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Psych - A2 & AS > Forensic Psychology > Flashcards

Forensic Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Define forensic psychology.

A

The application of psychological principles to different stages of the criminal justice system

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2
Q

Define crime

A

Any act(or lack of act) that violates the law and is punishable. It’s harmful to the individual, group or society.

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3
Q

Give two examples of acts that are criminal in the UK but not other countries

A
  1. Polygamy

2. Forced marriage

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4
Q

Give two examples of crimes that have changed over time.

A
  1. Homosexuality

2. Physical discipline on children by parents and/or teachers

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5
Q

Define official statistics.

A

Government records of the total number of crimes reported to police and recorded in official figures

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6
Q

State an advantage of official statistics.

A

Allow government to develop crime prevention strategies and policing initiatives - direct resources where needed most

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7
Q

State a disadvantage of official statistics

A

Many crimes are unrecorded - 75% of crimes not recorded, ‘dark figure’ of crime

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8
Q

What are victim surveys?

A

A survey of victims’ experience of crime over a period of time - 50,000 households are randomly selected for Office for National Statistics to produce crime figures

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9
Q

State a disadvantage of victim surveys.

A

Rely on respondents having accurate memory. Telescoping can occur - remember events more recently than they occurred

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10
Q

State an advantage of victim surveys.

A

More likely to include details of crimes that weren’t reported to the police (‘dark figure’) - in 2006/7 official stats showed 2% decrease in crime, but crime survey showed 3% increase

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11
Q

What are offender surveys?

A

The Offender Crime and Justice Survey - given to voluntary criminals. Measures self-reported repeated offending, trends in offending, drug and alcohol use, role of co-offenders and perpetrator-victim relationship

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12
Q

State an advantage of offender surveys.

A

Provide insight into how many people are responsible for committing certain crimes (many offenders or repeat offender)

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13
Q

State a disadvantage of offender surveys.

A

Targets a certain class of criminals (burglars, murderers etc) - misses out middle-class crimes, such as embezzlement

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14
Q

What is the aim of offender profiling?

A

Narrow down the field of enquiry and the list of suspects

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15
Q

What does the top-down approach originate from?

A

Orignated in US from FBI Behavioural Sciences Unit.

In-depth interviews with 36 sexually motivated serial killers (e.g. Ted Bundy and Charles Manson)

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16
Q

How is the top-down approach used?

A

Profilers match what is known about the crime and the offender to either ‘organised’ or ‘disorganised’ categories

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17
Q

Define modus operandi

A

The signature way offenders do their crimes

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of an organised offender?

A
  1. Planned the crime beforehand - carries weapon
  2. Victim purposefully targeted (certain type)
  3. Socially and sexually competent
  4. Above average intelligence - skilled profession
  5. Often married with children - live away from crime scene
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19
Q

What are the characteristics of an organised crime scene?

A
  1. Little evidence

2. High control of offender

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20
Q

What are the characteristics of an unorganised offender?

A
  1. Spontaneous crime - uses opportunity weapon
  2. Lower than average intelligence - unskilled/unemployed
  3. History of sexual dysfunction/failed relationships
  4. Live alone - often close to crime scene
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21
Q

What are the characteristics of an unorganised crime scene?

A
  1. Body left at crime scene

2. Little control of offender (impulsive)

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22
Q

State and describe the main stages of constructing an FBI profile.

A
  1. Data Assimilation - profiler reviews evidence
  2. Crime Scene Classification - profiler classes the crime scene as organised or disorganised
  3. Crime Reconstruction - profiler generates hypothesis of sequence of events in crime
  4. Profile Generation - profiler generates hypothesis of offender characteristics
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23
Q

State and describe the serial killer types suggested by Holmes (1989). (Disadvantage)

A
  1. Hedonistic - kill for thrill and pleasure
  2. Visionary - often have psychosis, kill due to belief of greater power
  3. Power - kill for feeling of power
  4. Mission - kill certain group of people
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24
Q

State an issue with the interviews with the 36 serial killers. (Disadvantage)

A

Too small a sample - too unrepresentative to be used as a basis for investigations

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25
Q

State a disadvantage of the top-down approach

A
  1. Only applies to certain crimes (rape, cult killings, murders) and not common offences like burglary - crime scenes of such crimes reveal less about type of offender
  2. Canter (2004) argued you can’t rely on self-report data
  3. Canter et al (2004) analysed 100 murders in USA for organised/disorganised characteristics. Findings didnt suggest evidence for a disorganised type - undermines system
  4. Classification is based on assumption that offenders have a pattern that remains consistent across situations and contexts - criticised as being based on out-dated models of personality
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26
Q

How is the bottom-up approach used?

A

Profile is data-driven - grows as more details gained. More grounded in psychological theory than top-down approach

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27
Q

What are the two main elements of the bottom-up approach?

A

Investigative Psychology

Geographical Profiling

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28
Q

What is the aim of investigative psychology?

A

Establish behavioural patterns likely to occur at certain crime scenes - creates a database for comparison to reveal statistically probable details of the offender. Key assumptions include interpersonal coherence and the time and place of the crime.

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29
Q

Define interpersonal coherence.

A

The way in which an offender behaves at the crime scene - may reflect everyday behaviour. Tells the police how the offender relates to people (women) generally

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30
Q

Define forensic awareness.

A

Refers to individuals who attempt to cover their tracks - may have been arrested before (already have DNA on file)

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31
Q

What is geographical profiling (crime mapping)?

A

Using the location of linked crime scenes to make inferences of the house of the offender. Offender usually operates in familiar area - live in the middle of their surrounding crimes. Earlier crimes closer to their house (familiarity).

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32
Q

State and describe the two models of offender behaviour proposed by Canter and Larkin (1993).

A

The Marauder - operates close to home

The Commuter - operates a distance from their home

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33
Q

How does the spatial pattern help in an investigation?

A

Can tell whether the crime was planned or opportunistic, and gives facts about offender (age, transport, employment)

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34
Q

State three advantages of the bottom-up approach.

A
  1. Can be applied to wide variety of offences
  2. More scientific than top-down approach - grounded in psychological theory
  3. Canter and Heritage (1990) conducted content analysis of 66 sexual assault cases. Common characteristics were identified - use of impersonal language to victim, lack or reaction to victim. Re-occurring characteristics help to distinguish if same or different offenders
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35
Q

State three disadvantages of the bottom-up approach.

A
  1. Failures in use - woman was stabbed and sexually assaulted, offender wasn’t convicted initially due to not meeting the prospected profile (taller than expected)
  2. Copson (1995) surveyed 48 police forces - found advice from profilers useful in 83% but only lead to accurate identification in 3% of cases
  3. Kocsis et al (2002) found chemistry students produced more accurate profile than experienced senior detectives
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36
Q

Who developed the historical approach to offending?

A

Lombroso (1876), Italian Physician

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37
Q

What are atavistic characteristics?

A

Physical characteristics linked to particular types of criminals - Lombroso described them as a primitive sub-species

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38
Q

State some cranial and physical atavistic characteristics

A
  1. Narrow, sloping brow
  2. Prominent jaw
  3. High cheekbones
  4. Facial asymmetry
  5. Dark skin
  6. Extra fingers/toes/nipples
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39
Q

State the atavistic features of murderers.

A

Bloodshot eyes, curly hair, long ears

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40
Q

State the atavistic features of sexual deviants.

A

Glinting eyes, Swollen/fleshy lips, projecting ears

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41
Q

What are the characteristics of ‘born criminals’?

A

Insensitivity to pain, Use of criminal slang, Tattoos, Unemployment

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42
Q

Describe Lombroso’s study of atavistic characteristics.

A

Examined skulls of 383 dead criminals and 3839 living criminals - 40% criminal acts accounted for due to atavistic form. Proposed physical anomalies as indicators of criminality.

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43
Q

State an advantage of Lombroso’s approach.

A

He’s the father of modern criminology, and credited for shifting crime research to a scientific discussion (criminals were seen as weak-minded before). He started criminal profiling

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44
Q

What are the methodological issues with Lombroso’s study?

A
  1. Didn’t compare to non-criminal control group

2. Many of the criminals had a history of psychological disorders (confounding variable)

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45
Q

How is eugenics related to Lombroso’s approach?

A

Eugenics refers to the belief of preventing a certain group of people from reproducing due to believed inferiority within that group. Lombroso’s theory states that criminals (those with atavistic features) are of a sub-species - racist, discriminatory theory

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46
Q

State three further disadvantages of Lombroso’s approach.

A
  1. Atavistic characteristics can be influenced by other factors - poor diet, poverty.
  2. Goring (1913) compared 3000 criminals to 3000 non-criminals - no evidence that offenders had particular facial or cranial features, but did all have below average intelligence
  3. Racist undertones
47
Q

Describe the twin study that founded the genetic explanation for criminality.

A

Lange (1930) investigated 13 MZ (identical) twins and 17 DZ (non-identical) twins - at least one twin had been in prison before. 10/13 MZ twins had both been to prison, 2/17 DZ twins had both been to prison - concluded genetic basis of crime.

48
Q

Define polygenic

A

Multiple genes code for a certain characteristic

49
Q

Define candidate genes

A

The genes responsible for causing the (criminal) behaviour

50
Q

Which two genes are associated with criminal behaviour?

A

MAOA

CDH13

51
Q

How is the MAOA gene related to crime?

A

It controls the production of the enzyme, MAOA, which controls the dopamine and serotonin levels in the brain - linked to aggressive behaviour

52
Q

How is the CDH13 gene related to crime?

A

Linked to substance abuse and ADHD.

53
Q

Describe the genetic analysis to determine the impact of the CDH13 and MAOA genes

A

Tilhonen et al (2014) did genetic analysis of 900+ offenders - revealed abnormalities on these genes. In Finnish sample, those with this combination of genes were 13x more likely to have violent behaviour than control group

54
Q

State a disadvantage of the genetic analysis.

A

The research is outdated - hasnt been replicated

55
Q

What is the diathesis-stress model?

A

States that the impact of genetics is also influenced by the environment

56
Q

Define anti-social personality disorder.

A

Mental condition where the person lacks emotional responses and empathy

57
Q

What do brain-imaging studies show about anti-social personality disorder?

A

Several brain-imaging studies found reduced activity in pre-frontal cortex (regulates emotion) - 11% less grey matter in this area than control group

58
Q

Describe research into criminals with anti-social personality disorder and empathy.

A

Keysers et al (2011) found criminals able to show empathy once told to do so - have a neural switch that needs turning on

59
Q

What are mirror neurons?

A

Neurons that fire equally when we perform an action and when we witness someone else perform the same action - mirror the behaviour of another

60
Q

State methodological issues with the twin studies for the genetic explanation.

A
  1. Poor control
  2. Judged based on appearance rather than DNA testing
  3. Live in similar environments (confounding variable) - concordance could be due to this instead of genetics - lacks validity
  4. Very small, unusual sample - unrepresentative
61
Q

Describe the adoption study conducted for criminal behaviour.

A

Mednick et al (1984) compared criminality (at least one conviction) of adopted children to biological and adopted parents.
Neither parent w/ criminal record - 13.5% chance for child w/ criminal record
One biological parent w/ criminal record - 20% chance
Both biological and adopted parent w/ criminal record - 24.5%

62
Q

State three disadvantages of the adoption study.

A
  1. Doesn’t differentiate between extremities of crimes - could be speeding or murder
  2. Doesn’t consider impact of time spent with biological family - many children adopted late
  3. Carried out in Finland - cultural bias
63
Q

State two disadvantages appropriate for both the genetic and neural explanations.

A
  1. Reductionist - reducing to imbalance of neurotransmitter or gene is overly simplistic. Twin studies never show 100% concordance so genetics isn’t the only explanation
  2. Biological determinism - if someone has ‘criminal gene’ or neuronal imbalance they can’t be held responsible for it, so it’d be unethical to punish them for it
64
Q

What did Eysenck propose in his General Personality Theory (1947)?

A

Behaviour can be represented along two dimensions: Introversion/Extraversion and Neuroticism/Stability
Psychoticism later added as third dimension

65
Q

What did Eysenck theorise about the criminal personality?

A

It has a biological basis, as all personality traits do.

It’s developmentally immature - are selfish and concerned with immediate gratification.

66
Q

What personality type do criminals have? How is this associated to their nervous system?

A

Neurotic-extravert (Choleric).
Score highly on psychoticism also.
Eysenck believed they had nervous systems that made them difficult to condition - more likely to act anti-socially

67
Q

What is the Eysenck Personality Inventory?

A

A psychological test developed by Eysenck to determine personality type based on two dimensions of behaviour

68
Q

State an advantage of Eysenck’s theory.

A

Eysenck and Eysenck (1977) compared 2070 male prisoners’ scores on the EPI with 2422 controls - prisoners scored higher on psychoticism, extraversion and neuroticism

69
Q

State three disadvantages of Eysenck’s theory.

A
  1. Farrington et al (1982) reviewed several studies - found prisoners generally scored higher on psychoticism, but not extraversion and neuroticism
  2. It’s based on the idea that personality is stable - on a daily basis personality changes depending on the people around and the situation
  3. Digman’s Five Factor Model suggests openness, conscientiousness and agreeableness are important dimensions alongside neuroticism and extraversion - can’t be a single personality type responsible for criminal behaviour
70
Q

Define moral reasoning.

A

The process by which an individual draws upon their own values to decide if an action is wrong or right

71
Q

What is the stage theory of moral development? (Kohlberg -1973)

A

A series of stages that relate to the moral reasoning of individuals. The higher the stage reached, the more sophisticated the moral reasoning.

72
Q

What are the three moral development levels? How are they characterised?

A
  1. Pre-conventional - aim to avoid punishment and to gain rewards - selfish
  2. Conventional - recognise law and order
  3. Post-conventional - sympathise with rights of others, develop internal moral principles
73
Q

Which level are offenders at?

A

Pre-conventional

74
Q

Why do offenders have a less sophisticated moral reasoning?

A

More ego-centric than non-offenders. Have poorer social perspective-taking skills

75
Q

Define cognitive distortions.

A

Faulty, biased and irrational ways of thinking that make people perceive themselves, other people and the world inaccurately and often negatively

76
Q

Define hostile attribution bias.

A

The tendency to incorrectly judge ambiguous situations or actions of others as threatening

77
Q

Describe a study into hostile attribution bias

A

Schonenberg and Justye (2014) showed 55 violent offenders emotionally ambiguous faces - more likely to perceive images as hostile

78
Q

What is the relationship between childhood and hostile attribution bias?

A

Roots may lie in childhood. Dodge and Frame (1982) showed children a video of ambiguous behaviour - children classed as aggressive more likely to say person was hostile

79
Q

Define minimalisation

A

When a person downplays the significance of an event or emotion

80
Q

Describe a study into minimalisation in offenders.

A

Barbaree (1991) found in sample of 26 rapists, 54% believed they hadn’t committed an offence and 40% minimised the harm done

81
Q

State an advantage of moral reasoning.

A

Palmer and Hollin (1998) compared moral reasoning of 210 female and 122 male non-offenders to 126 offenders using Socio-Moral Reflection Measure-Short Form (11 moral-dilemma related questions). Offenders showed less mature moral reasoning

82
Q

State three disadvantages of moral reasoning.

A
  1. Cause and effect isn’t clear
  2. May depend on type of offence - those who committed money-related crimes (burglary) more likely to be at pre-conventional level than those of impulsive crimes (assault)
  3. Gibbs (1979) argued that the theory is culturally biased to the West - doesn’t represent natural maturation stages of cognitive development
83
Q

State an advantage of cognitive distortions.

A

Beneficial research for treatment of criminal behaviour. Main approach at the moment is CBT - encourages offenders to deal with their actions. Reduction of cognitive distortions highly correlated to reduction of offending

84
Q

State two disadvantages of cognitive distortions.

A
  1. Can’t be observed or measured - not scientific

2. Theory is good at describing thought process of offenders, but not to explain why they committed the crime

85
Q

Describe the differential association theory (psychological explanation)

A

People learn behaviour through interactions with others - attitudes, techniques and values. Sutherland (1924) argued if the number of pro-criminal attitudes one is exposed to outweighs the anti-criminal attitudes, they’ll become an offender. Can occur through imitation, vicarious reinforcement, direct reinforcement or direct tuition. Can predict how likely they are to commit a crime based on frequency, intensity and duration of exposure - explains spread of criminality and recidivism

86
Q

State four advantages of the differential association theory

A
  1. Accounts for certain types of crimes more prevalent in certain groups of society - burglary in working class, embezzlement in middle-class
  2. Moves away from the biological explanation (individual weaknesses/abnormality) and focuses on influence of dysfunctional socialisation and the environment
  3. More desirable and realistic solution to offending behaviour than the biological (eugenics) or morality solution (punishment) - change socialisations
  4. Farrington et al (2006) did study with 411 working-class males (longitudinal). 41% convicted of at least 1 crime (officials convictions and self-report) - family criminality most important factor
87
Q

State two disadvantages of the differential association theory

A
  1. Difficult to test scientifically - can’t test individual exposure to pro-criminal attitudes. At what point do pro-criminal attitudes outweigh anti-criminal attitudes
  2. Not everyone exposed goes on to commit a crime - ignores free will. Could stereotype certain groups as unavoidably criminal
88
Q

Describe the theory of an inadequate superego (Psychodynamic explanation)

A

Blackburn (1993) argued that a deviant/inadequate superego leads to criminal behaviour - id isn’t controlled

89
Q

State and describe the three types of inadequate superegos

A
  1. Weak superego - same-sex parent is absent during phallic stage, can’t internalise superego
  2. Deviant superego - internalise immoral/deviant values
  3. Over-Harsh superego - excessively punitive superego - crippled with guilt. May unconsciously carry out criminal activity to satisfy need for punishment
90
Q

Evaluate the inadequate superego (Psychodynamic explanation)

A
  1. If women have weaker superego, should be more criminal - statistics don’t reflect this. Hoffman (1975) tested children resistance to temptation - no gender difference, but girls more moral
  2. Lack of evidence showing children raised without same-sex parent as less moral/law-abiding
  3. Ignores other factors - genetics, learning
  4. Un-falsifiable
91
Q

Describe the maternal deprivation theory (Psychodynamic explanation)

A

Bowlby argued ability to form adult relationships depends on warm and continuous relationship with mother - unique and most superior bond. Leads to affectionless psychopathy if deprived

92
Q

Outline Bowlby’s study on the 44 thieves (Psychodynamic Explanation)

A

Compared 44 juvenile thieves to 44 controls - conducted interviews with parents, tested emotional response to IQ tests. 14/44 diagnosed as affectionless psychopaths, 12/14 experienced frequent separation from mothers (only 2/44 in control). Only 5/30 not psychopaths had frequent separation

93
Q

Evaluate the maternal deprivation theory (Psychodynamic explanation)

A

Advantages:
1. Practical application - highlights importance of positive attachment experiences early on - could reduce the establishment of criminality

Disadvantages:

  1. Failure to distinguish between privation and deprivation - criticised that privation is more damaging, many of the affectionless psychopaths had experienced privation instead of deprivation
  2. Rutter argues that these problems are not due solely to the lack of attachment to a mother figure, but to factors such as the lack of intellectual stimulation and social experiences which attachments normally provide
94
Q

What is custodial sentencing?

A

Individual spends time in closed institution - prison, juvenile detention etc

95
Q

What are the aims of custodial sentencing?

A
  1. Deterrence - to deter possible offenders, based on behaviourist approach of conditioning. Types: General
    deterrence and Individual deterrence
  2. Incapacitation - taken out of society to protect public. Depends of severity of crime and nature of offender
  3. Retribution - enact revenge for crime - level of suffering proportionate to severity of crime
  4. Rehabilitation - provide opportunities for prisoners to develop skills, get training or treatment programmes
96
Q

What are the psychological effects of custodial sentencing?

A
  1. Stress/Depression - suicide rates higher in prison, stress increases risk of psychological disturbance
  2. Institutionalisation - become accustomed to prison life, can’t function outside. Especially if they have long sentences
  3. Prisonisation - socialised to ‘inmate code’, may encourage unacceptable behaviours
97
Q

What is recidivism?

A

Reoffending. The aim of custodial sentencing is punish and rehabilitate so they don’t reoffend. As of 2013, found 57% prisoners reoffend within a year. Rates depend on whether the main focus is retribution or rehabilitation - Norway had less than half the rates of the UK

98
Q

State two advantages of custodial sentencing

A
  1. Works well as protection to keep potentially dangerous people away from the rest of society
  2. Prisoners have access to education and training - increases chance of employment. Treatment programmes allow for behaviour modification
99
Q

State three disadvantages of custodial sentencing

A
  1. Prisons can be brutal, demeaning and generally devastating - suicide rates 15x higher than general population. 25% women and 15% men with symptoms of psychosis
  2. Young offenders could learn from experienced offenders
  3. Review of custodial sentencing found government exaggerates benefits of prison - does little to deter or rehabilitate
100
Q

Evaluate ways to manage recidivism

A
  1. More research needs to be done into the negative effects of custodial sentencing. Attempts need to be taken to reform prisoners, instead of condemning to a harder life outside prison - difficult getting a job
  2. Alternatives to imprisonment, such as probation or restorative justice. Would have a positive economical implication in long run
101
Q

What is the aim of behavioural modification as a method to dealing with offending behaviour?

A

Reinforce desirable behaviour and punish undesirable behaviour - operant conditioning. Uses token economy -

102
Q

Describe the use of token economy for behavioural modification

A

Tokens act as secondary reinforcers - value from association to a reward. Desirable behaviour broken down into increments - all participating wardens follow the same selective reinforcement (reward for specific behaviour of specific prisoner). Effectiveness monitored by prison official. Non-compliance/disobedience results in negative punishment

103
Q

State two advantages of behavioural modification

A
  1. Easy to administer
  2. Field et al (2004) found effectiveness with young offenders. When on a scheme where rewards were immediate and frequent, response was positive. Rewards should suit each individual
104
Q

State three disadvantages of behavioural modification

A
  1. Can be unethical if obligatory. Refusal to comply could lead to withdrawal of privileges - psychologically and physically harmful
  2. Any behavioural changes are quickly lost outside - don’t retrieve rewards for basic behaviour. Consequences of poor behaviour greater than token loss
  3. Only deals with surface behaviour - other treatments get prisoners to reflect on causes of offending and take responsibility
105
Q

What is the aim of anger management as a method of dealing with offending behaviour?

A

Teach recognition of the loss of control, and encourage development of techniques for conflict resolution. Views cognitive factors as triggering emotional arousal to aggression.

106
Q

State and describe the stages to anger management

A
  1. Cognitive Preparation - offender learns to identify triggers - reflect on the rationality of their previous anger responses, and therapist helps redefine situation as non-threatening
  2. Skill Acquisition - offender introduced to techniques to handle anger-provoking situations rationally. Cognitive (positive self-talk), Behavioural (assertiveness training - effective communication), Physiological (meditation)
  3. Application Practice - offender practises in safe environment (role play), positive reinforcement from psychologist
107
Q

State two advantages of anger management

A
  1. Attempt to get to the root cause - acknowledges thought processing
  2. Multidisciplinary approach - recognises cognitive, behavioural and social elements, acknowledges complexity
108
Q

State three disadvantages of anger management

A
  1. Success is based on the commitment of the participants
  2. Not all offences are motivated by anger - Harold Shipman murdered 215+ patients
  3. Blackburn (1993) found little research support that it reduces recidivism in long-term - role plays too artificial, don’t allow full opportunity for offenders to learn techniques sufficiently
109
Q

What is restorative justice? What are the aims?

A

Process of managed collaboration between the offender and the victim based on the principles of healing and empowerment. Trained mediator oversees meeting - victim can explain how the crime affected them. The offender is confronted with the consequences of their actions, including the emotional distress they have caused the victim. Switches emphasis from needs of state to needs of victim

110
Q

What are the key features of restorative justice?

A
  1. Offender - acceptance of responsibility and positive change
  2. Setting - meet face-to-face not in a courtroom
  3. Active involvement from both
  4. Positive outcomes for both
111
Q

In what situation would restorative justice would be used as an alternative to custodial sentencing?

A
  1. If the offender is young
  2. Addition to community service
  3. Incentive to reduce custodial sentences
112
Q

State two advantages of restorative justice

A
  1. Flexible administration - can be tailored to needs of situation, and applied to different situations e.g. schools
  2. Project found every £1 spent on restorative justice saved £8 by reducing recidivism (but specialists are needed - expensive)
113
Q

State three disadvantages of restorative justice

A
  1. Success relies on offender feeling remorse - high dropout rate as prisoners agree to reduce sentence rather than willingness to change, not committed.
  2. Unpopular with the public - seen as soft
  3. Women’s Aid criticised the use in domestic abuse cases - gives offender opportunity to convince victim to return

Psych - A2 & AS (11 decks)

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