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T-38 > 11-202V3 > Flashcards

11-202V3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the final authority for the operation of the aircraft?

A

The PIC

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2
Q

When do you need an alternate?

A

Is prevailing weather?=lowest compatible mins at ETA +/- 1 hr not including TEMPO? If yes:
WWWRUM
Worst weather at ETA +/-1 hr>=2000’ and 3 SM or >=1000’ and 2 SM if MAJCOM permits (including TEMPO)
Winds out of limits
Weather reporting capability is down
Radar required for compatible approaches
Unmonitored NAVAIDs for compatible approaches
Minimums/Mt >=1500’ or 3 SM for compatible approaches

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3
Q

What disqualifies an alternate?

A 
WWWRAGU
Worst weather at ETA +/-1 hr <=1000' and 2 SM (or 500' above and 1 SM greater (not to include TS, snow or rain showers)
Winds out of limits
Weather reporting capability down
Radar required for compatible approaches
ANA or Alternate Not Authorized
GPS required for compatible approaches
Unmonitored NAVAIDs for compatible approaches
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4
Q

When may a PIC deviate from the 11-202V3?

A

1) Protect life
2) Safety of flight
3) IFE requires immediate action

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5
Q

When deviating from a flight rule what must you do (or declare emergency)?

A

Verbally report incident to supervisor and commander within 24 hrs and make detailed written report to be kept on record minimum of 1 year

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6
Q

If notified of a possible violation MAJCOMs will preserve any evidence for how long?

A

A minimum of 180 days

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7
Q

What must be done about hazards to aviation safety?

A

Report to Flight Safety Officer as soon as possible

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8
Q

What must all USAF aircraft cockpits be capable of instrument wise?

A

Providing full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information and the capability to recognize, confirm, and recover from unusual attitudes in all pilot positions.

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9
Q

Crew rest is a minimum of how many non-duty hours before Flight Duty Period begins? How many hours of uninterrupted sleep?

A

12 hours; 8 hours

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10
Q

Can PICs initiate mission-related communication with official agencies without interrupting crew rest?

A

Yes. This is the only exception.

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11
Q

For continuous operations with FDPs between 12 and 14 hours crew rest may be reduced to a minimum of what by the PIC?

A

10 hours but shall only be used to keep the 24 hr scheduling

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12
Q

What is considered continuous operation?

A

Three or more consecutive FDPs of at least 12 hours duration with minimum crew rest period

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13
Q

When does FDP begin and end?

A

When reporting for a mission, briefing or other official duty and ends at final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission

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14
Q

When authorized by waiver authority of the MAJCOM the PIC may extend FDP by a maximum of what?

A

2 hours

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15
Q

What is deadhead time?

A

An official duty performed by an aircrew members flying as a passenger while on flight orders and may be flown without crew rest (no flight-related duties performed)

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16
Q

What is the max flying time?

A

56 hrs/7 consecutive days
125 hrs/30 consecutive days
330 hrs/90 consecutive days

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17
Q

You cannot drink alcohol within what time frame prior to takeoff? What about compressed gas diving? Hypobaric altitude chamber flight above 25,000’ MSL? What about after donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow?

A

12 hours
24 hours
12 hours
72 hours

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18
Q

What does the 11-202V3 say about spectacles?

A

Must use Air Force-provided and carry a spare set

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19
Q

What is controlled cockpit rest?

A

When there is a second qualified pilot with basic aircrew, only one crewmember at a time, non critical phases of flight during cruise, 45 minutes/period, and terminates 1 hr prior to descent

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20
Q

What does the 11-202V3 say about flashlights?

A

Each crewmember must have one for night operations.

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21
Q

What does the 11-202V3 say about personal electronic devices (PEDs)?

A

MAJCOMs may approve with transmitting mode ON or OFF or if no guidance, PICs may authorize above 10,000’ with transmitters OFF

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22
Q

What does sterile cockpit mean?

A

Aircrew shall minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and other extraneous activities which could interfere with flight duties when below 10,000’ MSL during critical phases of flight and all taxi ops

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23
Q

Where can you find PIREP procedures?

A

FIH

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24
Q

When should you declare minimum fuel or emergency fuel?

A

When the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves

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25
Q

Normal crew should use supplemental oxygen any time what?

A

Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000’ MSL

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26
Q

Aircrew who are trained may operate aircraft unpressurized up to what FL and if what restrictions are met?

A

250
Altitude is limited to 14,000’ MSL
Flight time between 10,000’ and 12,500’ MSL is unrestricted, but will not exceed 1 hr if flown IMC or at night, or while employing weapons, doing airdrop, high G, or refueling
Flight time between 12,500’ and 14,000’ MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes
If not trained limited to 13,000’ MSL for 3 hours max, not to exceed above

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27
Q

When must supplemental oxygen be used?

A

Between 14,000’ MSL and FL250

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28
Q

What are the procedures for loss of cabin altitude?

A

Descend below FL250, preferably below 18,000’ MSL if able (13,000’ MSL or less if oxygen equipment does not work)

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29
Q

What are time restrictions for cabin altitude DCS prevention?

A 
21,000' <=altitude<22,000' 200 min
22,000' <=altitude<23,000' 120 min
23,000' <=altitude<24,000' 70 min
24,000' <=altitude<25,000' 45 min
25,000' <=altitude 0 min
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30
Q

When must position lights be on?

A

Between official sunset and sunrise and when an engine is running or starting (or when being towed or parked in area which may create hazard)

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31
Q

When must anti collision or strobe light be on?

A

Just prior to engine start until engine shutdown

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32
Q

When must landing lights be on?

A

When takeoff clearance is received, when taking off at an airport without an operating control tower or when operating below 10,000’ MSL (or when on an active runway, including taxiing)

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33
Q

When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on) which aircraft has the right away?

A

The aircraft to the other’s right

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34
Q

What is right-of-way priority?

A

Balloons, gliders, aircraft towing or refueling, airships, rotary or fixed wing

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35
Q

If aircraft are approaching head-on what should they do?

A

Alter course to the right

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36
Q

Who has right of way in the case of overtaking aircraft?

A

The overtaken aircraft. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right.

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37
Q

Who has right of way in case of landing?

A

Aircraft on final approach and if multiple on final approach, then the aircraft at the lowest altitude

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38
Q

What separation should be maintained between aircraft?

A

500’

39
Q

What must you do if you lose some communication or navigation or surveillance equipment?

A

Report it to ATC

40
Q

What should you do if you get an RA?

A

Respond to it, regardless of ATC instructions, cloud clearance, right of way etc.

41
Q

When must the flight rely on approved equipment other than the GPS?

A

If RAIM is predicted to be unavailable for more than 5 minutes along the route of flight

42
Q

When may formations operate in RVSM?

A

When all participating aircraft are RVSM compliant or approved by ATC

43
Q

Receivers will not squawk when within what distance of the tanker?

A

3 NM

44
Q

When aircraft interval exceeds 3 NM for the formation what must happen?

A

Both the formation leader and last aircraft will squawk and operate in TA mode

45
Q

What does the call “radar contact” mean?

A

That the aircraft has been identified on radar.

46
Q

When will vision restricting devices not be used?

A

If there is no safety observer

47
Q

What is required for single-pilot aircraft to do simulated emergency flight procedures? Multi-pilot?

A

Day VMC; Day IMC with Wx conditions at or above published circling mins for the approach to be flown or at night Wx at or above 1000’ ceiling and 2 SM vis or circling mins whichever is higher

48
Q

When must you use a DD form 1801?

A

If any portion o f the flight requires RNAV

49
Q

When may we use P-coded civil airports?

A

In an emergency; wing/cc approves, alternate is required and no other suitable airport is available, or a US government tenant unit is listed for the airport of intended landing and airport facilities can support the aircraft

50
Q

From where will we get weather information?

A

1) Home or local installation OSS Weather FLight
2) Regional OWS
3) Other DoD military weather sources
4) Other published MAJCOM approved
5) Other US government
6) Foreign civil or military weather service

51
Q

What does the 11-202V3 say about RVR?

A

Use static RVR, it applies to all takeoffs, landing and straight-ins, if don’t have it, use prevailing visibility

52
Q

How should you obtain NOTAMs?

A

From DINS and then DAIP when it replaces DINS or by contacting a FLIP-listed installation or the nearest Aeronautical Info service

53
Q

USAF pilots should fly IFR:

A

To the max extent practical. If:

1) . Weather does not permit VFR
2) . IFR required for airspace
3) . Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within (NOT crossing) federal airways
4) . Night

54
Q

For a straight in or sidestep what must forecast weather meet?

A

Visibility mins

55
Q

For a circling approach what must forecast weather meet?

A

Ceiling and prevailing visibility

56
Q

If there is no compatible published approach at the destination what may pilots do when filing IFR?

A

Proceed to a point served by a published approach or to an IFR point where forecast weather at ETA +/-1 hour allows the pilot to continue VFR to the destination

57
Q

When may the alternate requirement be cancelled enroute?

A

If weather conditions improve at destination to exceed aforementioned conditions.

58
Q

For remote or island conditions how may alternate filing go

A

MAJCOM may authorize holding for a specified time in lieu of filing for an alternate

59
Q

What if you’re trying to select an alternate without a published or compatible instrument approach procedure?

A

Forecast weather for the ETA +/- 1 hr must permit VFR descent from a published IFR altitude to a VFR approach and landing

60
Q

If flying VFR what must USAF aircrew do?

A

Plan properly, use radar services and flight following, and if unable to complete mission VFR either:

1) . Alter route to stay VFR
2) . Obtain IFR clearance
3) . Land at a suitable location

61
Q

What changes can be made without refiling while in takeoff or airborne?

A

1) . Change cannot penetrate an ADIZ
2) . Controlling ATC agency approves the change
3) . Change complies with host-nation rules

62
Q

How do you close an IFR flight plan at a civil airport? Military airport?

A

Should be closed by tower; should be closed by base ops/tower

63
Q

How do you close a VFR flight plan at a civil airport? Military airport?

A

Must contact FSS or military base of operations or ATC facility. Base ops will close.

64
Q

An aircraft must have enough usable fuel to complete the flight:

A

To a final landing, either at the destination or alternate (if required) plus fuel reserves

65
Q

When an alternate is required what are the fuel requirements?

A

Fuel for an approach and missed approach at intended destination IF VISIBILITY ONLY weather criteria is used at the destination. If ceiling and visibility criteria used don’t need fuel for missed approach.

66
Q

What is the fuel reserve?

A

10% (up to a max of 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater.

67
Q

What fuel consumption rate should you use for fuel reserve calculations?

A

Best endurance at 10000’ MSL

68
Q

What is minimum takeoff weather?

A

Takeoffs are prohibited when existing weather is below landing mins. Takeoff vis must be 1600 RVR unless the runway has working runway centerline lights, visible centerline markings and 2 RVR reporting systems in which case it can go down to 600 RVR

69
Q

What forms of frost/where is frost permitted?

A

Thin coating on fuselage provided paint is visible

Light frost up to 1/8 in thigh on lower wing surface below fuel tank area of control surfaces and fuselage are ice free

70
Q

When can you make your first turn after takeoff?

A

At least 400’ above DER, at a safe airspeed, past runway end UNLESS:

1) . Specifically cleared by controlling agency
2) . Required by published procedure
3) . When executing closed pattern

71
Q

What is VFR climb performance?

A

Can vertically clear published IFR departure procedure restrictions along planned departure route with one engine inoperative

72
Q

Do climb gradients account for low close-in obstacles?

A

No.

73
Q

What are the six types of IFR departures?

A

1) SID
2) ODP
3) . Non standard
4) . Diverse
5) . ATC/radar vectors
6) . MAJCOM

74
Q

What if OEI you cannot meet the published climb gradient or 200’/NM?

A

MAJCOM may authorize subtraction of 48’/NM from the required obstacle climb gradient

75
Q

When do you use a diverse departure?

A

It’s an IFR departure procedure at an airport that has at least one published approach but lacks non standard takeoff mins and/or IFR departure procedures

76
Q

When will aircrews use reduced takeoff runway length (RTRL)?

A

Only if published as an ODP in FLIP

77
Q

How should aircrews fly VCOA (visual climb over airport)?

A

Weather must be at published mins and should be treated as a remain within radius distance. Do not fly at night

78
Q

A SID without a published climb gradient has been assessed at what:

A

200’/NM

79
Q

What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?

A

It is an area which may be established to allow radar vectors in lieu of an ODP. May be demoted by a Trouble T

80
Q

How do takeoffs with non standard mins work?

A

Must ensure the aircraft is at or above the published ceiling by the end of the runway then continue climbing at 200’/NM or published climb gradient to a minimum IFR altitude

81
Q

Who is the clearance authority for IFR or VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace?

A

The PIC

82
Q

Who is the clearance authority for VFR flight in controlled airspace?

A

The PIC

83
Q

Who is the clearance authority for IFR flight in controlled airspace?

A

ATC

84
Q

On IFR except when necessary for TO, ldg, or when being vectored do not fly lower than:

A

1) . On airways, no lower than any published min for the airway
2) . Off airways no lower than:
- OROCA or
- ORTCA or
- Altitude for 1000’ (2000’ in mountainous) obstacle clearance for all obstacles within 4 NM of course

85
Q

Fly VFR hemispheric altitudes when above what altitude? What is the only exception?

A

3000’ AGL; when turning or holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less

86
Q

Operate at or above what altitude over non congested areas? Congested areas? National recreation areas? Disaster areas?

A

500’ AGL
1000’ above highest obstacle within 2000’ radius
2000’ AGL
DON’T

87
Q

Do not exceed ____ at or below ______ within ____ of the primary airport in Class C or D airspace.

A

200 KIAS; 2500’ AGL; 4 NM

88
Q

Do not exceed what airspeed below 10,000’ MSL unless otherwise MAJCOM approved?

A

250 KIAS

89
Q

Do not operate within what radius of volcanic activity?

A

50 NM

90
Q

How does BWC moderate affect your mission?

A

Avoid hard banks or excessive climb angles and make one to a full stop unless mission dictates otherwise

91
Q

What is considered extreme barometric pressure?

A

Lower than 28 or higher than 31 in Hg

92
Q

What does “alternate means” mean for RNAV?

A

Using suitable RNAV system in lieu of operable conventional NAVAIDs or installed and operable avionics

93
Q

What does “substitute means” mean for RNAV?

A

Using a suitable RNAV system in lieu of out-of-service conventional NAVAIDS or non operable/non installed avionics

94
Q

What uses are prohibited for RNAV?

A

1) . Substitution for final approach segment
2) . Nav on LOC-based courses without monitoring the raw LOC data
3) . Nav with DME/DME/IRU systems without GNSS/WAAS input
4) . Use of a procedure identified as “NA”

T-38 (19 decks)

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