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CDC questions > Set IV > Flashcards

Set IV Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which patients may not be able to readily identify any positive aspect of their lives?
    hint: the s/s/d/d patient
A

The substance-abusing, substance-dependent, depressed, or demoralized patients.

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2
Q

Patients with poor insight do not view their destructive behavior as a weakness; rather, they view it how?

A

They’re a victim of environmental circumstances.

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3
Q

What is the first step in patient ownership of a problem?

A

Helping patients identify the origin of the problem.

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4
Q

What should be listed first when identifying problems?

A

The most disruptive, pain causing, consequential problem.

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5
Q

Abraham Maslow proposed a hierarchy of human needs for what reason?

A

As an explanation for the forces that motivate human behavior.

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6
Q

What is essential to maintaining physiological needs?

A

Oxygen, water, food, sleep, stimulation, activity, sex, and so forth.

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7
Q

What is the focus for most adults as it relates to security needs?

A

Establishing stability and consistency in a chaotic world.

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8
Q

Why is the hierarchy need of self-actualization often limited to a short period of time?

A

Due to the ever-changing goals and decisions of an individual.

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9
Q

Identify common reasons why patients avoid establishing goals.

A

Fear of success, fear of failure, and some operate with the “lottery” or “Santa Claus” mentality that something good will come their way with little effort, if any at all––it’s just a matter of time.

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10
Q

What occurs when a patient is able to visualize himself or herself beyond his or her current situation?

A

It will instill hope.

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11
Q

Define goal.

A

Outcome statement of what the patient will ultimately attain through treatment that is important to the patient; it is positive, realistic, achievable, and seen as worthwhile by the patient.

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12
Q

What occurs when the clinician assumes responsibility for key components of the patient’s goal?

A

It teaches the patient very little regarding assuming control and responsibility for the direction of his or her life

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13
Q

What is meant by identifying the cost versus benefit effect of identifying goals?

A

What is being given up versus what is gained from goal achievement.

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14
Q

During what part of establishing goals would the counselor review all areas that could prevent successful completion or implementation of a goal?

hint: answer is basically in the question.

A

Identifying obstacles that could prevent goal achievement.

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15
Q

What does the mnemonic HALT represent and what is it an example of?

A

Hungry, Angry, Lonely, and Tired; an example of triggers that can prompt the substance abuser to seek thrill or return to his or her former environmental surroundings.

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16
Q

What occurs when a patient has little or no coping skills?

A

Return to his or her using lifestyle.

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17
Q

What is considered a certain recipe for relapse?

A

The patient returning to a home where his or her partner continues to use substances.

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18
Q

The ability of a patient to create a relapse prevention plan will be based upon what factors?

hint: 5 things

A

The severity and length of the patient’s substance use; the patient’s perception of the problem; the patient’s motivation to remedy or change; the patient’s current support system; and the extent the substance has affected each aspect of the patient’s life.

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19
Q

What is the purpose of identifying warning signs/triggers?

A

Allows the patient to reconstruct events that have led to substance use in the past; by doing so, the patient can formulate alternatives for or avoid situations that could lead to relapse.

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20
Q

Identify common feelings patients often experience with the prospect of terminating treatment.

hint: a/f/h/l

A

Anxiety, fear, helplessness, and loneliness.

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21
Q

What are the six reasons a therapeutic relationship is terminated?

A

(1) Symptom relief. (2) Improved social functioning. (3) Greater sense of identity. (4) More adaptive defenses. (5) Accomplishment of goals. (6) Impasse in therapy that the counselor is unable to solve or is beyond the counselor’s expertise.

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22
Q

What can occur if a relationship is maintained outside the formal treatment setting?

A

Allows a dependency to form as the patient feels he or she always has you at his or her disposal. It also fosters resentment from you, the counselor, towards your patient, as you are never “off duty.”

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23
Q

How are treatment plans considered as they provide a road map for progress?

hint: something between the pt and counselor

A

A written contract between the patient and the counselor.

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24
Q

Identify the five WHO’s dimensions of health.

hint: for the last two, think fth and int builds…

A

(1) Physical. (2) Social. (3) Mental. (4) Spiritual. (5) Intellectual.

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25
Q

What does rehabilitation emphasize?

A

The return to a way of life previously known and forgotten or rejected.

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26
Q

Define habilitation.

hint: pts initial socialization into…?

A

The patient’s initial socialization into a productive and responsible way of life.

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27
Q

What are the two key concepts that guide the development of every treatment plan?

A

(1) The plan should be individualized. (2) The plan should be participatory.

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28
Q

Identify two reasons why the counselor’s personal values should not be superimposed on the process.

A

The patient’s ownership and investment in the treatment planning process.

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29
Q

What 2 things must measures of improvement or milestones be?

A

Must be tangible and have observable outcomes.

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30
Q

What can the assessment tool be used to determine?

A

The value of the treatment chosen
how it should be adjusted
how realistic are the goals that have been set
what additional linkages need to be made between the patient and other agencies when the maximum benefit of the intervention has been achieved
and the plan for further intervention, if needed.

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31
Q

Describe milestones in the assessment process.

A

Should be identified and move towards discharge or termination of treatment.

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32
Q

What occurs when journeymen maintain a stereotypical role of being a counselor?

A

It is very impersonal and can only make it more difficult to establish rapport.

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33
Q

Why should you self-disclose to a patient?

A

It should be for the benefit of encouraging patients to deepen their level of self-exploration or to enhance the therapeutic relationship.

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34
Q

What occurs when a counselor is uncomfortable with silence during counseling?

A

It is not uncommon to feel threatened by the silence and to do something counterproductive to alleviate the anxiety we feel.

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35
Q

What does encouraging a patient to make independent choices and accept the consequences of his or her choices promote?

hint: growth in…?

A

Growth in problem solving.

36
Q

What is the purpose of defining behavior?

A

Clarifies which behavior is detrimental, aberrant, counterproductive, and inconsequential.

37
Q

Identify ways in which we form our self-image.

A

Our regard for ourselves; our mental picture of how we appear to others; our picture of our physical self; our idea of how we present ourselves to others and are judged by them; our personal assessment of our character, personality, skills, abilities, and attributes; and our use of an accumulation of personal scripts from experiences (consciously or otherwise) throughout our lives to dictate how we approach people and situations.

38
Q

During which stage of counseling will the counselor demonstrate acceptance without judgment or insertion of personal beliefs and continue to build a trusting relationship?

A

Initial disclosure.

39
Q

In which stage of counseling does the counselor begin to gain a greater understanding regarding the patient’s primary problems and formulating diagnostic options?

A

In-depth exploration.

40
Q

What are the three basic approaches you will use in psychotherapy?

A

(1) Cognitive. (2) Behavioral. (3) Dynamic or psychodynamic

41
Q

What is the focus of cognitive therapy?

A

Psychological disturbances that frequently originate from habitual errors in thinking.

42
Q

What are the three core irrational beliefs of RET/REBT?

A

(1) I must be liked/loved by everyone I consider significant in my life.
(2) I must not make mistakes. (3) Life must be fair

43
Q

What are the basic tenets of reality therapy?

A

Conventional or traditional categories of mental illness and efforts to treat them are useless; patient insight into his or her past is useless and meaningless; reliving the past has very little, if any, therapeutic value; insight into unconscious conflicts does not lead to behavior change; traditional psychiatry avoids issues related to morality; and conventional therapy fails to teach the patient better behavior.

44
Q

Which therapy is ideal for adolescent delinquents or adult petty criminals?

A

Reality therapy.

45
Q

Identify the ego states that form the foundation for TA?

A

The parent, adult, and child.

46
Q

What is the best-known expression of the purpose of TA?

A

I’m OK; you’re OK.

47
Q

What is the basic assumption of Gestalt therapy?

A

The patient has the capacity to self-regulate in his or her current environment and adjust his or her behaviors and reactions to what is happening around him or her. It emphasizes the patient is responsible for his or her destiny.

48
Q

What are the communication problems most often identified in dysfunctional families?

A

Disqualification, disconfirmation, and incongruent communication.

49
Q

What is the critical step of reframing?

A

Allows the counselor to put forth all the facts for the family in a setting minus the emotional context the problem often carries.

50
Q

Identify the process of behavior analysis.

A

Consists of an in-depth review of maladaptive behavioral responses that has caused difficulties in the marital, family, social, occupational functioning, or other significant area of your patient’s life.

51
Q

In the caring or unconditional positive regard attitude presented in client-centered therapy, what is the counselor called on to do?

A

To abandon all judgments regarding the patient and interact in a neutral, accepting manner.

52
Q

What is an important aspect psychotherapeutic groups offer?

A

The ability for the patient to assimilate with other people who are experiencing like problems.

53
Q

What occurs when there are more than 10 participants in a group?

A

The group will lose the valuable interaction between group members.

54
Q

What kinds of groups fit the educational group mold?

A

Substance abuse, eating disorder groups, and medical subspecialty groups (i.e., diabetes, multiple sclerosis, smoking cessation, etc.).

55
Q

What is the purpose of conducting a pregroup?

A

It gives you the opportunity to explain goals, expectations, and rules, and answer questions regarding confidentiality.

56
Q

What feelings often mark the beginning stage of group?

A

Apprehension, dread, anxiety, and sometimes excitement.

57
Q

What occurs when a group member verbally attacks the facilitator?

A

Challenges the validity of you and the group as a whole.

58
Q

Identify three benefits of group participation.

A

(2) A sense of safety, comfort, and support. (3) Identification of common goals and issues. (4) Exchange of useful constructive information.

59
Q

Identify three contraindications of group participation.

A

(1) Clearly when the person is not motivated to participate in the group process, he or she should not participate. (2) When the person is actively in crisis and other group members are not. (3) When the patient has articulated he or she is actively suicidal or homicidal.

60
Q

Who is preferred to address the issue of absenteeism in groups?

A

The group.

61
Q

When a patient discontinues group without warning, what occurs with the remaining group members?

A

Often leaves the other group members confused with many unanswered questions.

62
Q

What are some reasons why patients may remain silent in group?

A

Perhaps the patient is fearful of making a fool of himself or herself; the patient is afraid of self-disclosing; the patient fears the perception others may have of him or her if the patient speaks; the patient may be contemptuous; or the patient may feel he or she is better than the group or resents being in the group.

63
Q

What role does the “yes, but” patient pose for the group?

A

Poses insurmountable problems for the group and then devalues their input by sabotaging the answer or dismissing it as impossible to achieve.

64
Q

What is the purpose of the summary you provide to the clinician after your interview?

A

To briefly introduce the patient and highlight the main clinical features.

65
Q

What must you always comment on in the summary to the provider?

A

Suicidal or homicidal ideation despite how irrelevant you may feel it is to the presenting problem.

66
Q

Give the definitions for consultation and referral.

A

Consultation – Relating with in-house staff or outside professionals to assure comprehensive, quality care for the client. Referral – Identifying the needs of the client that cannot be met by the counselor or agency and assisting the client to use the support systems and community resources available.

67
Q

What is the primary goal of managing a crisis?

A

To ensure safety and quickly respond in assisting the patient to resume his or her previous level of adaptive functioning.

68
Q

What is the focus of the Family Advocacy Program?

A

Prevention.

69
Q

How often does the CAIB meet?

A

Quarterly.

70
Q

What does the IDS seek from the CAIB?

A

Implementation of recommendations.

71
Q

What is the primary purpose of the treatment plan?

A

Establish the framework for the patient’s treatment and recovery.

72
Q

Where do you document the treatment team meeting?

A

Extensively in the mental health record, and document the occurrence and outcome in the outpatient record.

73
Q

How many times can a civilian employee be seen in the clinic for an evaluation free of charge?

A

Once.

74
Q

What are four benefits of having a civilian employee sign a consent form?

A

(1) It enables the supervisor to better consider a request for the use of leave for future counseling or treatment sessions. (2) It makes rehabilitation more effective by involving the supervisor in the problem-solving process. (3) It tells the supervisor that the employee is trying to correct the problem. The supervisor needs to know this if other corrective action is under consideration. (4) It helps destigmatize the problem and helps toward dealing with the problem as an illness.

75
Q

What are three consequences for the civilian employee if he or she does not sign a consent form?

A

(1) The signed statement is the only way for the employee to authorize the counselor to communicate with the supervisor or any other relevant individual. (2) Unless the supervisor knows that the employee is getting help, the supervisor must proceed with corrective action. (3) If the employee entered the program after his or her on-base driving privileges were revoked or suspended under the Alcohol and Drug Countermeasures Program of AFI 31-204, those privileges are not reinstated until the ADAPT clinic (or rehabilitation committee) determines the employee is sufficiently rehabilitated and is no longer a driving safety risk. If the employee refuses to sign a release, ADAPT has no way of communicating with the security forces. Therefore, the employee will not be allowed to drive on base.

76
Q

In what year did the DOD give the AF and other services two years to establish standardized criteria for selection and certification of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors?

A

1985.

77
Q

What organization did the AF join with to conform with the DOD directive?

A

International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and Other Drugs of Abuse (ICRC/AODA).

78
Q

How many hours of ethics training must be completed as a prerequisite towards certification?

A

Six.

79
Q

The 13 questions on the written certification exam cover which eight practice domains?

A

(1) Clinical evaluation. (2) Treatment planning. (3) Referral. (4) Service coordination. (5) Counseling. (6) Client, family, and community education. (7) Documentation. (8) Professional and ethical responsibilities.

80
Q

What does AFI 44-119, Medical Quality Operations, outline for the CADAC?

A

Not only the education and certification requirements for the CADAC, but also the required supervision.

81
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for the clinical practice of all CADACs?

A

ADAPT Program manager.

82
Q

What three concepts addressed by population health are considered the greatest challenge?

A

(1) Providing a healthy, fit, and ready force. (2) Improving the health status of our enrolled population. (3) Managing an effective and efficient health care delivery system.

83
Q

What are the six CSFs?

A

(1) Describe the demographics, needs, and health status of the enrolled population. (2) Appropriately forecast and manage demand capacity. (3) Proactively deliver preventive services to the enrolled population. (4) Manage medical and disease conditions. (5) Continually evaluate improvement in the population’s health status and the delivery system’s effectiveness and efficiency. (6) Energize a total community approach to population health.

84
Q

What is HCO?

A

The study and practice of using resources.

85
Q

HCO helps who establish guidelines for use?

A

Air Force Medical Service

86
Q

What examples of health-related issues are connected to behavior?

A

Smoking cessation, stress management, and weight loss.

87
Q

What does the BHOP model strive to do?

A

Increase access to behavioral health by integrating behavioral health consultants into the primary care clinic.

CDC questions (4 decks)

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