purpose?

keywords: harmonize [with]… assimilate

A

Young adulthood, or a second period of delay after adolescence. It allows the individual time to harmonize the different parts of their personality and to assimilate adolescence completely before assuming an adult identity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During which developmental stage does the body begin to slow down and there is a gradual decrease in functioning capacity of all organ systems?

A

Middle age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some signs of senescence?

A

Normal aging without significant loss of function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some examples of senility?

A

Aging accompanied by considerable physical and psychological deterioration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three leading causes of death for individuals in late adulthood?

A

Heart disease, cancer, and cerebrovascular accident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the definition of self-concept?

A

Our subjective perception of who we are and what we are like.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Our response to our name or to photographs of ourselves is an example of what dimension of the self-concept?

A

Self-recognition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In which dimension of the self concept might some people use objects to prove their importance or status?

A

Extensions of the self.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

According to Charles Cooley, what does the phrase the looking-glass self refer to?

A

The origins and nature of self-concepts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the result of a person having more positive traits than negative traits?

A

Positive self-image.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the first significant primary group in our lives that gives us information about the kind of person we believe we are?

A

Our immediate family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The child develops much of his or her own personality and self-awareness by imitating the behavior of family members and identifying with what traits?

A

Identifying with their values, attitudes, morals, ethics, religion, prejudices, likes, and dislikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Beyond the home, what is one of the first real-life experiences of the child?

A

School.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who are the major role players in the development and formation of a child’s self-image?

A

Parents, teachers, and significant others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is meant by the term self-ideal?

A

Refers to the beliefs that a person holds regarding the kind of person he or she should be or wants to become.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is the self-ideal often formulated?

A

By the process of comparison with others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is meant by the term self-talk?

A

Refers to what we tell ourselves about ourselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is meant by the term selective perception?

A

Perceiving what we want or expect others to perceive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are Freud’s three levels of mind awareness?

A

Conscious, subconscious (or preconscious), and unconscious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

According to Freud’s theory of personality development, what three psychological forces determine personality?

A

Id, ego, and superego.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is repression defined according to Freud’s theory of personality development?

A

The involuntary exclusion of a painful or conflicting thought, memory, feeling, or impulse from awareness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

According to Freud, what defense mechanism is commonly used against the stress of being diagnosed with a terminal illness?

A

Denial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

According to Freud, how is the defense mechanism of identification defined?

A

The wish to be like another person and to assume the characteristics of that individual’s personality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is one of the problems with Freud’s theory of development?

A

It fails to explore any phases of adult development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to Freud’s psychosexual development theory, during what stage does the young child derive satisfaction from and copes with discomfort or anxiety by sucking?

A

Oral stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

According to Freud’s psychosexual development theory, during what stage does the young child need to learn to delay gratification and exert the muscle control necessary for toilet training?

A

Anal stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

According to Freud, during what period does the Electra complex occur?

A

Phallic stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In Freud’s psychoanalytical therapeutic approach, what will analyzing dreams provide?

A

Insight into the individuals wants, desires, and conflicts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

According to Erikson’s theory, what two forces must be synthesized during the developmental phases for a healthy personality development?

A

Positive and negative experiences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

According to Erikson, what is the central scheme during middle childhood, or school age?

A

To develop scholastic and social competency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Erikson believed that unsuccessful completion of what developmental stage during infancy will cause the child to withdraw from school and peers?

A

School age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In Sullivan’s theory, what do children develop to protect themselves against anxiety?

A

Security operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

According to Sullivan, what security operation occurs when a person sleeps to avoid anxiety?

A

Somnolent detachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, what stage are children unable to reason?

hint: starts with an s

A

Sensorimotor stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What famous behaviorist experiment is the Russian physiologist Ivan Pavlov credited with?

A

Salivary responses in dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define modeling and shaping?

A

Parents and other important persons in a child’s life demonstrating the desired response patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the focus of humanistic theory?

remember: conscious experiences

A

People’s conscious experiences and perceptions and on freeing them from disabling assumptions and attitudes to they can develop their potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the three basic principles of the humanistic approach?

A

Self as a unifying theme, emphasis on value and personal growth, and a positive view of nature and its potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

According to Charolette Buhler’s five phases of goal-orientation, during what phase do people begin to think about their needs and potential?

A

Adolescence and young adult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the focus of the therapist in existential therapy?

A

To help the patient clarify his or her values and work out a meaningful way of “being in the world.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is existential therapy used for with patients?

A

To help lead the individual toward personal growth and a socially constructive and personally fulfilling life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do the diagnostic criteria provide?

A

A description of specific information to associate with each mental disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is the diagnosis of DSM-IV-TR governed?

A

By three criteria: the disorder is not due to the direct effects of a substance; the disorder is not due to the direct effects of a general medical condition; the disorder causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does it mean to classify something?

keyword: arrange…

A

To arrange according to a system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does the classification system used in the DSM-IV-TR allow mental health providers to do?

A

To communicate more clearly in a universal language among themselves and to provide standard care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When may anxiety be considered an indicator of a mental disorder?

hint: i/i/p

A

When it is irrational, incapacitating, or persistent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the common physical complaints expressed or exhibited by the depressed person?

A

Low-back pain, constipation, weight loss, chronic indigestion, and decreased libido (sexual desire)

62
Q

Define abnormal behavior in psychological terms.

A

Actions, thoughts, and feelings harmful not only to that individual but also to others around that individual.

63
Q

What is the term dual diagnosis used to describe?

A

Cases where the presence of both a substance-related disorder and mental disorder occur in tandem

64
Q

When should the mental health journeyman always be alert to the possibility of a dual diagnosis?

A

When dealing with substance abusing patients.

65
Q

What are some of the observable effects of mental retardation?

A

Deviations from normal adaptive behaviors, ranging from learning disabilities and uncontrollable behavior to severe cognitive and motor skill impairment.

66
Q

Learning disorders are characterized by inadequate development of what specific academic skills?

hint: 3 things

A

Reading, math, and written expression.

67
Q

Why is the term pervasive used when describing Pervasive Developmental Disorders?

A

Because of the massive deficits affecting many areas of functioning and requiring long-term care that usually results in limited improvement.

68
Q

What specifically do children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder have difficulty with?

A

Attention span, impulsivity, and hyperactivity.

69
Q

Identify the behaviors children with conduct disorder demonstrate?

A

Cruelty to people and animals, destruction of property, serious violation of rules, and deceitfulness or theft.

70
Q

How are delirium disorders distinguished?

A

By a disturbance of consciousness with reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention.

71
Q

How is dementia distinguished?

A

By impairment in memory.

72
Q

What is the difference between antegrade and retrograde amnesia?

A

With antegrade amnesia, the patient cannot recall events since the trauma occurred to the brain. With retrograde amnesia, the patient cannot recall events before the trauma occurred to the brain.

73
Q

Describe the conditions a patient with catatonic disorder may experience.

A

toric immobility, excessive purposeless motor activity, extreme negativism, peculiarities of voluntary movement, echolalia or echopraxia.

74
Q

What personality disturbance is manifested by poor impulse control?

A

Disinhibited.

75
Q

What are the personality changes for apathetic type?

A

Indifference and apathy.

76
Q

What are the four primary characteristics for substance-related disorders?

A

Adverse social, behavioral, psychological, and physiological affects.

77
Q

What are the features indicative of a substance dependence disorder?

A

Increased tolerance or need for increased amounts of substance to attain the desired effect, withdrawal symptoms with decreased use, increased time spent in activities to obtain, use or recover from the substance, unintended excessive usage, inability to decrease the amount of the substance being used, unable or unwilling to participate in important social, occupational or recreational activities, and continued usage despite contraindications to the individuals psychological or physiological well-being.

78
Q

What two classes of abused drugs do not apply to the category of substance abuse?

A

Caffeine and nicotine.

79
Q

Which opioid has no medical purpose?

A

Heroin.

80
Q

Phencyclidine (PCP) was removed from the market for human use in 1965, what is its primary use now?

A

Veterinary use.

81
Q

Intoxication from which class of drugs emulates alcohol intoxication?

A

Sedatives and hypnotics (or anxiolytic).

82
Q

What is the particular danger of sedatives and hypnotics?

A

Their cross-tolerance with each other and alcohol; the synergistic result of mixing them could be lethal.

83
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms for schizophrenia disorders?

A

What are the characteristic symptoms for schizophrenia disorders?

84
Q

What is the primary symptom that distinguishes the paranoid from other forms of schizophrenia disorders?

A

The presence of rather ornate delusions of persecution and/or grandeur.

85
Q

What is the disorganized type of schizophrenia characterized by?

A

Frequent and inappropriate emotional displays, especially unexplainable giggling and grimacing disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat or inappropriate affect is prominent.

86
Q

What behavior is demonstrated in the withdrawn form of catatonia?

A

Patients show no interest in their surrounding and often are mute.

87
Q

How is the patient with catatonia excitement characterized?

A

A state of general psychomotor agitation.

88
Q

Which type of schizophrenia refers to manifesting prominent delusions, hallucinations, incoherence, or grossly disorganized behavior?

A

Undifferentiated type.

89
Q

In addition to meeting the common criteria for schizophrenia, what else do patients with Schizoaffective Disorder experience?

A

They experience a major depressive episode or a mixed episode for a substantial period of the illness

90
Q

What does the patient with a grandiose type of delusional disorder believe?

A

That he or she possesses some extraordinary, unidentified, talent or insight.

91
Q

What is the most serious complication of major depression?

A

Suicide.

92
Q

What is the primary feature of dysthymic disorder?

think: dis-mood

A

Chronic depression.

93
Q

What features characterize bipolar disorders?

A

Severe pathologic mood swings from mania and euphoria to sadness and depression.

94
Q

What are the five types of anxiety disorders?

A

Phobias, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder.

95
Q

Which disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of intense apprehension, terror, and impending doom?

A

Panic disorder.

96
Q

Describe obsessions.

A

Unwanted irrational thoughts, ideas, images, or impulses to act, often in an aggressive or sexual fashion.

97
Q

How are compulsive acts defined?

A

Observable patterns of behavior that the individual feels compelled or forced to carry out.

98
Q

How do somatoform disorders and malingering differ?

A

In somatoform disorders the symptom production is not under voluntary control.

99
Q

What two things does a patient “get” from having a conversion disorder?

A

Primary gain and secondary gain.

100
Q

Describe the symptoms of a patient with hypochondriasis disorder.

hint: worried sick.

A

Preoccupied with the fear or belief that they have a serious disease or misinterpret body sensations as the onset of a serious illness despite reassurances from medical providers to the contrary.

101
Q

How are factitious disorders characterized?

think: these people stick to the facts…

A

Physical or psychological symptoms that are intentionally produced or faked.

102
Q

Which disorder is characterized by intentional feigning of symptoms suggestive of a mental disorder?

A

Factitious disorder with predominantly psychological signs and symptoms.

103
Q

How are the experiences characterized for a patient with a dissociative disorder?

A

Prolonged periods of amnesia, personality change, and detachment, often associated with intense affect.

104
Q

How is a dissociative fugue characterized?

A

Total amnesia and wandering away from home.

105
Q

Which disorder was once referred to as the multiple personality disorder?

A

Dissociative identity disorder.

106
Q

How are sexual dysfunctions characterized?

A

Inhibitions in sexual desire or the psychophysiological changes that characterize the sexual response cycle.

107
Q

How are paraphilias characterized?

A

Arousal in response to objects or situations that are not part of normal arousal patterns.

108
Q

How are gender identity disorders characterized?

A

Strong and persistent cross-gender identification that not concurrent with their natural physical anatomical condition.

109
Q

What is the key feature of anorexia nervosa?

A

Self-imposed starvation resulting from a distorted body image and an intense, irrational fear of gaining weight.

110
Q

How is bulimia nervosa characterized?

A

Recurrent episode of binge eating and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain.

111
Q

What is the focus of dyssomonias?

A

The major disturbance in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep.

112
Q

How long must excessive sleepiness occur for patients to be considered a primary hypersomnia?

A

Almost daily for at least one month, or episodically for longer periods of time.

113
Q

What disorder is also referred to as the sleep-wake schedule disorder?

A

Circadian rhythm sleep disorder.

114
Q

What disorder was once referred to as the dream anxiety disorder?

A

Nightmare disorder.

115
Q

How are the six specific impulse control disorders united?

A

By the destructive nature of the individual’s impulsive act.

116
Q

Describe what the person diagnosed with pyromania experiences preceding setting a fire.

A

Sense of tension or affective arousing.

117
Q

What does the adjustment disorder diagnostic category focus on?

A

Transient emotional disorders or reactions of any severity that cannot be accounted for by the presence of any previously existing emotional disorder.

118
Q

At what age do patients usually experience adjustment disorders?

A

Any age of life.

119
Q

What are personality disorders characterized by?

A

Exaggerated cognitive or emotional tendencies, usually manifested in maladaptive social behavior.

120
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by feelings of entitlement, interpersonal exploitativeness, relationships that alternate between the extremes of over-idealization and devaluation, and lack of empathy?

A

Narcissistic.

121
Q

How are patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder characterized?

A

A restricted ability to express warm and tender emotions, perfectionism that interferes with the ability to grasp “the big picture,” insistence that others submit to his or her way of doing things; excessive devotion to work and productivity to the exclusion of pleasure, and indecisiveness.

122
Q

What is one of the most dramatic results of the use of psychoactive agents?

A

The ability of many severely disturbed persons to return to their community after a relatively short period of time.

123
Q

In general, what do antipsychotic medications treat and manage?

A

Treat and manage acute and chronic psychosis and control excessive agitation.

124
Q

Define akinesia.

think: wednesdays…

A

Fatigue or weakness of muscles in the arms or legs and usually is not very distressing to the patient

125
Q

What are antianxiety agents often referred to as?

A

Minor tranquilizers.

126
Q

What problems are seen in long-term use of antianxiety agents?

A

Tolerance and dependence.

127
Q

The lack of extra-pyramidal effects is considered a benefit of which class of drugs?

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRI).

128
Q

The abrupt discontinuation of Effexor can cause what reaction?

A

It can exacerbate the patient’s depression or side effects they may be experiencing.

129
Q

Why are overdoses with tricyclics considered a very serious matter?

A

Due to the often irreversible toll exacted on the patient’s liver.

130
Q

What is one of the most common barbiturates prescribed?

A

Secobarbital (Seconal).

131
Q

What is the most effective drug used in the treatment of the acute manic phase of bipolar disorder?

A

Lithium carbonate.

132
Q

Most extra-pyramidal effects associated with antipsychotic medication can be controlled with what agents?

A

Antiparkinsonian agents.

133
Q

When are V codes usually used?

A

A provider has not had enough time to rule out a mental health disorder; there is not enough evidence to justify a mental health diagnosis; there is a mental health disorder, but the main focus of treatment is on a situation that was not caused by the disorder.

134
Q

What does using a V code allow the provider to do?

A

To see the client and provide assistance without labeling the situation as a mental health problem.

135
Q

How does malingering differ from facticitious disorder?

A

In malingering there is always external motivation for being sick.

136
Q

What is the focus of treatment for bereavement?

A

A normal reaction to the loss of a loved one.

137
Q

Give examples of a patient diagnosed with the V code of identity problem.

A

Goal setting, career path, moral convictions.

138
Q

Define child emotional maltreatment.

A

Acts or a pattern of acts, omissions or a pattern of omissions, or passive-aggressive inattention to a child’s emotional needs resulting in an adverse effect upon the child’s psychological well-being.

139
Q

Define non-organic failure to thrive.

A

Neglect which manifests itself in an infant’s or young child’s failure to grow and develop when no organic basis for this deviation is found.

140
Q

Identify what behaviors are included in child sexual exploitation

A

Exploitation includes forcing or encouraging a child to do any of the following: expose the child’s genitals or (if female) breasts; look at another individual’s exposed genitals or (if female) breasts; observe another’s masturbatory activities; forcing/encouraging the child to view pornographic photographs or read pornographic material; hear sexually explicit speech; forcing/encouraging the child to participate in sexual activity with another person, such as in pornography or prostitution, in which the alleged offender does not have direct physical contact with the child.

141
Q

How does the Air Force classify a spouse in terms of the need for intervention?

A

An individual who is married and who is eligible for benefits in the MTF. This may include an individual less than 18 years of age.

142
Q

What is multigenerational transmission?

A

The concept that the abusive or violent behavior is learned or modeled after an adult, usually a parent.

143
Q

What AFI mandates the reporting of suspected famiy maltreatment?

A

AFI 40–301, Family Advocacy.

144
Q

In the CONUS, what agencies are included in a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) as part of an installation policy?

A

Child Protective Services (CPS) and FAP.

145
Q

What factors require further consideration when a determination to remove children from a home is entertained?

A

Severity and frequency of the alleged abuse; nature of any threats; offender access to the victim; available support systems and their ability to ensure the safety of the child; drug or alcohol involvement; impulse control and stress levels of the alleged offender/perpetrator; suicide risk.

146
Q

What are some reasons why victims of spouse abuse will minimize the incident?

A

Many victims will minimize the danger in order to cope emotionally with their situations. Others may minimize to protect their abusive spouse, particularly if the abuser is active duty and has convinced the victim that any revelation regarding abuse will result in a complete loss of benefits and pay for the family. The victim may feel trapped and fear the consequences to the family unit or their abusive spouse if they report the violence.

147
Q

In the case of a child not of the age of consent, does the child need consent and if so who consents?

A

Only one parent’s consent is needed.

148
Q

What happens when the appropriate services a family may need are not available in the local area?

A

The FMCMT cannot arrange the appropriate services, a reassignment may be indicated.

149
Q

What happens to the treatment process if the alleged offender chooses to separate or divorce during treatment?

A

This does not excuse the alleged offender from treatment. Intervention plans will be amended as necessary and continue for all eligible beneficiaries. The behavior which caused the alleged offender to be identified still must be addressed.

150
Q

Who is the target of family advocacy primary prevention services?

A

All members of the community and offered on a voluntary basis.

151
Q

What services are included in the family advocacy secondary services?

A

New Parent Support Program; family Advocacy Strength-Based Therapy Services; advocacy and support groups for pregnant teens, single parents, new parents, and geographically separated spouses; skill building classes for at-risk groups.

152
Q

What kind of skill building classes is offered in secondary services?

A

Anger Management; Couples Communication; Conflict Resolution; Transition into Parenthood; Newborn Language; Newborn Care; Child Growth and Development; Parenting; Fatherhood.

CDC questions (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions