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BT_Step1_NTK > Uworld NTK_week1 > Flashcards

Uworld NTK_week1 Flashcards

1
Q

What deficiency can happen with biliary disorders, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, or intestinal malabsorption?

A

Deficiency in Fat-Soluble vitamin.

Vitamin A ~ night blindness and hyperkeatosis

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2
Q

What biliary diz is ~w/ middle-aged WOMEN?

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC); destruction of small bile ducts in the liver.

Have generalized pruritus d/t bile acid accumulation in the skin.

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3
Q

Late-onset familial Alzheimers ~w/ ?

A

Apo-E4 genotype

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4
Q

Early-onset familial Alzheimers ~w/ ?

A

three gene mutations:

  • APP (Chr. 21)
  • Presenilin 1 (chr.14)
  • Presenilin 2 (chr. 1)
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5
Q

M3 receptors on endothelial surface of peripheral blood vessels. activation leads to what?`

A

promotes NO synthesis and increase cGMP which activate myosin light chain phosphatase ===> VSMC relaxation and vasodilation.

In contrast to M3 activation at other organs, which does muscle CONTRACTIONS!!!

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6
Q

Proteins ~w/ gap junctions?

A

Connexins, for intracellular communications

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7
Q

Proteins of tight junctions?

A

Claudins, occulins; (Para cellular barriers)

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8
Q

Proteins of adherins junctions?

A

Cadherins for cellular anchor)

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9
Q

Proteins of desmosomes?

A

Cadherins (desmogleins, desmoplakin)

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10
Q

Hemidesmosones proteins?

A

Integrins (Cellular anchor)

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11
Q

What biostats number is the probability of developing a disease over a certain period of time?

A

-affected / # of total subject pop.

Risk!

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12
Q

What drug’s MOA is a N-Methyl-D-Aspartate receptor antagonist?

A

PCP (phencyclidine)

NDMA

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13
Q

What drugs can help accelerate fetal lung maturation by stimulating surfactant production?

A

Betamethasone or Dexamethasone

give to decrease risk of neonatal RDS

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14
Q

Caviare TB is usually due to primary infection or reactivation?

A

Reactivation of mycobacterial infection

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15
Q

____ abscesses are common complications of aspiration pneumonia?

A

Lung Abscesses.

high risk pt; alcoholics, dementia, chronic illness

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16
Q

How do you Tx narcolepsy?

A

scheduled daytime naps

psychostimulants (Modafinil) for daytime sleepiness

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17
Q

What are the 3 Sx of Anaphylatic shock?

What do you use to Tx it?

A
  • Vasodilation
  • Increased vascular permeability
  • Bronchoconstriction

Tx w/ Epi. it stimulates alpha-1 receptors of both cutaneous and viscera vasculature.
Stim of beta-2 ==> bronchodilation

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18
Q

What amino acid is the precursor for Serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

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19
Q

How do you Tx serotonin syndrome?

A

anti-histamine with anti-serotonergic properties like Cyproheptadine.

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20
Q

How do you Tx serotonin syndrome?

A

anti-histamine with anti-serotonergic properties like Cyproheptadine.

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21
Q

What are the physical features of a Pt. with Fragile X syndrome?

A
  • Neurobehavioral problems
  • Prominent forehead
  • Large ears
  • Long narrow face
  • prominent chin
  • MACRO-orchidism, Large Balls!!!
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22
Q

What is the major ADR with Sccinylcholine drug use, esp. in Pt. with severe burns, myopathies, enervating injuries?

A

HyperK+

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23
Q

What accounts for the difference in the values between minute and alveolar ventilations?

A

Dead Space

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24
Q

What are the premature stop codons?

A

UAA

UAG

UGA

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25
Q

Myasthenia gravis and Goodpastures are examples of what immune response?

A

Type 2 hyper-sensitivity

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26
Q

What is the MOA of Dantrolene?

A

Inhibition of Ca2+ ion relase from sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal m.

Used to Tx Hypertermic Maligantant syndrome of anathesia

AND

Tx Neuroleptic Malignat Syndrome (NMS) from anti-psychotic medication overdose!

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27
Q

The toxin produced by what two bacteria that causes bloody diarrhea has the same action of inhibiting the 60S ribosomal subunit in human cells –> blocking protein synthesis by preventing tRNA binding?

A

Vero-cytotoxins of Shiga and EHEC

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28
Q

What is the best drug of choice to Tx pregos with VTE (other clotting/anti-coag)>

A

LMWHeperins. Enoxaparin

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29
Q

Neonate comes to clinic with constipation, lethargy, hypotonia, macroglossia, umbilical hernia and large anterior fontanelle. What is the Dx and what is the dX and the associated pathophysio?

A

Congenital HypOthyroidism

Neonate aSx at birth b/c mom’s T4 is still in their system. takes a few months to show sX.

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30
Q

What adverse shit can happen if you mech-vent a pt. who has COPD with excessively high Oxygen?

A

Pt. will get increased CO2 retention (O2-inducecd hypercapnia) ===> confusion and depresses consciousness.

This is d/t the reversal of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction –> imcreases physiologic dead space. (V-Q mismatch)

“dead space ventilation”

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31
Q

What STD typically presents as a single PAINLESS genital lesion (chancre) after initial infections?

A

Syphilis (T. pallidum)

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32
Q

What derm layer does the spleen come from and what is it’s blood supply?

A

Mesodermal (dorsal mesentery)

splenic artery (branch of celiac trunk, major supplier to foregut)

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33
Q

Hyponatremia is a lab abnormality that occurs with pneumonia caused by what bacteria?

A

Legionella.

Think: dry couch, GI and Neuro issues, and recent cruises (travel with stranger water sources)

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34
Q

Infection with what bacteria can result in cold aggultinin formation?

A

Mycoplasma

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35
Q

What is the adverse effect of combo of a b-blocker and a CCB?

A

additive chronotrophic effects ==> severe bradycardia and hypotension.

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36
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is ~w/ the absence of what antigen?

A

CD18; needed for the formation of integrins to adheare to endotheial surfaces.

LAD ~infections lack purulence and have persistent leukocytosis b/c they can’t migrate out of blood vessels.

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37
Q

What is the func. of EGF?

A

mitogenic influence on epitheial cells, hepatocytes and fibroblast. EGF does NOT play a role in angiogenesis like VEGF or FGF-2.

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38
Q

What are the substances that drive angiogenesis?

A

VEGF & FGF-2

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39
Q

What Sx are pathognomonic for a larde patent ductus arteriosus complicated by eisenmenger syndrome (reversal of shunt flow from left-to-right to right-to-left)

A

differential clubbing and cyanosis in the toes WITHOUT blood pressure or pulse discrepancy.

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40
Q

What does PTH do to serum Ca+ and serum phosphate levels?

A

PTH increases serum Ca2+ and

DECREASES serum Phosphate (via urinary excretion)

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41
Q

Photosensitivity dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia think?

A

Pellagra, Vitamin B3 (Niacin) Def.

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42
Q

XP is and Auto-R disorder d/t a defective nucleotide excision repair often caused by a deficient what?

A

UV-specific endonuclease

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43
Q

What does the 3’ –> 5’ exonuclease mean?

A

“proof-reading” ability of DNA polymerase.

~w/ Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer associated with DNA mismatch repair gene mutation.

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44
Q

S3 in a older man –> ?

A

d/t increase left-ventricular end-systolic volume.

which occurs in the setting of left ventricular systolic failure

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45
Q

Auto-Abs against Desmosomes ==> ?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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46
Q

What causes bullous pemphigoid?

A

Auto-Abs to hemidesmosomes

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47
Q

Rheumatic fever/heart diz is a common cause of what heart sound in underdev. nations?

A

mitral regurg; blowing holosystolic murmur

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48
Q

Loss of neurons in the substantia nigra occurs is what disease?

A

Parkinsons

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49
Q

Damage to nucleus ambiguous of the medulla –> ?

A

myoclonus

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50
Q

Increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage and seizures –> ?

A

Cavernous hamangiomas

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51
Q

hyperpigmented macules and increase ICP and headaches –> ?

A

Cafe au Lait spots, NF-1 schwann cells, neural crest cells.

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52
Q

The Phrenic n. is derived from what nerve roots?

A

C3-C4-C5 keeps you alive.

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53
Q

Muscle weakness and atrophy, auto-dom, and cataracts –>

A

Myotonic Dystrophy (d/t increased number of trinuc repeats.

also can Sx of frontal balding and gonadal atrophy.

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54
Q

Where in the ribosome does the first tRNA enter for the AUG (Start) codon (methionine)

A

P-site

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55
Q

Binding of aminoacyl tRNA at the A-site req. what?

A

GTP binding and hydrolysis.

and other elongation factors

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56
Q

Which ribosomal subunit binds upstream of the 5’ end and travels downstream until the AUG codon is encountered?

A

The small subunit 40s

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57
Q

What is req. during aminoacylation (tRNA charging)?

A

two ATP

“A for activation”

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58
Q

What enzyme adds UDP-glucose to a pre-existing glycogen molecule or glycogenin, a small protein that acts as a primer for glycogen?

The breaking of phosphate bonds in UDP is what provides the energy to form the bond between glucose and the glycogen chain.

A

Glycogen synthase

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59
Q

Trisomy 21 has 3 copies of what that increases risk for EARLY onset alzheimers?

A

3 copies of amyloid precursor protein gene

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60
Q

LATE onset alzheimers –>

A

ApoE mut.

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61
Q

In the first days of life, neonate has dilated stomach & proximal duodenum “double bubble sign” ==> ???

A

Trisomy 21 increases risk of Duodenal atresia. (MC in down synd.)

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62
Q

Prenatal screening with decreased maternal serum AFP and increased nuchal translucency ==>?

A

Trisomy 21

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63
Q

harsh, crescendo-decrescendo SYSTOLIC ejection murmur at the right second intercostal space == ??

A

aortic stenosis.

bicuspid aortic valve mcc

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64
Q

mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard of apex == ???

A

Mitral Valve Prolase

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65
Q

Prolonged exposure to loud noises fucks with what?

A

hearing loss d/t damage to the stereociliated hair cells of the organ of corti

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66
Q

Fat guy with normal A-a gradient?

A

Obesity HYPOventilation syndrome.

chronic fatigue, dyspnea, PaCO2 > 45mmHg while awake.

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67
Q

Best pX indicator of bladder cancer?

A

Tumor stage; degree of invasion into the bladder wall and adjacent tissue.

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68
Q

Rod-shaped, “tennis racket”, cells, Langerhans cells?

A

Liver. Landerhans cells histiocytoses.

aka: Birbeck granules

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69
Q

How do you diff. schizoaffective disorder vs. schizophrenia?

A

schizoaffective is psychosis in the ABSENCE of significant mood symptoms (manic or depressive disorders)

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70
Q

Fungus that appears red on mucicarmine stain and clear “halo” with india ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans, only one with polysacc capsule

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71
Q

fungus, with septate hyphae on silver stain?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

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72
Q

fungus, budding yeast with pseudo-hyphae on KOH?

A

Candida

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73
Q

What layer do you biopsy if you are looking for Meissner and auerbach plexus?

A

submucosal

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74
Q

sotalol, quinidine, haloperidol, macrolides, fluoroquinolones all have what in common?

A

prolongs QT interval –> TdP

75
Q

Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule 1 (PECAM-1) is ~w/ what in terms of neutrophils?

A

Neutrophil transmigration; squeezing out of vasculature via integrin attachments and adherence to PECAM-1.

76
Q

molecules needed in neutrophil rolling?

A

L-selectin on neutrophils.

E-selectin/P-selectin on endothelial cells.

77
Q

CD18 is part of what in terms of neutrophils?

A

tight adhesion and crawling.

LAD type 1 is a fucked CD18

78
Q

custard, mayonnaise, salted meats, food at a potlock ~ ?

A

Staph aureus

79
Q

Fried Rice ~ ?

A

Bacillis cereus

80
Q

Raw oysters ~ ?

A

Vibrio

Vibrio parahaemolyticus & vulnificus

81
Q

Raw egg and raw chicken ~ ?

A

Salmonella gastroenteritis

82
Q

What organ is deep to the 12th rib?

A

the kidney

83
Q

what type of reaction is d/t known pharma properties of a drug?

A

Type 1:

ex: nephrotoxicity d/t aminoglycosides,

84
Q

increases breath hydrogen content, reduced stool pH (more acidic), elevated stool osmolality ==> ??

A

Lactose intolerance.

85
Q

Pt. gets vasospasms following a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), what you use to Tx?

A

CCB?

Nimodipine

86
Q

What imaging is the most abnormal in minimal change disease?

A

EM shows diffused podocytle foot process effacement and fusion.

LM and IF are normal.

87
Q

Meniere disease ~ tinnitus, vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss. pathogenesis ?

A

d/t to INCREASE VOLULME and pressure of endolymph in the vestibular apparatus.

88
Q

adhesion of cells to the ECM involves integrin-mediated binding to what? (3)

A

fibronectin, collagen and laminin.

89
Q

large amounts of whole blood transfusion leads to an elevated plasma what in a pt. and what does this elevated substance do to calcium and magnesium?

A

5-6 liters + of whole blood increases plasma citrate. Citrate chelates calcium and magnesium –> decreasing their plasma levels ==> paresthesia.

90
Q

excessive ingestion of raw egg whites fucks with what vitamin?

A

B7 (biotin)

91
Q

What does hormone sensitive lipase detect?

A

decreases in insulin.

that’s why there is HYPERlipidemia in diabetics.

92
Q

What aa becomes an essential amino acid in PKU?

A

Tyrosine

93
Q

what does ethanol do to eth NADH:NAD ratio

A

increases

94
Q

What are the two codons that are the exception to the degenerate/redundant aspect of the genetic code?

A

AUG:Methionine

UGG: Tryptophan

95
Q

Does high NADH represent the high or low energy state?

A

High NADH = HIGH energy state

96
Q

AutoDom. Defective synthesis of type 1 collegen –> impairment in bone matrix formation. small and malformed teeth.

A

Osteogenesis inperfecta.

Note: both endrochronal and intramembranous ossification are impaired.

97
Q

Fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy in a young adult ~~~ ???

A

infectious mononucleosis (IM) = EBV!!!

~ nasopharyngeal carcinoma

98
Q

________ ________ are vascular malformation composed of abnormally dilated capillaries separated by thin connective tissue septa.

A

Canvernous Hemangiomas

99
Q

Zoonotic infection in farm workers exposed to waste from cattle and sheep?

A

Q Fever. Coxiella burnetii

100
Q

What is the CD that is the surface marker of the monocyte-macrophage cell linage?

A

CD14

101
Q

CD7 = ???

A

CD7 is a multi-chain complex T-cell marker

102
Q

night sweats, wt. loss, and cough AND:

apical pulmonary granulmonas schowing caseous necrosis ===> ???

A

secondary TB;

103
Q

caseating granulomas of TB are made up of what cells?

A

large epithelioid macrophages

104
Q

Where is the complement binding site on both IgG and IgM?

A

Fc portion closer to the HINGE REGION!!!

105
Q

Delta Wave on ECG ???

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

pre-excitation.

also, short PR interval and widen QRS.

106
Q

fetal renal anomaly that causes decrease fetal urine output leading to Oligohydramnios.

A

Potter seq.

flat facies and club foot.

107
Q

Crypt hyperplasia, villous atrophy, intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration ==> ??

A

Celiac disease

108
Q

What is a derm diz, loss of epidermal melanocytes?

A

Vitiligo

109
Q

What type of genome is HepE virus?

A

single-stranded RNA, naked, oral-fecal, poor Asian, sub-Saharan Africa.

110
Q

Most common cause of congenital bilateral absence of congenital bilateral absence the vas deferens?

A

CFTR gene mut. (CBAVD)

CF

111
Q

HbS allows what kind of interaction with Hemoglobin molecules?

A

Hydrophobic.

HbS normal acidic/neg-charged glu is replaced with a nonpolar val. ===> hydrophobic interactions causing polymerization and erthrocyte sickling.

112
Q

Blue-green heme-based enzyme released from neurtophil azurophilic granules

A

myeloperoxidase;

forms bleach

113
Q

interalveolar wall destruction, very reduced expiratory airflow velocity, increased residual volume, hyperinflation == ???

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

114
Q

oxalate crystals in the renal tubular lumen ~ ?

A

ethylene glycol poisoning

115
Q

in hemolytic disease of the newborn, what causes the lysis of fetal RBCs?

A

anti-Rh(D) antibodies (IgG) cross the placenta and does the lysis

116
Q

45,X/46,XX ~ ?

A

germline mosaicism affecting sex chromosomes..

mosaicism is the presence of multiple, genetically different cell lines within the body

117
Q

Prostacyclin (prostaglandin I1) ~ ?

A

vasodilates and inhibits platelet aggregation and increase vasulcar permability

118
Q

thromboxane A2 –> ?

A

enhances platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

119
Q

??? is a marker of endogenous beta-cell insulin secretion?

A

C-peptide;

uses to know if insulin is from external sources

120
Q

what to types of DM drugs improve blood glucose levels by increasing insulin secretions (thereby increasing c-peptide)

A

Sulfonylureas & meglitinides

fasting decreases insulin secretion/c-peptide

121
Q

anterior pituitary comes from?

A

Rathke’s pouch (remnants) which comes from surface ectoderm.

~craniopharyngioma (calcifications)

122
Q

Catecholamines secretion from the adrenal medulla chromaffin cells are stimulated by what?

A

ACh released from sympathetic PRE-ganglionic neurons.

Epi and NE are secreated DIRECTLY into the bloodsteam.

123
Q

Dohle bodies ~ ?

A

Leukemoid reaction.

Dohle bodies = granules in neutrophils.

124
Q

HIV integrase inhibitor?

A

Raltegravir

125
Q

Path of N. meningitidis takes to infect CNS.

A

pharynx –> blood –> choroid plexus –> meninges

126
Q

Large ears, long face, macroocrhisim ==?

A

fragile X syndrome;

trinuc repeats of CGG.

small gap near the tip of LONG ARM of X chromosome.

127
Q

greenish color days after bruising d/t ?

A

biliberdin.

Heme Oxygenase converts heme to biliverdin.

128
Q

Fucked enzyme in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase.

129
Q

__________ nerve meditates the AFFERENT limb of the cough reflex about the vocal cords?

A

internal laryngeal n.

130
Q

What drugs are indicated in non-obstructive urinary retentation, paralytic ileus, and claucoma?

A

Cholinomimetics

131
Q

Pt. with parenteral nutrition via central venous catheter high risk infection from what fungus?

A

Candidemia;

branching pseudohyphae with blastoconidia.

132
Q

Vegans deficient in what?

A

B12, Calcium, Vitamin D

133
Q

exertional dyspnea and diastolic murmur at cardia apec ==> ??

A

mitral stenosis;

opening snap d/t sudden opening of mitral valve leaflets when the left ventricle pressure falls below the left atrial pressure at the beginning of diastole.

134
Q

exaggerated drop (>10mmHg) in systolic blood pressure during INSPIRATION == ?

A

Pulsus paradoxus

135
Q

Hypoxic CNS injury followed by _________ necrosis.

A

Liquifactive

136
Q

How are hormone receptor-positive breast cancers Tx?

A

anti-estrogen meds to reduce tumor prolif.

ER/PR (+), over-expression

137
Q

horse voice with heart issues?>

A

left atrial enlargement can impinge on left recurrent laryngeal nerve.

138
Q

Caspases: ?

A

proteolytic enzymes that cleave cellular proteins.

139
Q

Treating a dehydrated pt. with acyclovir can leadq to what?

A

crystalline nephropathy.

acyclovir is primarily excreted in the urine via GFR and tubular secretion.

140
Q

Hemobox genes?

A

codes transcription factors.
important role in segmental organization of embryo along the cranio-caudal axis.

defects –> skeletal malform and improperly position limbs

141
Q

Gallstone ileus –> ?

A

passage of large gallstone through a cholescystenteri fistula into the small bowel, obstructuing the ileum.

~ gas within the gallbladder and billiary tree

142
Q

Waxing and waning lymphadenopathty, cleaved and noncleaved cells = ?

A

Follicular lymphoma.

t(14;18) and overexpression of bcl-2 oncogene.

143
Q

What type of channel is the CF transmembrane ch.?

A

ATP-gated

144
Q

trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections ~ ?

A

osteoporosis

145
Q

Subperiosteal resorption with cystic degeneration ~ ?

A

hyper-parathyroidism

146
Q

“Excessive unmineralized osteoid? ~ ?

A

Vitamin D def.

147
Q

“the presistence of primary, unmineralized spongiosa in the medullary canals” ~ ?

A

Osteopetrosis

148
Q

Coccidioides ~ ?

A

Arizona

Lungs, “spherules packed with endospores”

149
Q

Calcification and thickening pericaridum on CT ~ ?

A

constrictive pericarditis?

150
Q

X-linked mutation affecting NADPH oxidase ?

A

CGD

151
Q

no blue or green pigment produced bt the NBT test?

A

CGD

152
Q

Horseshoe kidney ~ ?

A

inferior mesentaric artery

153
Q

bacterial transpeptidases ~ ?

A

penicillins, PBP. etc.

154
Q

Tx CMV retinitis w/ ???

A

ganciclovir

155
Q

What does CO poisoning do to pO2?

A

nothing.

CO poisoning increases carboxyhemoglobin concentration, but does not affect the partial pressure of oxygen and does NOT precipitate methemoglobinemia.

156
Q

defective transportation of cystine, ornithine, argine and lysine across the intestinal and renal tubular epithelium == ???

A

Cystinuria (AR)

157
Q

What is the MC type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary carcinoma

158
Q

what is the hallmark sigh of HPV infections?

A

Koilocytosis;

pyknotic, superficial or immature squamous cells with a dense, irregularly staining cytoplasm and perinucular halo-like clearing.

159
Q

decreased ventricular compliance w/ normal LV ejection fraction, normal LV end-diastolic volume, and ELEVATED LV filling pressures.

A

Diastolic heart failure

160
Q

Pt. that progresses to diabetic nephropathy can have proteinuria. What is the best drug to lower this risk?1

A

ACEi/ARBs are the best anti-hypertensives drugs d/t to their BP-independent anti-proteinuria effects.

161
Q

Biostats:

present when the effects of the main exposure on the outcome is modified in the presence of another variable.

A

Effect modificaiton

162
Q

GVHD ~ ?

A

Graft T-cell sensitization vs. host MHC antigens

163
Q

Major vascular beds most at risk for atherosclerosis?

A

Lower Abd Aorta & Coronary Arteries

164
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage unresponsive to meds ==> ?

A

ligate the Internal Iliac artery

165
Q

dev of external male genitalia, growth of prostate, male-pattern hair growth, amplifies the affects of testosterone == ?

A

DHT

166
Q

What is the essential pathogenic mech of Shigella?

A

Mucosal invasion of M cells that overlie peyer’s patches.

Shigeela does make exotoxin, but not needed to produce shellaosis

167
Q

urinary secretion of acid is in form of?

A

NH4+ and titratable acid (H2PO4-

168
Q

a tumor that has met to the ovary and ppt w/ Wt lose, epigastric pain, adnexal masses == ?

A

Krukenber tumor.

gastric tumor that has mets to ovary

169
Q

krukenberg tumor histo???

A

large amounts of mucin with apically displaced nuclei resulting in signet ring appearance.

170
Q

lactate and malate inhibits ?

A

glucoNEOgenesis

171
Q

Café-au-lait spots, lisch nodules, chr.17 ~ ?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)

172
Q

MC eye-related comp. of congenital CMV infection?

A

chorioretinitis

173
Q

All volatile anesthetics do what?

A

increase cerebral blood flow; d/t increase ICP

174
Q

what drug does:

myocardial depression, hypotension, resp. depression, and decreased renal function/

A

inhalation anestheetics

175
Q

Hemosideren-liden macrophages in palm alveoli –> ?

A

Left-sided heart failure.

“golden-colored”

176
Q

Epicanthal folds
upslanting palpebral fissures,
protruding tongue
excessive skin at nape of nect.

A

Down syndrome

177
Q

neonate with hypotonia and weak startled reflex (moro reflex)

A

down synd.

178
Q

S3 gallop ~ ?

A

increased L. Ventricular filling rate during mid- diastole.

~w mitral regurg

179
Q

thoracic aortic aneurysm ~w/ what infection?

A

3 syphilis. endarteritis obliterans

180
Q

How do you Dx and Tx Mysathenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium for Dx.

Pyridostigmine for Tx

181
Q

Tx Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?

A

Atropine

182
Q

What are the two “holosystolic murmurs” ?

A
  • Tricuspid regurg.

- VSD

183
Q

amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide are what?

A

Class 3 anti-arrhythmic drugs; K+ ch. blockers

184
Q

Important for Central Venous Catheter? (5)

A
  1. proper hand hygiene
  2. full barrier precautions during insertion.
  3. Chlorhexidine skin disinfection
  4. Avoidance of femoral insertion site
  5. Removal of catheter when no longer needed.

BT_Step1_NTK (28 decks)

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