Final Exam: Grevemeyer's Articles Questions

Question 1

1. Which statement regarding limb conformation in foals with angular limb deformities is correct?
   
   1. With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
   2. With varus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
   3. With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of inward rotation of the feet
   4. Rotational deformities are uncommon in foals with angular limb deformities

Answer 1

a. With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet

Question 2

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the multi-factorial complex implicated in development of angular limb deformities in foals?
   
   1. Abnormal fetal limb positioning
   2. Placentitis
   3. Hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones (Should be hypoplasia of the CUBOIDAL bones)
   4. Growth plate trauma

Answer 2

Hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones (Should be hypoplasia of the CUBOIDAL bones)

Question 3

1. Which statement regarding diagnosis of angular limb deformities in foals is true?
   
   1. Regardless of the degree and location of the deformity, all foals should have their limbs radiographed at the initial examination
   2. The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with asymmetric physeal or epiphyseal growth
   3. The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones
   4. Radiography is useful in determining the degree of rotational deformity

Answer 3

c. The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones

Question 4

1. Which statement regarding the diagnostic workup in foals with tarsal angular limb deformities is correct?
   
   1. A dorsoplantar radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia
   2. A lateromedial radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia
   3. Clinicians should rely heavily on a dorsoplantar radiographic view for exact identification and evaluation of the location and degree of tarsal angular limb deformities
   4. Concurrent rotational deformities are best identified using radiography

Answer 4

a. A dorsoplantar radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia

Question 5

1. Which of the following is the most likely cause of carpal angular deformities in newborn foals?
   
   1. Asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate
   2. Periarticular laxity
   3. Delayed ossification of the epiphysis
   4. Asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate and the epiphyseal growth cartilage

Answer 5

b. Periarticular laxity

Question 6

1. Which statement regarding congenital hypothyroidism is correct?
   
   1. It has been implicated as a cause of uneven physeal growth
   2. It has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones
   3. It has been implicated as a cause of delayed epiphyseal ossification
   4. It is often associated with abnormal fetal limb positioning

Answer 6

b. It has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones

Question 7

1. Foals with tarsal bone hypoplasia tend to present with:
   
   1. Valgus deformity
   2. Varus deformity
   3. Valgus deformity and straight-hocked appearance
   4. Valgus deformity and sickle-hocked appearance

Answer 7

d. Valgus deformity and sickle-hocked appearance

Question 8

1. Which statement regarding physical exam of foals with angular limb deformities is true?
   
   1. Angular limb deformities are often associated with some degree of lameness in the affected limb(s)
   2. Angular limb deformities are normally associated with heat, pain, and swelling at the site of the deformity
   3. In most cases, foals with angular limb deformities are not lame
   4. A and B

Answer 8

c. In most cases, foals with angular limb deformities are not lame

Question 9

1. Which statement regarding foals with cuboidal bone hypoplasia is correct?
   
   1. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 weeks
   2. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 days
   3. Manual reducibility of this condition is not time dependent
   4. This condition is never manually reducible

Answer 9

a. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 weeks

Question 10

1. Angular limb deformities most often originate within the carpal, tarsal, ____________ joint regions
   
   1. Or distal interphalangeal
   2. Or proximal interphalangeal
   3. Or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal
   4. Or distal interphalangeal, or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal

Answer 10

c. Or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal

Question 11

1. Which statement regarding management of congenital angular limb deformities is correct?
2. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution is unlikely.
3. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2 to 4 weeks of life.
4. In most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2 to 4 weeks of life.
5. In most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 4 to 8 weeks of life

Answer 11

B. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2 to 4 weeks of life.

Question 12

1. To avoid development of a contracted foot in a foal, glue-on shoes should not be left on for longer than
2. 2 months.
3. 3 months.
4. 2 weeks.
5. none of the above

Answer 12

2 weeks.

Question 13

1. To allow rapid growth in young foals, tube casts should be changed at _______ intervals.
2. 3- to 4-day
3. I 0 - to 14-day
4. 3- to 4-week
5. 4- to 6-week

Answer 13

B. 10 - to 14-day

Question 14

1. Corrective ostectomy or osteotomy is
2. preferred in treating tarsal bone hypoplasia
3. preferred in treating severe carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia.
4. generally performed before cessation of physeal growth.
5. generally performed after cessation of physeal growth.

Answer 14

D. generally performed after cessation of physeal growth.

Question 15

1. According to a recent experimental study, HCPTE was
2. More effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.
3. Less effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.
4. As effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.
5. As effective as unlimited pasture exercise in correcting carpal angular limb deformit y.

Answer 15

C. As effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.

Question 16

1. Which statement regarding treatment of foals with carpal bone hypoplasia is correct?
2. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia often require surgical treatment after an initial period of splint bandaging.
3. Foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the inside.
4. Foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the outside
5. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting.

Answer 16

D. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting.

Question 17

1. A 6-week-old foal with a significant varus deformity caused by asymmetric growth at the distal metatarsal growth plate in the left hindlimb is best treated with
2. splint bandaging and confinement .
3. confinement.
4. corrective trimming and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement.
5. surgery, corrective trimming, and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement .

Answer 17

C. corrective trimming and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement.

Question 18

1. Which statement regarding HCPTE (hemicircumferential periosteal transection and elevation) is true?
2. HCPTE temporarily retards longitudinal growth on the convex aspect of the deformity.
3. HCPTE temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity.
4. Foals that have undergone HCPTE require a second surgery to prevent overcorrection of the deformity.
5. HCPTE exerts its effect for approximately 3 months.

Answer 18

B. HCPTE temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity.

Question 19

1. Which statement regarding TPB (transphyseal bridging) is correct?
2. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase.
3. TPB is primarily used in foals with diaphyseal deformities.
4. Contrary to HCPTE, overcorrection has not been reported after TPB.
5. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with diaphyseal deformities.

Answer 19

A. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase.

Question 20

1. Postoperative treatment of foals using HCPTE includes
2. free pasture exercise because it tends to increase the rate of correction.
3. confinement.
4. splint bandaging.
5. none of the above

Answer 20

B. confinement

Question 21

1. The most thorough examination of equine caudal cheek teeth is obtained by
   
   1. visual examination in a sedated horse by means of a speculum
   2. visual examination in an unsedated horse with the tongue withdrawn
   3. digital palpation in a sedated horse with the use of a speculum
   4. digital palpation of the teeth through the cheeks

Answer 21

C. digital palpation in a sedated horse with the use of a speculum

Question 22

1. Which cheek teeth are most commonly affected by periapical abscess formation?
   
   1. second upper and third lower
   2. fourth upper and third lower
   3. fifth and sixth lower
   4. fifth upper and fourth lower

Answer 22

fourth upper and third lower

Question 23

1. The most common clinical sign associated with periapical infection of the fourth upper cheek teeth is
   
   1. swelling of the rostral maxillary area
   2. swelling of the caudal maxillary area
   3. bilateral epistaxis
   4. unilateral, malodorous, purulent nasal discharge

Answer 23

unilateral, malodorous, purulent nasal discharge

Question 24

1. The most common clinical sign associated with early periapical infection of the third lower cheek tooth is
   
   1. quidding
   2. refusal to take the bit
   3. swelling or sinus formation of the ventral mandible
   4. halitosis

Answer 24

swelling or sinus formation of the ventral mandible

Question 25

1. In a 4 year old horse, focal thinning and distension of the mandible under the third cheek tooth
   
   1. is always a sign of perapical infection; the affected tooth should be treated
   2. is always followed by the development of a purulent sinus tract
   3. is a pathognomonic sign of bit damage
   4. may be a normal development feature if it occurs bilaterally and is not accompanied by sinus tracts

Answer 25

may be a normal development feature if it occurs bilaterally and is not accompanied by sinus tracts

Question 26

1. Which of the following statements concerning dental radiography in horses is true?
   
   1. powerful, fixed radiographic equipment is required
   2. general anesthesia is necessary
   3. there is slight variation in radiographic appearance among horses
   4. interpretation of early radiographic changes can be extremely difficult

Answer 26

interpretation of early radiographic changes can be extremely difficult

Question 27

1. In a Shetland pony, the optimum beam projection angle for radiographic examination of the spices of the mandibular cheek teeth is obtained via a
   
   1. straight lateral radiograph
   2. dorsoventral radiograph
   3. laterooblique radiograph of 40 to 45
   4. laterooblique radiograph of 30 to 35

Answer 27

laterooblique radiograph of 40 to 45

(laterooblique radiograph of 30 to 35 = (Maxillary))

Question 28

1. Which of the following statements concerning equine dentistry is true?
   
   1. a sclerotic area often develops around a lytic, infected tooth apex
   2. the lamina dura is the radiographic outline of the infundibulum
   3. loss of the lamina dura always indicated dental infection
   4. a radiolucent blunt appearance of the apex of a recently erupted tooth is definitive evidence of periapical infection

Answer 28

a sclerotic area often develops around a lytic, infected tooth apex

Question 29

1. After the development of chronic shear mouth, infection of the perapical tissue occurs via
   
   1. the infundibulum
   2. the pulp cavities
   3. hematogenous spread
   4. the periodontal membrane

Answer 29

the pulp cavities

Question 30

1. The term diastema is defined as
   
   1. the presence of abnormally large spaces between adjacent teeth
   2. the presence of additional abnormal cheek teeth
   3. rotation or displacement of teeth
   4. the presence of deep cavities in infundibula

Answer 30

the presence of abnormally large spaces between adjacent teeth

Question 31

1. When do deciduous premolars normally erupt in horses?
   
   1. Birth or shortly after
   2. At 2 years of age
   3. At 3 years of age
   4. At 4 years of age

Answer 31

Birth or shortly after

Question 32

The difference in width between the

upper and lower jaw is known as

Answer 32

Anisognathia

Question 33

The technical term for “parrot mouth” is

Answer 33

brachygnathia

Question 34

1. Retained deciduous incisors:
   
   1. May be associated with discomfort
   2. Can cause caudal displacement of the erupting permanent incisors
   3. Can be removed in a standing patient
   4. All of the above

Answer 34

All of the above

Question 35

1. Canine teeth:
   
   1. Are usually more problematic in mares and should be removed
   2. May irritate the eruption site
   3. Are synonymous with wolf teeth
   4. None of the above

Answer 35

May irritate the eruption site

Question 36

1. Deciduous premolar caps:
   
   1. May cause discomfort
   2. Don’t occur in fillies and mares
   3. Are also known as wolf teeth
   4. None of the above

Answer 36

May cause discomfort

Question 37

1. In regards to cheek teeth, sharp dental points and overgrowths:
   
   1. May traumatize the cheeks or tongue
   2. Have been associated with bitting problems
   3. Require floating
   4. All of the above

Answer 37

All of the above

Question 38

1. Eruption cysts:
   
   1. Are not detectable on radiographs
   2. Are associated with eruption of permanent premolars
   3. Do not occur on the maxilla
   4. All of the above

Answer 38

Are associated with eruption of permanent premolars

Question 39

1. Wolf teeth may:
   
   1. Cause pain due to bit contact
   2. Not be present in all of the dental arcades
   3. Not erupt
   4. All of the above

Answer 39

All of the above

Question 40

1. In regards to a dental examination:
   
   1. Wetting hands and instruments can reduce irritation to the horses mouth
   2. Wearing examination gloves helps minimize contamination of the clinician’s skin
   3. A bright light source facilitates most procedures
   4. All of the above

Answer 40

All of the above

Question 41

1. Aggercan, a proteoglycan, provides:
   
   1. A scaffolding for bony remodeling
   2. Compressive stiffness to articular cartilage
   3. A and B
   4. None of the above

Answer 41

Compressive stiffness to articular cartilage

Question 42

1. Glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage:
   
   1. Serve as building blocks for proteoglycans such as aggrecan
   2. Include chondroitin sulfate
   3. Are typically sulfated
   4. All of the above

Answer 42

All of the above

Question 43

1. Glucosamine is commercially available as
   
   1. A sulfate form
   2. A hydrochloride form
   3. N-aceytl-D-glucosamine
   4. All of the above

Answer 43

All of the above

Question 44

1. A few research trials involving a glucosamine/chondrotinin sulfate combination product have:
   
   1. Shown a beneficial effect in treating horses with degenerative joint disease
   2. Shown that these products do not have a beneficial effect
   3. Demonstrated significant changes in clinical measurement (ie physical, hematologic and serum biochemical parameters)
   4. None of the above

Answer 44

Shown a beneficial effect in treating horses with degenerative joint disease

Question 45

1. Oral joint health supplements are popular in the equine industry due to
   
   1. The high incidence of osteoarthritis
   2. Widespread availability of the products
   3. Interest in complementary and alternative therapies
   4. All of the above

Answer 45

All of the above

Question 46

1. Typical adverse events associated with glucosamine administration in horse include:
   
   1. GI upset (Vomiting and diarrhea)
   2. Lameness
   3. Urticaria
   4. None of the above

Answer 46

None of the above

Question 47

1. Which statement regarding MSM is correct?
   
   1. It is a well-studied product, which explains why it is so widely used
   2. It is popular but doesn’t work
   3. It is popular but further research must be conducted to evaluate its efficacy
   4. It is not used in horses, only its metabolite, DMSO is safe

Answer 47

It is popular but further research must be conducted to evaluate its efficacy

Question 48

1. Glucosamine is integral to synthesis of
   
   1. Keratin sulfate
   2. Chondroitin sulfate
   3. A and B
   4. None of the above

Answer 48

A and B

Question 49

1. Which statement regarding studies of ASU extract use is correct?
   
   1. No studies have evaluated its use in horses
   2. Kawcak et all did not find any benefit to using it
   3. It appeared to improve signs of pain and have a disease modifying effect
   4. While it did not improve signs of pain, it appeared to have disease-modifying properties

Answer 49

While it did not improve signs of pain, it appeared to have disease-modifying properties

Question 50

1. The use of ASU in horses:
   
   1. Has not been reported
   2. Is associated with serious adverse effects, according to the only clinical trial reported to date
   3. Can effectively protect articular cartilage from trauma in performance horses
   4. May be beneficial in horses with OA, particularly if it is combined with clinical sign-modifying agents

Answer 50

May be beneficial in horses with OA, particularly if it is combined with clinical sign-modifying agents

Question 51

Definitive diagnosis of progressive ethmoid hematoma in horses is made by

a. endoscopic examination.
b. history and clinical examination.
c. CT.
d. histopathologic examination

Answer 51

histopathologic examination

Question 52

What is the prognosis for long-term resolution of progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. grave no matter what treatment is performed
b. good if treated with intralesional formalin
c. guarded to poor no matter what treatment is performed
d. good if treated with surgical excision and cryotherapy of the base

Answer 52

guarded to poor no matter what treatment is performed

Question 53

In what breed have there been no reports of progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. warmblood
b. Arabian
c. Tennessee walking horse
d. standardbred

Answer 53

standardbred

Question 54

What causes the color variations of the progressive ethmoid hematoma when viewed through a video endoscope?

a. age of the lesion
b. fibrosis of the mass
c. type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments
d. none of the above

Answer 54

type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments

Question 55

What is the most common clinical sign observed in horses with progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. coughing
b. epistaxis
c. head pressing
d. respiratory distress

Answer 55

epistaxis (mild, intermittent, unilateral epistaxis)

Question 56

Which survey radiographic view most consistently demonstrates the lesion associated with progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. dorsoventral
b. oblique
c. lateral
d. none of the above

Answer 56

lateral

Question 57

Diagnostic differentials after visualization of the mass lesion with the video endoscope should include all of the following except?

a. pulmonary neoplasia
b. nasal trauma
c. nasal neoplasia
d. mycotic rhinitis

Answer 57

nasal neoplasia

Question 58

What is the most substantial complication after surgical excision of a progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. facial deformity
b. respiratory distress
c. wound dehiscence
d. hemorrhage

Answer 58

respiratory distress

Question 59

Formalin (10%) treatment for progressive ethmoid hematoma in the horse is administered via which route?

a. intralesional injection
b. intravenous injection
c. intramuscular injection
d. a nasogastric tube placed in the stomach

Answer 59

intralesional injection

Question 60

To monitor for recurrence after treatment of a progressive ethmoid hematoma, repeat endoscopic examinations should be performed at ______ intervals for ______.

a. 2-week; 2 years
b. 1-month; 1 year
c. 3- to 6-month; 5 years
d. 1-year; 10 years

Answer 60

3- to 6-month; 5 years

Question 61

A solitary, 1-cm diameter mass is identified on the penile body of a 13-year-old appaloosa breeding stallion. The mass is cauliflower-life in appearance, has a narrow base, and does not appear to invade the penile tunic. The regional lymph nodes are not enlarged. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate in this case?

1. Wait and recheck the mass in 6 months, and then remove the mass if it has enlarged.
2. Perform an en bloc resection because the tumor has likely metastasized.
3. Perform a local excision or circumferential posthectomy (reefing)
4. Perform a phallectomy immediately.

Answer 61

Perform a local excision or circumferential posthectomy (reefing)

Question 62

1. Phallectomy
   
   1. should be performed when severe preputial lesions are present.
   2. is indicated for horses with severe lesions of the distal penis.
   3. involves the removal of a circumferential ring of preputial tissue.
   4. should not be performed on geldings.

Answer 62

is indicated for horses with severe lesions of the distal penis.

Question 63

1. Circumferential posthectomy (reefing)
   
   1. is performed only for severe, infiltrative lesions of the prepuce and penis.
   2. is associated with a poor prognosis when compared with other surgical techniques for external genital tumors.
   3. should be performed only as a salvage procedure in stallions.
   4. involves the removal of a circumferential ring of preputial tissue.

Answer 63

involves the removal of a circumferential ring of preputial tissue.

Question 64

1. En bloc resection and penile retroversion
   
   1. are warranted for the treatment of horses with extensive lesions of the penis and/or prepuce with metastasis.
   2. involve the resection of only the distal penis, including the glans.
   3. are associated with an excellent prognosis.
   4. should not be performed on geldings because of the change in urination behavior.

Answer 64

are warranted for the treatment of horses with extensive lesions of the penis and/or prepuce with metastasis.

Question 65

1. A 15-year-old American paint gelding is presented for severe preputial swelling with a foul odor. There are multiple SCC lesions on the penis and prepuce. The penis feels thickened, and the superficial inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Which of the following techniques is indicated?
   
   1. circumferential posthectomy and lymph node removal
   2. phallectomy
   3. laser ablation of penile and preputial lesions
   4. en bloc resection and penile retroversion with superficial inguinal lymph node removal

Answer 65

en bloc resection and penile retroversion with superficial inguinal lymph node removal

Question 66

1. Local excision of solitary tumors of the equine external genitalia
   
   1. is usually not possible because of rapid metastasis and invasion of lesions.
   2. Requires general anesthesia.
   3. Can be performed in the standing horse using local or epidural anesthesia
   4. Is associated with a high cure rate for the treatment of horses with coalesced melanomas (dermal melanomatosis)

Answer 66

Can be performed in the standing horse using local or epidural anesthesia

Question 67

1. SCC of the penis with involvement of the urethra
   
   1. is associated with a better prognosis for long-term survival than SCC that does not involve the urethra.
   2. is associated with a poorer prognosis for long-term survival than SCC that does not involve the urethra.
   3. necessitates immediate circumferential posthectomy.
   4. has no effect on the prognosis for long-term survival of the horse.

Answer 67

is associated with a poorer prognosis for long-term survival than SCC that does not involve the urethra.

Question 68

1. Laser vaporization of external urogenital tumors
   
   1. has been successful for the treatment of horses with precancerous lesions.
   2. is associated with a high risk of complications and should not be attempted.
   3. does not require adequate surgical margins because the heat from the laser destroys all tumor cells.
   4. is commonly performed using an Nd:YAG laser.

Answer 68

has been successful for the treatment of horses with precancerous lesions.

Question 69

1. Incomplete tumor excision
   
   1. is associated with a transient decrease in proliferation of residual tumor cells and metastases.
   2. is associated with a transient increase in proliferation of residual tumor cells and metastases.
   3. has no effect on the kinetics of remaining cells.
   4. is easily avoided when debulking tumors.

Answer 69

is associated with a transient increase in proliferation of residual tumor cells and metastases.

Question 70

1. Perioperative administration of anticancer drugs
   
   1. is not advised because of the high risk of wound dehiscence.
   2. is not effective in treating horses with tumors of the external genitalia.
   3. decreases the efficacy of the drugs because residual tumor cells are resistant to anticancer drugs.
   4. optimizes the efficacy of the anticancer drugs against residual tumor cells

Answer 70

is not advised because of the high risk of wound dehiscence.

Question 71

1. In horses, urinary calculi
   
   1. Are more common in males
   2. Are more common in females
   3. Are equally common in males and females
   4. Do not occur

Answer 71

Are more common in males

Question 72

1. 5-FU ointment is used in horses to treat
   
   1. Habronemiasis
   2. Fungal infections
   3. SCC
   4. None of the above

Answer 72

SCC

Question 73

1. Which of the following is most useful is diagnosing urolithiasis in horses?
   
   1. Ultrasonography
   2. Radiography
   3. Endoscopy
   4. Thermography

Answer 73

Endoscopy

Question 74

1. In male horses, the preferred surgical approach to the urethral lumen is
   
   1. Ventral midline
   2. Dorsal midline
   3. Lateral longitudinal
   4. Ventral transverse

Answer 74

Ventral midline

Question 75

1. In male horses, the preferred surgical approach for removal of proximal urethral calculi is
   
   1. Subischial urethrotomy
   2. Laparocystotomy
   3. Perineal urethrotomy
   4. None of the above

Answer 75

Perineal urethrotomy

Question 76

1. Which of the following structures is NOT normally incised during a perineal urethrotomy?
   
   1. CSP (corpus spongiosum penis)
   2. Skin and subcutis
   3. Bulbospongiosus muscle
   4. Corpus cavernosum penis

Answer 76

Corpus cavernosum penis

Question 77

1. The preferred surgical treatment of VVR (vesicovaginal reflux) in mares is
   
   1. Urethrotomy
   2. Urethrostomy
   3. Urethroplasty
   4. Vulvoplasty

Answer 77

Urethroplasty

Question 78

1. Which of the following is NOT a urethroplasty technique?
   
   1. Caslick
   2. Brown
   3. Shires
   4. McKinnon

Answer 78

Caslick

Question 79

1. Which of the following methods can be used to remove cystic calculi in mares?
   
   1. Laparocystotomy
   2. Manual removal through urethra
   3. Sphincterotomy
   4. All of the above

Answer 79

All of the above

Question 80

1. Which of the following is the preferred therapy for an excessively large cystic calculus in a mare?
   
   1. Laparocystotomy
   2. Manual removal through urethra
   3. Sphincterotomy
   4. None of the above

Answer 80

Laparocystotomy

Question 81

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

What is your diagnosis? Explain the cause of the

clinical findings.

Answer 81

Question 82

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentigerous cyst. What are the

synonyms for this condition?

Answer 82

Heterotopic polyodontia

Ear fistula

Ear tooth

Temporal cyst

Temporal teratoma

Question 83

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentigerous cyst. What is the

preferred treatment?

Answer 83

Complete excision and primary closure.

The fistulous tract should be followed carefully (B)

and removed with the cyst intact, without cutting through

the mucosal lining. This prevents secondary cellulitis by avoiding contamination with secretions from the cyst.

An intraoperative radiograph (C) obtained after removal

shows the large molar-like tooth (arrow) that was removed.

Question 84

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentigerous cyst. What complications are

associated with treating this condition and

how can they be avoided?

Answer 84

Complications include:

Facial nerve paralysis

Abnormal ear carriage

Hemorrhage

Calvarium fracture

Continuous drainage

*See image for avoiding these conditions*

Question 85

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentagerous cyst.

What is the prognosis for resolution of this problem?

Answer 85

With proper surgical technique,

prognosis for complete resolution is EXCELLENT