Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

T-38 > Avionics > Flashcards

Avionics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the differences between the UFCPs in the different cockpits?

A

Front UFCP has usable HUD brightness control and ON/OFF switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True/False. During normal operations either crew member can independently input data and control avionics functions and these will be reflected in both UFCPs.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True/False. The UFCP will continue to operate with the MDP failed or off.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does ~ mean?

A

You can toggle or cycle the selected item between options or settings by pressing the adjacent OSB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does * mean?

A

The function/setting is active or selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the down arrow mean?

A

There’s a menu page below the current level which you can select by pressing the adjacent OSB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the OSBs for?

A

Data entry and selection of functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the 0 key do?

A

De clutter the HUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the 2/8 do?

A

Increase or decrease several displays when not in data entry mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the 5 do?

A

Move the inc/dec arrows between displays with this functionality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does RTN do?

A

Returns UFCP operations from a function page to a basic page or higher level of menu when in sub menu. Returns last valid data to display during data entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does ENT do?

A

Accepts entry in a data field that does not have a fixed length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does G hot key do?

A

Turns off UHF Guard receiver for 1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the H hot key do?

A

Snap HDG bug to current heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does N hot key do?

A

Opens Nearest Airfields page on MFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does P hot key do?

A

Opens Flight Plan scratchpad on MFD to see terminal procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Q hot key do?

A

Toggles between QNE (29.92) and QNH altimeter settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the R hot key do?

A

Selects MFD repeater mode for that cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the T hot key do?

A

Allows quick access to the Target Designation page to update a DEST point’s coordinates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do the U and V hot keys do?

A

Toggle UHF and VHF squelch ON and OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the F hot key do?

A

Cycles through Flight Director modes in NAV mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do keys A-F do in A/G and A/A master modes?

A

Select different weapons programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long is IDENT activated for?

A

15 s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the TST switch do?

A

With MDP on it tests UFCP window displays and LED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the U BRT Rocker switch do?

A

Controls the UFCP window displays brightness, not keys or buttons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the ON/OFF power switch for the UFCP operate?

A

Both UFCPs, the HUD and HUD CTVS camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If the data flashes after being entered, what does that mean?

A

It was an invalid entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are 3 ways to replace an invalid data entry by the last valid data?

A

1) . Pressing adjacent OSB
2) . Pressing the RTN key
3) . Pressing any function key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the function displays for?

A

Selection and control of specific avionics and weapon system options or parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How can you select the basic display from a function display?

A

1) . RTN key
2) . Pressing current function key
3) . Automatically from MRK function displays in 20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How can you deselect a function display?

A

1) hit RTN key

2) press same function key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What data is displayed in the UFCP?

A

Data stored in the MDP from the most recent DTC load or default MDP values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True/False. The MDP is capable of retaining pre-entered data and settings during brief (less than 50 msec) power interruptions such as engine start

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Past 50 msec power interruptions through what interruptions will still yield an MDP warm startup (DTC load not yet lost/deleted)?

A

300 msec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Will the MDP operate through all generator crossovers?

A

Depends on generator crossover connection times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two types of HUD displays?

A

1) MIL-STD 1787C

2) F-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What 3 symbology are not within the instantaneous field of view (IFOV)?

A

Time-of-day, chronometer data and bullseye bearing and range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the normal IFOV?

A

17 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is the HUD inoperative when the MDP fails or OFF?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What 3 things is the HUD display symbology based on in NAV mode?

A

1) primary navigation source
2) flight director steering mode
3) landing gear lever position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the boresight cross?

A

Aircraft waterline representation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the flight path marker represent?

A

The actual velocity vector or flight path. An X means it’s not indicating actual velocity vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is DCO?

A

Drift cutout mode. It centers the FPM and takes out drift calculation

44
Q

What does the pitch ladder indicate?

A

The climb/dive angle when read against the FPM. It is the horizon line

45
Q

What is the ghost line?

A

It appears on the HUD whenever the horizon line is outside of the HUD field of view

46
Q

Climb and dive bars Display how many degrees of pitch?

A
  1. Dive bars slope at an angle 1/2 of the dive angle
47
Q

What do the zenith/nadar symbols do?

A

Provide 90 deg climb/dive angle reference

48
Q

What is the heading scale?

A

20 deg +/- 10 deg in 5 deg increments

49
Q

Where is the heading located?

A

Lower part of the HUD except when the landing gear handle is down or the HUD is in A/A or A/G modes

50
Q

What’s the scale for the bank indicator on the HUD?

A

10, 20, 30 and 45 deg. When past 45 deg it stays fixed to 45 deg bank

51
Q

What’s the side slip indicator?

A

A trapezoid symbol

52
Q

What is the range of the airspeed indicator on the HUD and what is its scale?

A

80 knots above and below current speed, with small ticks at 10 knots and larger ticks at 50 knots

53
Q

What is the airspeed setting displayed for NAV, landing gear extended, A/A mode and A/G mode?

A

1) . CAS default, can do TAS
2) . Only CAS
3) . Only CAS
4) . CAS default, can do TAS

54
Q

When does the airspeed box start displaying numbers?

A

At approximately 30 KCAS

55
Q

When is the minimum Mach displayed?

A

Starting at 28,000’ MSL and above

56
Q

What is the TOT/TTT CSI display?

A

Tic with TOT/TTT to the right (-TOT)

57
Q

What is the altitude HUD indicator scale?

A

800’ above and below current altitude in 100’ increments

58
Q

The box around the current altitude flashes continuously with QNE selected on the UFCP if what?

A

1) . RALT altitude is below 5000’
2) . Baro altitude is less than 5000’ if RALT invalid
3) . Baro altitude is less than 8000’ if RALT is OFF

59
Q

What is the ground target designation box?

A

A small diamond-shaped TD symbol which shows the Computed location of the selected ground steer point. If covered by an X it means it’s outside the HUD FOV

60
Q

When EGI is in PNS what is 1 dot CDI deflection? A 2 dot deflection is what? Full scale deflection is what?

A

1/2 current RNP, current RNP, and 120% RNP

61
Q

What are the bank steering turns based on?

A

2.5 mi turn radius and a max of 30 deg bank

62
Q

What is the max climb or descent angle directed by the FD?

A

5 degrees

63
Q

What is the radar altitude warning?

A

AL and a four digit altitude which will blink as a warning

64
Q

How are warnings, cautions and advisories displayed on the HUD?

A

Warnings are boxed and blinking. Cautions blink but are not boxed. Advisories are steady continuous displays.

65
Q

For how long does a FIRE warning show on the HUD?

A

15 seconds

66
Q

How does the HUD display change with the gear handle down?

A

1) . TD box disappears with other than 500-599 steer points selected
2) . 2.5 deg reference line in pitch ladder
3) . AOA staple
4) . Localizer raw data bar
5) . Glideslope raw data bar
6) . VVI indications up to 2000 fpm, 500 fpm increments
7) . CAS only

67
Q

What happens when you get an RA alert on the HUD?

A
  1. RA symbol blinks for 3 s and remains steady and it shows the vertical zone to avoid
68
Q

True/False. Changing the PNS affects the declutter state.

A

False.

69
Q

True/False. Selecting a different master mode (A/A or A/G) affects the declutter state.

A

True.

70
Q

How is CDI displayed on the HUD?

A

A max of 2 dots at any time, no dots when less than half dot deviation, for deviation greater than 2 dots the CDI arrow is fixed at 2.4 dot position.

71
Q

What still operates normally regardless of the MDP function?

A

The caution light panel, master caution, fire and gear warning systems

72
Q

What does BREAK X mean?

A

Aircrews must do a wings level 4 G pull up within 2 seconds to ensure aircraft recovery above 90’ AGL (“Pull up, pull up”). Must have RALT (or steer point elevation in A/A and A/G modes)

73
Q

When do you get a stall warning?

A

Landing gear down, AOA above 0.80 with tone. Also if gear retracted at or below 5000’, AOA is above 0.80 and gear up stall option selected in JMPS

74
Q

When do you get the gear warning?

A

Whenever airspeed is 210 KCAS or less, altitude is 10,000’ or less (the 1s are at or less), and both throttles are below 96%

75
Q

True/False. You’ll get a “CAUTION, CAUTION” VM with a fuel low light on the panel.

A

False. You’ll get a “FUEL LOW, FUEL LOW” VM

76
Q

When do you get a “GEAR, GEAR” VM?

A

MFD airspeed is greater than 240 KCAS

Or airspeed is between 220 and 240 KCAS with a 2 knot/s longitudinal GS acceleration

77
Q

When do you get the “FLAPS, FLAPS” VM?

A

When within 10 knots of over speeding. Gets flap position info from the ADC , not indicator

78
Q

Which warnings/cautions have VMs?

A

Bingo, over G, flaps, gear down, engine, caution, altitude, fire, break x

79
Q

When do you get a DESCEND caution on HUD?

A

When divert profile of emergency divert mode is active and descent range is rescued. It will go away after 10 s. There is NO tone.

80
Q

When do you get the ALT HOLD caution?

A

When emergency divert mode is on and the divert profile goes to the ALT HOLD condition. It is removed after 10 seconds.

81
Q

Are advisories displayed on both the HUD and MFD?

A

Yes.

82
Q

What does WAIT mean?

A

EGI is still doing alignment.

83
Q

What does ATT mean?

A

Shows on HUD for 60 s if the aircraft is moved on the ground before completing of the coarse alignment phase.

84
Q

What does DEGRADED mean?

A

EGI still working on getting FULL alignment. If says DEGRADED NO GPS means that GPS data is not available.

85
Q

What does FULL mean?

A

GC alignment accuracy is at least 0.8 NM/hour.

86
Q

What does NAV mean?

A

EGI is in NAV mode.

87
Q

What does LEVEL mean?

A

When EGI goes from OFF to ON in inflight alignment. The aircraft should be flown straight and level. It will show until the system can display a pitch ladder

88
Q

What is ATT?

A

An emergency EGI mode that provides attitude and heading data.

89
Q

What will remove alerts?

A

Alert cause is eliminated, proper action is taken to terminate the alert condition, and pressing the ACK button (except the landing gear aural warning tone which uses the warning silence button)

90
Q

What will happen with simulated chaff or flare release?

A

A modulated VHF radio audio tone when CMD is ON and the option is selected.

91
Q

When do you get an EED HOT message?

A

If EED unit temp exceeds 85 deg C for 40 s or more. Screen will blank after a minute.

92
Q

When do you get an EGT exceedance message?

A

When 655 to 665 temperature continuously for 60 seconds. Will get a MALF and “ENGINE, ENGINE” VM

93
Q

Does RPM generate a PFL/MALF?

A

It doesn’t. It generates an “ENGINE, ENGINE” VM

94
Q

Do nozzle and fuel flow indicators have red exceedance indications?

A

No.

95
Q

What does an EGI failure with GPS fail look like?

A

Blank EGI symbology such as pitch ladder, horizon line, FPM, heading and bank data, groundspeed, course, and steer point data. Do not cycle the EGI switch.

96
Q

What does an EGI failure look like with an INS failure?

A

Blank EGI symbology such as pitch ladder, horizon line, FPM, heading and bank data, groundspeed, course, and steer point data. Should go to GPS mode. Will lose EADI attitude data. GPS ground track, MFD hdg unreliable, MUST USE STABDVTA

97
Q

What does a total EGI failure look like?

A

MFD EHSI heading to 360 deg, no GS, HUD hdg scale and EGI range gone and CDI gone if EGI in PNS

98
Q

What may happen if pitot heat exceeds 30 s on the ground?

A

YSAS disengage, ADC PFL, indexer lights come on, TAS not available

99
Q

When do you get an EED HOT message?

A

If EED unit temp exceeds 85 deg C for 40 s or more. Screen will blank after a minute.

100
Q

When do you get an EGT exceedance message?

A

When 655 to 665 temperature continuously for 60 seconds. Will get a MALF and “ENGINE, ENGINE” VM

101
Q

Does RPM generate a PFL/MALF?

A

It doesn’t. It generates an “ENGINE, ENGINE” VM

102
Q

Do nozzle and fuel flow indicators have red exceedance indications?

A

No.

103
Q

What does an EGI failure with GPS fail look like?

A

Blank EGI symbology such as pitch ladder, horizon line, FPM, heading and bank data, groundspeed, course, and steer point data. Do not cycle the EGI switch.

104
Q

What does an EGI failure look like with an INS failure?

A

Blank EGI symbology such as pitch ladder, horizon line, FPM, heading and bank data, groundspeed, course, and steer point data. Should go to GPS mode. Will lose EADI attitude data. GPS ground track, MFD hdg unreliable, MUST USE STABDVTA

105
Q

What does a total EGI failure look like?

A

MFD EHSI heading to 360 deg, no GS, HUD hdg scale and EGI range gone and CDI gone if EGI in PNS

106
Q

What may happen if pitot heat exceeds 30 s on the ground?

A

YSAS disengage, ADC PFL, indexer lights come on, TAS not available

T-38 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions