PSCI 130 Final Multiple Choice

Question 1

In the 1800s, Alexis de Tocqueville visited the United States to conduct research on its ___ and he used his findings to help explain the success of democracy in the United States.

Answer 1

Prison system

Question 2

A political culture exists where___

Answer 2

There is a patterned and sustained way of thinking about political and economic life

Question 3

According to cross-national surveys, the French and British are far more likely than Americans to believe in the importance of ___ equality for all citizens.

Answer 3

Economic

Question 4

Of the five important elements associated with the American view of the political system, the text suggests Americans are “preoccupied” with ___

Answer 4

Liberty

Question 5

All of the following are basic elements of U.S. political culture EXCEPT

a. economic equality
b. democracy
c. individual responsibility
d. civic duty

Answer 5

economic equality

Question 6

____is the element found in the American view of the political system that says Americans generally feel people ought to help others out when they can.

a. Civic duty
b. Liberty
c. Equality
d. Democracy

Answer 6

Civic duty

Question 7

The widely-shared commitment to economic individualism in the U.S. may help explain how the American public thinks about particular public policies, especially when analyzing ___

a. care for the elderly
b. care for the disabled
c. those on welfare
d. the needs of children

Answer 7

Those on welfare

Question 8

Compared to other nations, Americans are most likely to believe in the value of ___

a. accepting external forces as they come
b. hard work
c. social harmony
d. economic equality

Answer 8

Hard work

Question 9

A classic study of political culture in five nations found that citizens of ___ had a stronger sense of civic duty than the others.

a. Italy
b. Germany
c. Mexico
d. US

Answer 9

d. the US

Question 10

___ is a belief that one has an obligation to participate in civic and political affairs

Answer 10

Civic duty

Question 11

Compared to the average European, the average American is more likely to ___

a. question the existence of G-d
b. separate religion and politics
c. acknowledge clear standards of right and wrong
d. condemn students wearing religious symbols at public schools

Answer 11

c. acknowledge clear standards of right and wrong

Question 12

The text suggests that although there has been no official religion established in the United States, the culture has been influenced considerably by Protestantism, especially in its ___ form.

a. Puritan
b. Episocolotan
c. Baptism
d. Methodist

Answer 12

Puritan

Question 13

Which of the following characterizes Max Weber’s Protestant ethic?

a. forgiveness
b. questioning the law
c. observing traditional ceremonies
d. hard work

Answer 13

d. hard work

Question 14

In the United States, most people, regardless of their job, think of themselves as ___

a. wealthy
b. elitist
c. middle class
d. poor

Answer 14

c. middle class

Question 15

One definition of class consciousness is ___

a. thinking of oneself who has interests in opposition to management
b. thinking of oneself who is a team player with interests that coincide with those around them
c. believing most relationships, at home and at work, are egalitarian
d. believing a variety of interests have legit claim when it comes to decision making

Answer 15

a. thinking of oneself who has interests in opposition to management

Question 16

The text suggests public confidence in government has been in steady decline by and large since the ___

a. end of the 1930s
b. early 1940s
c. mid 60’s
d. late 70s

Answer 16

c. mid 60’s

Question 17

Scholar Robert Putnam argues that the more ___ a community has, the greater the level of trust among its members, and the easier it is to achieve common goals outside of government.

Answer 17

social capital

Question 18

The primary goal of the American Revolution was

Answer 18

Liberty

Question 19

Under the Articles of Confederation, amendments had to ___

a. be supported by all 13 states
b. be written by at least 3 different states
c. be submitted to the national judiciary for approval
d. have the approval of half the state governors

Answer 19

a. be supported by all 13 states

Question 20

Each of the following statements regarding government under the Articles of Confederation is correct EXCEPT ___

a. there was no national judiciary system
b. disputes between states on state petition could be settled by congress
c. the national government could levy taxes
d. national government could not regulate commerce

Answer 20

c. the national government could levy taxes

Question 21

Shays’s Rebellion occurred as a result of the ___ government being too weak.
(which state)

Answer 21

Massachussets

Question 22

Locke suggested that the chief limitation on government should derive from the fact that it ___

a. is created by the consent of the governed
b. has checks and balances
c. is separated into various branches
d. was not found in the state of nature

Answer 22

a. is created by the consent of the governed

Question 23

The Virginia Plan called for ___

a. 3 branches of government, strongest is the executive, president have most power in appoint members
b. 3 branches, strongest legislative, consist of 2 houses who choose exec
c. amending old articles of confed to strengthen national government and still protect interests of small states
d. amending old articles of confed to strengthen national government and weaken states representation in congress

Answer 23

b. 3 branches, strongest legislative, consist of 2 houses who choose exec

Question 24

The Great Compromise addressed the problem of ___

a. judicial review
b. representation in congress
c. defining unalienable rights
d. amending old articles of confed.

Answer 24

b. representation in congress

Question 25

The Great Compromise finally allocated representation on the basis of ___
a. population in both houses
b. equality in both houses
c. population in house and statewide equality in senate
d equality in house and pop in senate

Answer 25

c. population in house and statewide equality in senate

Question 26

The Framers attempted to create a government best described as a(n) ___

a. democracy
b. tyranny
c. aristocracy
d. republic

Answer 26

d. republic

Question 27

The power of the Supreme Court to declare an act of Congress unconstitutional is referred to as ___

a. judicial review
b. federalism
c. reserved power
d. separation of power

Answer 27

a. judicial review

Question 28

Government authority shared by national and local governments is referred to as ___

Answer 28

Federalism

Question 29

Those powers that are given exclusively to the states are ___ powers.

a. enumerated
b. reserved
c. concurrent
d. democratic

Answer 29

b. reserved

Question 30

Collecting taxes, building roads, borrowing money, and maintaining courts are powers shared by national and state governments, or ___ powers.

a. enumerated
b. reserved
c. concurrent
d. democratic

Answer 30

c. concurrent

Question 31

While Aristotle believed in the power of _________, James Madison believed in the power of _________ when governing the people.

a. virtue; self-interest b. self-interest; virtue
c. nature; industry
d. simplicity; industry

Answer 31

a. virtue; self-interest

Question 32

According to Madison, the separation of powers and the division between the states and national government would work because of ___

a. higher moral code
b. nature of self interest
c. simplicity
d. lack of diversity within states

Answer 32

b. nature of self interest

Question 33

The opponents of the new Constitution argued for a weak national government, and they were known as___

Answer 33

anti-federalists

Question 34

Madison argued in Federalist No.10 and No. 51 that liberty is safest in ___ republics.

Answer 34

Large

Question 35

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The Bill of Rights limits the power of state governments over citizens.
b. The original Bill of Rights was proposed and written by President Washington.
c. The Bill of Rights limits the power of the federal government over citizens.
d. The Bill of Rights responds to concerns about loss of liberties brought up in state ratifying conventions.

Answer 35

c. The Bill of Rights limits the power of the federal government over citizens.

Question 36

The Great Compromise guaranteeing two senators to each state favored _________ states; the three-fifths compromise favored the _________ states.

a. northern; large
b. southern; large
c. large; northern
d. small; southern

Answer 36

d. small; southern

Question 37

For the Founders, federalism was a device to___

a. protect personal liberty
b. provide efficient local administration
c. encourage citizen participation
d. guarantee equality

Answer 37

a. protect personal liberty

Question 38

___ provides that the powers not granted to the federal government by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.

a. First amendment
b. tenth amendment
c. Fed 46
d. Fed 10

Answer 38

b. tenth amendment

Question 39

When interpreting the Constitution, Jefferson and, later, Madison called for ___

a. broadly defined national government superior to state governments
b. increased protection for minority groups
c. respect for majority decisions
d. strictly limited national government that gives most power to the states

Answer 39

d. strictly limited national government that gives most power to the states

Question 40

In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court upheld the right of Congress to create a(n)___ even though that specific power is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.

a. income tax
b. factory
c. army
d. bank

Answer 40

d. bank

Question 41

Which of the following was used to establish the ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland?

a. the “necessary and proper” clause
b. Federalist No. 10
c. the doctrine of nullification
d. freedom of the press

Answer 41

a. the “necessary and proper” clause

Question 42

The doctrine of nullification refers to ___

a. power of congress to veto state laws that violate US const
b. claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating US const
c. Power of President to veto state laws for violating US const
d. authority of President to dissolve congress and call for new election

Answer 42

b. claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating US const

Question 43

The idea that national government and states are both equally supreme but should be kept separate is known aa ___

a. Emancipation Proclamation
b. dual federalism
c. reserved powers
d. federal noninterference

Answer 43

b. dual federalism

Question 44

In United States v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court ruled that Congress overstepped its power to regulate commerce by prohibiting ___ in a school zone.

a. guns
b. adult bookstores
c. cigarette sales
d. alcohol sales

Answer 44

a. guns

Question 45

In United States v. Morrison, the Supreme Court overturned the ___

a. Virginia and Kentucky resolutions
b. Fair Farming Act
c. Safe Railways Act
d. Violence against women act

Answer 45

d. Violence against women act

Question 46

Which procedure, which is in effect in more than 20 states, permits voters to remove an elected official from office?

a. logrolling
b. referendum
c. initiative
d. recall

Answer 46

d. recall

Question 47

Beginning in the 1960s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on ___

a. demands of individual states
b. what state officials believed to be important state needs
c. power of organized interest groups
d. what federal officials perceived to be national needs

Answer 47

d. what federal officials perceived to be national needs

Question 48

A categorical grant is a transfer of federal funds designed for___

a. private sector
b. specific purposes
c. the accomplishment of broad goals
d. personal use of local governors or mayors

Answer 48

b. specific purposes

Question 49

___ are terms set by the national government that states must meet if they are to receive certain federal funds.

a. conditions of aid
b. mandates
c. grants in aid
d. federal controls

Answer 49

a. conditions of aid

Question 50

Terms set by the national government that states must meet whether or not they accept federal grants are called ___

a. conditions of aid
b. mandates
c. grants in aid
d. federal controls

Answer 50

b. mandates

Question 51

Which of the following statements about mandates is correct?

a. Most mandates concern civil rights and environmental protection.
b. The federal government defers the power of interpreting the language in mandates to the states.
c. Federal funds are always provided to states to carry out mandated policies.
d. Most mandates concern technological research and education reform.

Answer 51

a. Most mandates concern civil rights and environmental protection.

Question 52

The 1980s and 1990s Republican effort to pass on to the states many federal functions is known as ___

a. realignment
b. marble-cake federalism
c. devolution
d. net-institutionalism

Answer 52

c. devolution

Question 53

Conflicts in civil liberties often arise because___

a. majoritarian politics
b. US Const is vague on issues of individual rights
c. Bill of Rights lists several competing rights
d. policy entrepreneurs rarely operate in the Civil Rights arena

Answer 53

c. Bill of Rights lists several competing rights

Question 54

The key clauses in the Fourteenth Amendment are the ___

a. due process and necessary and proper clauses
b. necessary and proper and establishment
c. due process and equal protection
d. equal protection and establishment

Answer 54

c. due process and equal protection

Question 55

In the Gitlow case, the Supreme Court held that___

a. no state could take private property without paying just compensation
b. rights should be applied to the states in order to maintain a scheme of ordered liberty
c. federal guarantees of free speech and free press also apply to the states
d. federal ban on slavery applies to states too.

Answer 55

c. federal guarantees of free speech and free press also apply to the states

Question 56

Which term best describes the manner in which the Supreme Court has applied the Bill of Rights to the states?

a. selective incorporation
b. complete incorporation
c. exclusion
d. incorporation

Answer 56

a. selective incorporation

Question 57

The First Amendment establishes ___

a. freedom of expression and freedom of religion
b. right to bear arms and right to trial by jury
c. abolishment of slavery and defines citizen
d. freedom of religion and prior restraint

Answer 57

a. freedom of expression and freedom of religion

Question 58

The definition of prior restraint is ___

a. restriction of speech presenting a clear and present danger
b. censorship of a publication
c. written defamation of character
d. acknowledgment of liability related to free press

Answer 58

b. censorship of a publication

Question 59

In order to decide how far Congress could go to restrict freedom of speech, Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes introduced the ___ test.

a. constitutionality
b. clear-and-present danger
c. lemon
d. fundamental present rights

Answer 59

b. clear-and-present danger

Question 60

Which of the following statements about hate crimes is TRUE?

a. The display of an odious symbol is always punishable by law.
b. To be punished for a hate crime, the bigotry must result in direct, physical harm.
c. It is illegal for a group of Nazis to parade through a Jewish community if the community resists it.
d. The First Amendment protects speech that abstractly advocates violence and produces forthcoming lawless action.

Answer 60

b. To be punished for a hate crime, the bigotry must result in direct, physical harm.

Question 61

Written defamation of character is known as ___

a. slander
b. obscenity
c. incitement
d. libel

Answer 61

d. libel

Question 62

It is much harder to win a libel suit if you are a(n) ___

a. ordinary citizen
b. public figure
c. convicted felon
d. young adult

Answer 62

b. public figure

Question 63

___ is not protected by the First Amendment.

a. Obscenity
b. Freedom of religion
c. assembly
d. The press

Answer 63

a. Obscenity

Question 64

One form of symbolic speech permitted by the Supreme Court is___

a. burning your draft card
b. politcal assassination
c. bombing of public facilities
d. flag burning

Answer 64

d. flag burning

Question 65

The two clauses of the First Amendment that deal with religion are concerned with ___

a. free exercise and establishment
b. establishment and separation
c. seperation and prohibition
d. prohibition and free exercise

Answer 65

a. free exercise and establishment

Question 66

The historical source for the “wall of separation” between church and state comes from ___

a. Writings of Thomas Jefferson
b. Series of debates in the first Congress
c. Bill of Rights
d. McCulloh vs. Maryland

Answer 66

a. Writings of Thomas Jefferson

Question 67

The ___ holds that evidence gathered in violation of the Constitution cannot be used in a trial.

a. 8th Amendment
b. Patriot Act
c. exclusionary rule
d. good faith exception

Answer 67

c. exclusionary rule

Question 68

Mapp v. Ohio was a notable constitutional decision because it ___

a. limited the exclusionary rule to federal government
b. used the exclusionary rule to enforce constitutional guarantees
c. applied exclusionary rule to federal officers
d. limited scope of exclusionary rule to searches of private homes

Answer 68

b. used the exclusionary rule to enforce constitutional guarantees

Question 69

In 1978, the ___ was passed, which required the president to go before a special court to obtain approval for electronic eavesdropping on those thought to be foreign spies.

a. Espionage Act
b. Internal Security Act
c. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act
d. USA Freedom Act

Answer 69

c. Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act

Question 70

The ___ Amendment seemed to guarantee equal rights for all, regardless of race.

Answer 70

14th

Question 71

In 1880, the Supreme Court deemed serving on a jury could not be denied on racial grounds as it is a(n) ___

a. privileged practice
b. civic duty
c. public accommodation
d. essential right of citizenship

Answer 71

d. essential right of citizenship

Question 72

The Court’s landmark decision in Plessy v. Ferguson began when an individual challenged a law requiring blacks and whites to ___

a. occupy separate train cars
b. attend separate public schools
c. play in separate parks
d. use separate restrooms

Answer 72

a. occupy separate train cars

Question 73

When racial integration was an unpopular cause, the NAACP used___ as its battleground.

a. the Supreme Court
b. politcal parties
c. state legislatures
d. voting booth

Answer 73

a. the Supreme Court

Question 74

Which of the following statements about Brown v. Board of Education is correct?

a. It upheld separate but equal practices.
b. It outlawed government-imposed segregation.
c. It was a 5–4 decision.
d. It eliminated racial segregation.

Answer 74

b. It outlawed government-imposed segregation.

Question 75

As its rationale for the decision in Brown v. Board of Education, the Supreme Court relied primarily on ___.

a. the intent of the framers of the 14th amendment
b. public humiliation
c. social science evidence
d. narrow interpretation of the US Const

Answer 75

c. social science evidence

Question 76

The difference between de facto and de jure segregation is that the former _________, while the latter _________.

a. arises from administrative practices; results from informal social patterns
b. is required by law; does not result from the law
c. existed in the past; continues in the present
d. does not result from the law; is required by law

Answer 76

d. does not result from the law; is required by law

Question 77

Peacefully violating a law and accepting punishment, such as Rosa Parks’s arrest, is known as ___

a. civil disobedience
b. adversative method
c. violent protest
d. intermediate scrutiny

Answer 77

a. civil disobedience

Question 78

The___ Amendment made clear that no state may deny the right to vote on the basis of sex.

a. 15th
b. 19th
c. 20th
d. 21st

Answer 78

b. 19th

Question 79

Laws affecting race are subject to _________ scrutiny. Laws affecting gender are subject to _________ scrutiny.

a. public; private
b. narrow; strict
c. intermediate; narrow
d. strict; intermediate

Answer 79

d. strict; intermediate

Question 80

In the Virginia Military Institute case, the Court required a single-sex school to supply ___ for excluding the other gender.

a. a notable basis
b. a compelling reason
c. an exceedingly persuasive justification
d. a rational basis

Answer 80

c. an exceedingly persuasive justification

Question 81

The Court has allowed all of the following provisions regulating abortion EXCEPT ___

a. 24 hour waiting periods
b. consent of at least one parent (for teenagers)
c. the consent of a married woman’s husband
d. distribution of pamphlets and information to women considering the procedure

Answer 81

c. the consent of a married woman’s husband

Question 82

Giving people an equal chance to succeed is known as equality of ___

a. opportunity
b. results
c. institution
d. diversity

Answer 82

a. opportunity

Question 83

Supporters of equality of opportunity consider affirmative action to be a form of___

a. police power
b. integration
c. designed equality
d. reverse discrimination

Answer 83

d. reverse discrimination

Question 84

Which of the following statements regarding racial discrimination resulted from the Supreme Court decision in the case involving a small construction company named Adarand?

a. Because of America’s history of racial discrimination, a law promoting racial preference need only be reasonable.
b. Only racial discrimination with the purpose to hurt a racial minority is subject to strict scrutiny.
c. All racial discrimination, whether it’s helping or hurting a minority, is subject to strict scrutiny.
d. All racial discrimination, whether it’s helping or hurting a minority, is subject to intermediate scrutiny.

Answer 84

c. All racial discrimination, whether it’s helping or hurting a minority, is subject to strict scrutiny.

Question 85

In Lawrence v. Texas, the Court decided ___

a. it is legal for states to ban sexual contact between persons of the same sex
b. a private organization may ban gays from its membership
c. a private organization may not discriminate against gays
d. state laws may not ban sexual relations between same-sex partners

Answer 85

d. state laws may not ban sexual relations between same-sex partners

Question 86

In United States v. Windsor, the constitutionality of ___ was questioned

a. California’s proposition 8
b. the Defense of Marriage Act
c. mandatory busing
d. the “Don’t Ask, Don’t Tell” policy

Answer 86

b. the Defense of Marriage Act

Question 87

Originally, Northern support for civil rights was gained by the perception that ___.

a. civil rights were already observed in the North, so it was just to enforce them in the South
b. civil rights were inevitable throughout the US
c. civil rights were a legal responsibility which was being unconstitutionally ignored by the rebellious South
d. civil rights simply involved an unfair contest between Southern whites and Southern blacks.

Answer 87

d. civil rights simply involved an unfair contest between Southern whites and Southern blacks.

Question 88

The definition of authority is ___

a. the right to use power
b. the manner in which power is spread
c. the use of power for good causes
d. the desire to have power

Answer 88

a. the right to use power

Question 89

___ authority means that the right to exercise power is vested in a governmental office.

a. Persuasive
b. Public
c. Formal
d. Federal

Answer 89

c. Formal

Question 90

A town meeting where all adult citizens gather annually to vote on issues is the embodiment of ___ democracy

a. direct
b. representative
c. parliamentary
d. communal

Answer 90

a. direct

Question 91

Representative democracy is sometimes disapprovingly referred to as the ___ theory of democracy.

a. limited
b. aristocratic
c. elitist
d. authoritarian

Answer 91

c. elitist

Question 92

A political system is nondemocratic to the extent that it ___

a. allows civil and politic freedoms
b. denies equal voting rights to part of its society
c. permits the assembly and organization of its people
d. encourages a competitive struggle for the people’s vote

Answer 92

b. denies equal voting rights to part of its society

Question 93

According to the ___ view of how power is distributed, appointed officials run everything despite the efforts of elected officials and the public to control them.

a. class
b. pluralist
c. bureaucratic
d. power elite

Answer 93

c. bureaucratic

Question 94

Issues that people believe require governmental action refers to a ___

a. class view
b. conflict
c. politcal value
d. politcal agenda

Answer 94

d. politcal agenda

Question 95

The 1954 Supreme Court decision to desegregate schools was met with ___

a. opposition by the other branches of government
b. mandatory governmental compliance and action by President Eisenhower
c. no response from the Executive and Legislative branches of government
d. no response from the American people

Answer 95

b. mandatory governmental compliance and action by President Eisenhower

Question 96

The ___ of a proposed policy is any burden that people believe they must bear if the policy is enacted.

a. benefit
b. politics
c. cost
d. perception

Answer 96

c. cost

Question 97

Which of the following is NOT an example of a widely distributed benefit?

a. subsidies to farmers
b. low crime rates
c. decreased pollution
d. increased national security

Answer 97

a. subsidies to farmers

Question 98

In ___ politics, a policy is proposed in which one small group benefits and almost everybody pays.

a. majoritarian
b. interest group
c. entrepreneurial
d. client

Answer 98

d. client

Question 99

When a legislator supports a proposal favored by another in return for support of his or her own proposal, it is known as ___

a. legislative trading
b. log-rolling
c. entrepreneurial politics
d. pork-barrel legislation

Answer 99

b. log-rolling

Question 100

Most major pieces of social legislation reflect ___ politics.

a. interest group
b. client
c. majoritarian
d. entrepreneurial

Answer 100

c. majoritarian

Question 101

The definition of a lobbyist is ___

a. an organization that recruits members from whom it obtains camp gain contributions
b. a person who tries to influence legislation on behalf of an interest group
c. the leader of a factory or industrial union
d. an elected official who frequently compromises on policy

Answer 101

b. a person who tries to influence legislation on behalf of an interest group

Question 102

The incentive for large, mass-membership unions arose as the result of ___

a. farming production that was resilient against outside forces
b. craft guilds in small groups of workers
c. WWII
d. mass-production industry operated by large corporations

Answer 102

d. mass-production industry operated by large corporations

Question 103

The American Textile Manufacturers Institute represents southern textile mills. This is an example of a(n) ___ interest.

a. institutional
b. educational
c. membership
d. private

Answer 103

a. institutional

Question 104

When the incentives to join an organization emphasize a sense of pleasure, status, or companionship, the incentives are said to be ___

a. purposive
b. material
c. ideological
d. solidary

Answer 104

d. solidary

Question 105

National interest groups offering ___ incentives often have to be organized into small local units because this type of incentive occurs with face-to-face contact.

a. purposive
b. material
c. free rider
d. solidary

Answer 105

d. solidary

Question 106

The Illinois Farm Bureau offers its members a chance to buy farm supplies at discount prices, market their products through cooperatives. Such benefits to members are called ___ incentives.

a. purposive
b. material
c. party
d. solidary

Answer 106

b. material

Question 107

The most visible public-interest lobbies also tend to ___

a. pursue low-level goals
b. be highly controversial
c. be classified as moderate
d. offer material incentives

Answer 107

b. be highly controversial

Question 108

When the purpose of an organization, if attained, will principally benefit nonmembers, it is customary to call the group a ___

a. public interest lobby
b. social movement
c. politcal action committee
d. free rider

Answer 108

a. public interest lobby

Question 109

The National Organization for Women (NOW) is an example of a feminist organization whose membership incentives are primarily ___

a. material
b. purposive
c. solidary
d. sociological

Answer 109

b. purposive

Question 110

The major union movement in the United States coincided with the ___

a. Kennedy assassination
b. Watergate scandal
c. Great Depression
d. Civil war

Answer 110

c. Great Depression

Question 111

Today, union membership rate is largely composed of___

a. start-up companies
b. factory workers
c. women reentering the work force
d. government workers

Answer 111

d. government workers

Question 112

An earmark is a provision of a law that___

a. provides a direct benefit to a client
b. cannot be provided in writing
c. is supported by broad legislative majorities
d. results from the interaction between lobbyists and Supreme Court justices

Answer 112

a. provides a direct benefit to a client

Question 113

Although Congress officially banned earmarks in 2011, members of Congress still work to influence government agencies associated with special funds in a process called ___

a. loopholing
b. appropriating or allocating
c. grassroots lobbying
d. letter marking or phonemarking

Answer 113

d. letter marking or phonemarking

Question 114

With the individualistic nature of Congress and modern technology, more and more interest groups are turning to a(n) ___ strategy

a. insider
b. outsider
c. private
d. cultivation

Answer 114

b. outsider

Question 115

As people leave the federal government to take more lucrative positions, there is concern that this “revolving door” may ___

a. result in the country having fewer qualified people in political power
b. mean longer terms for incumbents
c. lead to a lack of a stable government due to high turnover rate
d. give private interest an improper influence on government decisions

Answer 115

d. give private interest an improper influence on government decisions

Question 116

The activity of lobbyists is protected by the ___ Amendment

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 5th
d. 10th

Answer 116

a. 1st

Question 117

The most significant legal constraints on interest groups come from ___

a. the current federal lobbying law
b. language in the original Const
c. the tax code and campaign finance laws
d. citizen liberties outlined in the Bill of Rights

Answer 117

c. the tax code and campaign finance laws

Question 118

Political scientists think of parties as consisting of the following parts EXCEPT ___

a. a set of leaders
b. an individual leader
c. an organization
d. a label

Answer 118

b. an individual leader

Question 119

One reason that today’s political parties in the United States are weaker than in Europe is that, in the United States, ___

a. politcal party organizations are highly centralized
b. local party leaders rarely have as much power as national ones
c. voters, not party leaders, select people to run for office
d. Congress serves the right to select the chief executive of government

Answer 119

c. voters, not party leaders, select people to run for office

Question 120

The first organized political party in American history was ___

a. made up of the followers of Jefferson
b. organized by Alexander Hamilton
c. a deviate of the Federalists
d. ruled unconstitutional by the SC

Answer 120

a. made up of the followers of Jefferson

Question 121

The distinct feature of the Jacksonian party system was___

a. mass politcal participation
b. strict registration laws
c. the popularity of the caucus system
d. establishing the Australian ballot

Answer 121

a. mass politcal participation

Question 122

___ replaced caucuses in nominating presidential candidates.

a. Popular vote from a slate of candidates drawn up by the 2 national parties
b. Party conventions
c. Delegates selected by state legislatures
d. A parliamentary system

Answer 122

b. Party conventions

Question 123

Each of the following statements about Democrat William Jennings Bryan is correct EXCEPT ___

a. His candidacy effectively ended the split in ideologies between North and South
b. He alienated voters in the northeastern states
c. He attracted voters in the South and Midwest
d. His candidacy strengthened the Republican Party

Answer 123

a. His candidacy effectively ended the split in ideologies between North and South

Question 124

The early 20th century ___ favored primary elections to replace nominating conventions, strict voter registration requirements, and civil service reform.

a. Republicans
b. Federalists
c. Whigs
d. Progressives

Answer 124

d. Progressives

Question 125

A period when a lasting shift occurs in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties is called a___

a. plurality
b. split ticket
c. realignment
d. solidary incentive

Answer 125

c. realignment

Question 126

Which of the following was the major issue in the 1860 realignment period?

a. Suffrage
b. Crime
c. The electoral college
d. Slavery

Answer 126

d. Slavery

Question 127

There are two main types of primary elections: _________ primaries and _________ primaries.

a. closed; open
b. Democrat; Republican
c. left; right
d. federal; civilian

Answer 127

a. closed; open

Question 128

The one major election where the nomination occurs via a convention is the___

a. incumbent convention for candidates trying to remain in office
b. national convention to nominate presidential candidates
c. challenger convention to nominate all levels of political offices
d. independent convention for third parties to challenge the two major parties

Answer 128

b. national convention to nominate presidential candidates

Question 129

A ___ is a party leader or elected official who becomes a delegate to the national convention without having to run in primaries or caucuses.

a. greenback
b. partisan
c. super-delegate
d. sponsored party

Answer 129

c. super-delegate

Question 130

The ___ Act made it illegal for federal civil service employees to take an active part in political management or political campaigns

a. Volstead
b. Ford
c. Hatch
d. Singleton

Answer 130

c. Hatch

Question 131

A(n) ___ is a voter’s stable, long-term attachment to a political party.

a. politcal philosophy
b. ideology
c. faction
d. partisan identification

Answer 131

d. partisan identification

Question 132

The following is true of self-identified Independents EXCEPT ___

a. most tend to lean towards one party or the other
b. they consist of about 10% of the public
c. they find negative valence in the word “Independent”
d. they are not beholden to a particular party

Answer 132

c. they find negative valence in the word “Independent”

Question 133

The minor parties that have persisted are ___ parties.

a. economic-protest
b. ideological
c. one-issue
d. conservative

Answer 133

b. ideological

Question 134

The minor parties that have probably had the greatest influence on public policy have been ___ parties, such as the Mugwumps and Bull Moose parties, among others

a. union
b. ethnicity-based
c. factional
d. philosophical

Answer 134

c. factional

Question 135

The _________ Party, while not a national party, appears to have had influence within the _________ Party, particularly in the 2010 congressional midterm elections.

a. Tea; Republican
b. Libertarian; Republican
c. Socialist; Democratic
d. Green; Democratic

Answer 135

a. Tea; Republican

Question 136

One reason that public policy often differs from public opinion is that ___

a. The US Constitution places many checks on the influence of public opinion
b. public opinion polling tends to express the opinions of the political elite
c. public opinion is easy to gauge, whereas the effectiveness of public policy is not
d. the public is less likely to follow public policy

Answer 136

a. The US Constitution places many checks on the influence of public opinion

Question 137

The first major studies of public opinion and voting, published in the 1940s, found that ___

a. most Americans were well informed about politics even though they did not vote regularly
b. most Americans voted regularly and were well informed about politics
c. a small group of Americans voted, but they were not well informed about politics
d. a small group of Americans were informed about politics, but most Americans were not

Answer 137

d. a small group of Americans were informed about politics, but most Americans were not

Question 138

Most high school students share the same political party identification as___

a. their peers
b. their teachers
c. their parents
d. their religious leaders

Answer 138

c. their parents

Question 139

The ___ assumes a young person’s political outlook is influenced by the political environment in which they come of age

a. gender gap year
b. majoritarian politics theory
c. impressionable years hypothesis
d. age gap theory

Answer 139

c. impressionable years hypothesis

Question 140

Which statement about differences in the opinions of men and women is INCORRECT?

a. Men are more likely to favor laws supporting same-sex marriage.
b. Men are more likely to support recent military interventions.
c. Women are more likely to support universal health care.
d. Women are more likely to see social welfare issues as important.

Answer 140

a. Men are more likely to favor laws supporting same-sex marriage.

Question 141

___ are now the nation’s largest minority group

a. Latinos
b. African Americans
c. Asians
d. Native Americans

Answer 141

a. Latinos

Question 142

Compared to certain nations of Western Europe, Americans are an especially ___ people.

a. elite
b. disadvantaged
c. religious
d. politically liberal

Answer 142

c. religious

Question 143

It is suggested that Americans view the concept of “social classes” in their country with a sense of ___

a. embarrassment
b. apathy
c. pride
d. unawareness

Answer 143

a. embarrassment

Question 144

Although this changed dramatically in the next decade, in the 1950s, V.O. Key found that people holding professional jobs had more _________ views on social welfare policy and more _________ views on foreign policy than manual workers.

a. internationalist; isolationist
b. liberal; isolationist
c. conservative; internationalist
d. liberal; conservative

Answer 144

c. conservative; internationalist

Question 145

___ is an individual’s identification with and attachment to a political party

a. Ideology
b. Partisanship
c. Interest group politics
d. Political socialization

Answer 145

b. Partisanship

Question 146

A consistent set of beliefs about what policies government ought to pursue is referred to as___

a. political efficacy
b. public opinion
c. party sorting
d. politcal ideology

Answer 146

d. politcal ideology

Question 147

Individuals with a disproportionate share of political power are called___

a. hegemons
b. politcal elites
c. bipartisan
d. lobbyists

Answer 147

b. politcal elites

Question 148

A ___ vote of the House and Senate is needed to override a presidential veto

a. three-fifths
b. unanimous
c. two thirds
d. one half

Answer 148

c. two thirds

Question 149

Deducing a political position while not being informed of the intricacies of every issue is an example of___

a. heuristics
b. rational decision making
c. politcal ideology
d. blind party loyalty

Answer 149

a. heuristics

Question 150

___ advocates are perhaps the best-known example of a minority being more politically engaged and active than the majority

a. Immigration control
b. Same-sex marriage
c. Gun control
d. Environmental regulation

Answer 150

c. Gun control

Question 151

Several studies have shown that government policy is often more responsive to the preferences of___

a. the economic elite
b. the president
c. grassroots campaigns
d. everyday citizens

Answer 151

a. the economic elite

Question 152

Compared to other democratic nations, the United States government___

a. restricts the press more
b. restricts the press less
c. controls offensive statements made by citizens
d. oversees more publicy-owned media outlets

Answer 152

b. restricts the press less

Question 153

In the early years of the Republic, newspapers were financially supported by___

a. local advertising
b. payments from aspiring writers and journalists
c. subsidies from the government or a political party
d. mass circulation

Answer 153

c. subsidies from the government or a political party

Question 154

Created in 1848, the ___ provided stories to a variety of newspapers, meaning it could not afford to be partisan or biased; it had to present the facts objectively

a. Associated Press
b. Government Printing Office
c. Washington Post
d. Gazzette of the US

Answer 154

a. Associated Press

Question 155

For all their excesses, the sensationalist mass-readership newspapers of the late 19th century brought about several important changes in the press, including___

a. establishing the feasibility of a press free from government control
b. encouraging cultural diversity in the US society
c. limiting the role of technology in jounralism
d. giving greater power to the social elite

Answer 155

a. establishing the feasibility of a press free from government control

Question 156

During the turn of the century, the popularity of national magazines of opinion reflected the___

a. American public’s desire for sensationalism
b. taste for political reform
c. middle-class support for yellow journalism
d. lower-class beliefs in the progressive movement

Answer 156

b. taste for political reform

Question 157

While the advent of radio and television gave politicians another venue for getting in touch with the public, one disadvantage of this new media was___

a. its inherent tendency toward sensationalism
b. it gave the public more opportunities to find fault
c. people felt that TV was fiction-based
d. people could choose to ignore the broadcast

Answer 157

d. people could choose to ignore the broadcast

Question 158

Information leaked to the media to test public reaction to a possible policy is called ___

a. an insider story
b. a roll call
c. a trial balloon
d. loaded language

Answer 158

c. a trial balloon

Question 159

The dominant source of news for most Americans is ___

a. radio
b. Internet
c. TV
d. Newspapers

Answer 159

c. TV

Question 160

___ is defined as consuming only those news stories with which one already agrees

a. Selective hearing
b. Horse-race journalism
c. Selective exposure
d. Agenda-setting

Answer 160

c. Selective exposure

Question 161

As gatekeeper, the national media___

a. shapes the public agenda by covering some stories, but not others
b. helps decide who is winning and losing in Washington politics
c. keeps track of and helps form political reputations
d. has an instinctive desire to investigate personalities and expose scandals

Answer 161

a. shapes the public agenda by covering some stories, but not others

Question 162

___ describes the way in which the media, by focusing on some aspects of an issue, shapes how people view that issue.

a. Framing
b. Elevating
c. Balanced reporting
d. Priming

Answer 162

a. Framing

Question 163

Which role does the national media play when it focuses on who is ahead in the polls rather than on the issues?

a. referee
b. gatekeeper
c. watchdog
d. scorekeeper

Answer 163

d. scorekeeper

Question 164

The following are reasons journalists devote so much time to polls, strategy, and tactics, EXCEPT ___

a. substantive reporting is viewed as exciting
b. readers enjoy those types of stories
c. it does not require in-depth reporting
d. the press appears independent of poetical elites

Answer 164

a. substantive reporting is viewed as exciting

Question 165

Today’s media tends to focus on _________ and _________ stories.

a. positive; substantive
b. negative; sensationalistic
c. sensationalistic; positive
d. substantive; negative

Answer 165

b. negative; sensationalistic

Question 166

Over time, American confidence in the press has___

a. improved
b. growth marginally more positive
c. declined
d. remained the same

Answer 166

c. declined

Question 167

The federal government sought a restraining order against the New York Times to prevent it from publishing___

a. The Pentagon Papers
b. Accounts of Japanese Americans detained in US concentration camps during WWII
c. secret grand jury findings on the Watergate scandal
d. reports of Reagan’s arms-for-hostages dealings

Answer 167

a. The Pentagon Papers

Question 168

The abandonment of the fairness doctrine permitted___

a. liberals to have more access to mainstream media
b. small business owners to restrict media access
c. the rise of controversial talk radio
d. politicians to regulate media more directly

Answer 168

c. the rise of controversial talk radio

Question 169

The equal time rule relates to political candidates’ use of___

a. government resources
b. free postage
c. politcal contributions
d. broadcast advertising

Answer 169

d. broadcast advertising

Question 170

Which constitutional amendment extended the right to vote to those 18 years and older?

a. Twenty-sixth Amendment
b. Fifteenth Amendment
c. Nineteenth Amendment
d. Fourteenth Amendment

Answer 170

a. Twenty-sixth Amendment

Question 171

If a researcher insists on using VEP statistics, as opposed to VAP statistics, in a study of voter turnout, he or she is probably concerned about___

a. creating a balance between males and females in the data
b. removing political party bias
c. removing individuals from the data who are actually ineligible to vote
d. having a more reliable estimate of the number of voters across time

Answer 171

c. removing individuals from the data who are actually ineligible to vote

Question 172

Which of the following statements accurately characterizes voting registration in the United States and most of Europe?

a. In most of Europe, registration is automatically done by the government; in the United States, the burden of registration falls on the individual voter.
b. In the United States, registration is free; in most of Europe, registration is costly.
c. The United States and most of Europe have very similar registration processes; both involve individual voters registering themselves.
d. In the United States, registration is automatically done by the government; in most of Europe, the burden of registration falls on the individual voter.

Answer 172

a. In most of Europe, registration is automatically done by the government; in the United States, the burden of registration falls on the individual voter.

Question 173

Joining civic associations, supporting social movements, and writing to legislators, are examples of___

a. conflicts of interest
b. participating in politics
c. politcal disease
d. avoiding political involvement

Answer 173

b. participating in politics

Question 174

Federal elections are always held in___

a. November
b. January
c. May
d. September

Answer 174

a. November

Question 175

Which amendment states that the “right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude”?

a. Seventeenth Amendment
b. Twelfth Amendment
c. Twenty-fifth Amendment
d. Fifteenth Amendment

Answer 175

d. Fifteenth Amendment

Question 176

Literacy tests, poll taxes, and a grandfather clause were all devices used to___

a. expand the American electorate
b. keep the poor from voting
c. keep blacks from voting
d. allow women to vote

Answer 176

c. keep blacks from voting

Question 177

The grandfather clause was implemented to give voting rights to___

a. property owners
b. freed slaves
c. whites who were illiterate or poor
d. all males over the age of 21

Answer 177

c. whites who were illiterate or poor

Question 178

The ___ suspended the use of literacy tests and provided criminal penalties for interfering with the right to vote.

a. 19th Amendment
b. Voting Rights Act
c. Smith v. Allwright case
d. Civil Rights Act

Answer 178

b. Voting Rights Act

Question 179

The first elections in which all persons between the ages of eighteen and twenty-one were able to vote were held in___

a. 1972
b. 1956
c. 1844
d. 1896

Answer 179

a. 1972

Question 180

One view of the apparent decline in voter turnout suggests that the parties ceased functioning as___

a. organizations which represent a particular view point
b. organizations to mobilize the mass of voters
c. organization controlled by leaders
d. organizations that promote candidates

Answer 180

b. organizations to mobilize the mass of voters

Question 181

During the 19th century, voting ballots were printed by ___

a. the state legislatures
b. Congress
c. the courts
d. political parties

Answer 181

d. political parties

Question 182

Which of the following statements regarding the Australian ballot is INCORRECT?

a. It was printed by the people.
b. It replaced party-printed ballots.
c. It was of uniform size and shape.
d. It was cast in secret.

Answer 182

a. It was printed by the people.

Question 183

A ___ requires citizens to show a government-issued photo ID in order to vote

a. Voter identification law
b. motor voter law
c. constitutional requirement
d. poll tax

Answer 183

a. Voter identification law

Question 184

The most common form of political participation is___

a. contributing money
b. voting
c. volunteering
d. contacting public officials

Answer 184

b. voting

Question 185

Participation in politics is driven by all of the following factors EXCEPT___

a. being asked to participate
b. access to resources
c. experiences with government programs
d. diminished civic skills

Answer 185

d. diminished civic skills

Question 186

A meeting of party followers in which party delegates are selected is known as a___

a. caucus
b. primary
c. PAC
d. campaign

Answer 186

a. caucus

Question 187

___voting is more common among political junkies.

a. Split-ticket
b. Retrospective
c. Prospective
d. Uniformed

Answer 187

c. Prospective

Question 188

In the 2012 presidential campaign, ___ was the single biggest expense.

a. campaign advertising
b. touring swing states
c. rally planning
d. transportation

Answer 188

a. campaign advertising

Question 189

Two shared features of most modern televised campaign ads are _________ and _________.

a. an appeal to emotions; making a negative attack
b. happy platitudes; truthfulness
c. emphasizing the opposing candidate’s leadership; sharing no information
d. attacking a candidate; appealing for campaign funds

Answer 189

a. an appeal to emotions; making a negative attack

Question 190

The most loyal voters in the Democratic coalition are___

a. African Americans
b. women
c. Catholics
d. Latinos

Answer 190

a. African Americans

Question 191

In 1911, Congress decided the House should be fixed at ___ members

a. 50
b. 100
c. 435
d. 500

Answer 191

c. 435

Question 192

___ require(s) reapportionment of Congress every ten years

a. The Supreme Court
b. The Constitution
c. State laws
d. Executive Office of the President

Answer 192

b. The Constitution

Question 193

When districts are drawn in a bizarre or unusual shape to assist candidates, it is called___

a. malapportionment
b. reappointment
c. regression
d. gerrymandering

Answer 193

d. gerrymandering

Question 194

Most of the money for congressional candidates comes from___

a. PACs
b. major corporations
c. small businesses
d. individuals

Answer 194

d. individuals

Question 195

As a result of the Watergate investigation, a new law affecting___was passed

a. television advertising
b. campaign financing
c. local elections
d. executive privilege

Answer 195

b. campaign financing

Question 196

___refer(s) to money spent towards supporting or opposing a candidate that is not coordinated with or made at the direction of the candidate’s wishes

a. Independent expenditures
b. Soft money
c. Nonpartisan funds
d. Unaffiliated expenditures

Answer 196

a. Independent expenditures

Question 197

Soft money refers to___

a. funds raised by individuals to support certain candidates
b. money spent on advertising, as long as it has a positive message
c. money obtained by political parties to be used for party activities
d. funds raised for challenges, not incumbents

Answer 197

c. money obtained by political parties to be used for party activities

Question 198

Following the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act, 527 organizations became popular as a way to___

a. allow individual states to provide campaign funding to a candidate
b. permit soft money expenditures that were once made by political parties
c. offer PACs an alternative when completing annual tax returns
d. set limits on presidential campaign costs

Answer 198

b. permit soft money expenditures that were once made by political parties

Question 199

___ are social welfare organizations that can spend no more than 50 percent of their money on politics.

a. 501(c)4 groups
b. 504(c)3 groups
c. 527 organizations
d. Super PACs

Answer 199

a. 501(c)4 groups

Question 200

Which of the following is sometimes referred to as a “dark money” group?

a. 527 organizations
b. 501(c)4 group
c. Super PAC
d. 501(c)3 group

Answer 200

b. 501(c)4 group

Question 201

By design, unless accompanied by ___, American elections rarely produce changes of magnitude

a. a national crisis
b. a dark money fund
c. a close popular vote
d. emergence of a third party

Answer 201

a. a national crisis

Question 202

___ , the greatest single enlargement of federal authority since 1860, was produced as a result of the election of 1932

a. The New Frontier
b. The New Deal
c. The Truman Doctrine
d. The Great Society

Answer 202

b. The New Deal

Question 203

Which aspect of the government did the Framers of the Constitution consider the “first branch”?

a. Supreme Court
b. Congress
c. Media
d. President

Answer 203

b. Congress

Question 204

When discerning the differences between a congress and a parliament, it is helpful to understand the basis of the word parliament, which is___

a. “public grouping”
b. “to talk”
c. “to listen
d. “a coming together”

Answer 204

b. “to talk”

Question 205

Members of the U.S. Congress _________ the head of the executive branch of government, making them _________ powerful than their parliamentary counterparts.

a. select; less
b. do not select; more
c. do not select; less
d. select; more

Answer 205

b. do not select; more

???

Question 206

The term bicameral, used to describe the U.S. legislature, means that the legislature___

a. has two chambers or parts
b. is selected every 2 years
c. consists of both committees and a main body
d. is based on a system of checks and balances

Answer 206

a. has two chambers or parts

Question 207

Under the original U.S. Constitution, members of the Senate, unlike members of the House, were selected by___

a. direct elections
b. the presdient
c. state legislatures
d. primary runoffs

Answer 207

c. state legislatures

Question 208

A filibuster is___

a. a vote in which a majority of Democratic legislators oppose a majority of Republican legislators
b. a political district in which candidates elected to the Senate win in close elections
c. a senator or representative who helps the party leader stay informed about what party members are thinking
d. a prolonged speech, or series of speeches, made to delay action in a legislative assembly

Answer 208

d. a prolonged speech, or series of speeches, made to delay action in a legislative assembly

Question 209

Today, it takes ___ senators to cut off debate.

a. 50
b. 51
c. 60
d. 67

Answer 209

c. 60

Question 210

A marginal district is one in which ___

a. the winner in an election gets less than 55% of the vote
b. the constituency is made up of largely minority groups
c. voters are not clear as to which candidate is the incumbent
d. an incumbent is running virtually unopposed

Answer 210

a. the winner in an election gets less than 55% of the vote

Question 211

In the organizational view of congressional voting, members of Congress rely primarily on ___ to cast their vote

a. race
b. their seniority
c. their legal education
d. their political parties

Answer 211

d. their political parties

Question 212

In the Senate, a___ helps party leaders stay informed about what the party members are thinking

a. whip
b. senate
c. joint committee
d. president pro tempore

Answer 212

a. whip

Question 213

The ___ is the most important person in the House of Representatives

a. majority leader
b. Speaker
c. whip
d. floor leader

Answer 213

b. Speaker

Question 214

A ___ is an association of members of Congress created to advance a political ideology or a regional, ethnic, or economic interest

a. caucus
b. bloc
c. committee
d. party

Answer 214

a. caucus

Question 215

A ___ committee is made up of representatives and senators appointed to resolve differences in the Senate and House versions of a bill before final passage

a. joint
b. standing
c. conference
d. select

Answer 215

c. conference

Question 216

The text suggests that the real work of Congress occurs___

a. during a fillibuster
b. in committees
c. on the campaign trail
d. in lobbying organizations

Answer 216

b. in committees

Question 217

Members of Congress are more likely to deal with one another through _________ than through _________.

a. joint efforts in committee meetings; comments in the media
b. comments in the media; joint efforts in committee meetings
c. personal contact; staff intermediaries
d. staff intermediaries; personal contact

Answer 217

d. staff intermediaries; personal contact

Question 218

Congress would rely on a ___ resolution to settle housekeeping and procedural matters that affect both houses

a. concurrent
b. simple
c. joint
d. discharge

Answer 218

a. concurrent

Question 219

A ___ vote involves the members of the House of Representatives standing and being counted

a. voice
b. teller
c. roll-call
d. division

Answer 219

d. division

Question 220

Which of the following statements regarding conference reports is NOT correct?

a. They can be accepted or rejected, but not amended.
b. They must be signed or vetoed by the president.
c. No decision can be made unless approved by the majority of each delegation.
d. They typically favor the view of the House.

Answer 220

d. They typically favor the view of the House.

Question 221

Once the president vetoes a bill, it___

a. is thrown out and cannot be reconsidered for another six months
b. returns to the house of origin, where an effort can be made to override the veto
c. is then directly voted on by the people and can thus be overridden
d. cannot be amended

Answer 221

b. returns to the house of origin, where an effort can be made to override the veto

Question 222

The franking privilege allows members of Congress to___

a. mail letters to their constituents free of charge
b. override a vote that doesn’t represent their consittuents
c. return campaign fund
d. earmark legislation for their constituents’ benefit

Answer 222

a. mail letters to their constituents free of charge

Question 223

The majority of nations with party competition which are headed by a directly-elected president are in ________, and most of those using the democratic alternative of a prime minister as chief executive are in _________.

a. Africa; Western Europe
b. North America; South America
c. South America; Eastern Europe
d. North and South America; Western Europe

Answer 223

d. North and South America; Western Europe

Question 224

In the United States, a unified government occurs when___

a. the same party controls the White House and both houses of Congress
b. the same party controls the White House and the House of Represenatives
c. one party controls the White House and another party controls Congress
d. there are no filibusters, and legislation is easily passed

Answer 224

a. the same party controls the White House and both houses of Congress

Question 225

Compared to a British prime minister, an American president has___ability to decide what laws get passed

a. less
b. more
c. equal
d. little or no

Answer 225

a. less

Question 226

The first plan suggested at the Constitutional Convention called for the president to be chosen by___

a. state legislatures
b. Congress
c. popular election
d. Supreme Court

Answer 226

b. Congress

Question 227

All of the following are powers of the president alone EXCEPT the power to___

a. serve as commander-in-chief of the armed forces
b. grant reprieves and pardons for federal offenses (except impeachment)
c. appoint ambassadors, judges, and high officials
d. take care that the laws be faithfully executed

Answer 227

c. appoint ambassadors, judges, and high officials

Question 228

The ___ is a process whereby electors, not citizens, from each state vote for the next president and vice president

a. state caucus
b. political convention
c. electoral college
d. national committee selection

Answer 228

c. electoral college

Question 229

Within the electoral college, small states were protected by receiving a minimum of ___ electoral votes no matter how small the population.

a. ten
b. six
c. three
d. two

Answer 229

c. three

Question 230

The Twenty-second Amendment formally limits presidents to ___ term(s) in office

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

Answer 230

b. two

Question 231

The president’s persuasive powers are aimed at three audiences. Which of the following is NOT one of those audiences?

a. fellow politicians and leaders in Washington
b. the media
c. party activists and officeholders outside Washington
d. the public

Answer 231

b. the media

Question 232

The “bully pulpit” is a phrase referring to the ___ advantageous power to guide or mobilize the American public

a. Senate’s
b. president’s
c. supreme court’s
d. media’s

Answer 232

b. president’s

Question 233

Which of the following statements regarding signing statements is NOT correct?

a. President Obama has used them despite campaigning against their use.
b. They appeared early in history, as far back as the presidency of James Monroe.
c. Members of Congress generally favor such statements.
d. They can block the enforcement of a law Congress has passed.

Answer 233

c. Members of Congress generally favor such statements.

Question 234

In a(n)___ structure of staff organization, cabinet secretaries and assistants report directly to the president.

a. intuitive
b. pyramid
c. circular
d. ad hoc

Answer 234

c. circular

Question 235

The ___ method of staff organization poses the risk of isolating or misinforming the president

a. intuitive
b. pyramid
c. circular
d. ad hoc

Answer 235

b. pyramid

Question 236

Unlike cabinet members in a parliamentary system, U.S. cabinet officers___

a. all come from the legislature
b. often alternate between jobs in federal government and ones in the private sector
c. are typically full-time career politicians
d. often make strong alliances with the White House staff

Answer 236

b. often alternate between jobs in federal government and ones in the private sector

Question 237

An impeachment charge must be approved by a majority of___

a. the Senate
b. the Supreme Court
c. US House of Representatives
d. US registered voters

Answer 237

c. US House of Representatives

Question 238

Which of the following is NOT an accurate characterization of “bureaucracy”?

a. must be responsive to public demands
b. can include a large corporation, a university or a government agency
c. a large, complex organization
d. authority divided among several managers

Answer 238

a. must be responsive to public demands

Question 239

Government by ___ refers to the idea that Washington pays state and local governments and private groups to staff and administer federal programs

a. laissez-faire
b. proxy
c. discretionary authority
d. appropriation

Answer 239

b. proxy

Question 240

The shift in the primary role of the federal bureaucracy that occurred between 1861 and 1901 was from ________ to _________.

a. commerce; regulation
b. regulation; service
c. economic regulation; tax regulation
d. federal services; state services

Answer 240

b. regulation; service

Question 241

Between 1816 and 1861, the number of federal employees increased eightfold, in large part because of increased demands on traditional functions, most notably in___

a. foreign affairs
b. Social Security office
c. the railroads
d. the Post Office

Answer 241

d. the Post Office

Question 242

___ is an economic theory that says government should not regulate or interfere with commerce.

a. Laissez-faire
b. Government by proxy
c. Removed bureaucracy
d. Discretionary authority

Answer 242

a. Laissez-faire

Question 243

Which Amendment allowed for a federal income tax?

a. Fourteenth
b. Sixteenth
c. Thirteenth
d. Fifteenth

Answer 243

b. Sixteenth

Question 244

The federal civil service system was designed to recruit people based on ___

a. merit
b. education
c. patronage
d. wealth

Answer 244

a. merit

Question 245

___ is the ability of appointed officials to choose courses of action and make policies not spelled out in advance by laws

a. Regulatory authoirty
b. Government by proxy
c. Discretionary authority
d. Appropriation

Answer 245

c. Discretionary authority

Question 246

A Postal Service worker or Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) agent would typically be part of the federal bureaucracy known as___

a. the excepted service
b. Schedule C positions
c. the merit service
d. the competitive service

Answer 246

a. the excepted service

Question 247

The Pendleton Act of 1883 started___

a. the electoral college
b. federal income taxes
c. state patronage
d. the merit system

Answer 247

d. the merit system

Question 248

Anyone who is removed from the Senior Executive Service is guaranteed___

a. ten years of salary as part of a separation agreement
b. training for the corporate world
c. a job elsewhere in government
d. health befits for up to ten years

Answer 248

c. a job elsewhere in government

Question 249

When Congress is dealing with an appropriation, it is focusing on___

a. international monetary policy
b. money formally set aside for a specific use
c. budgeting for trade deficits
d. authorizing tax reform

Answer 249

b. money formally set aside for a specific use

Question 250

A(n)___ is a requirement that an executive decision must lie before Congress for a specified period before it takes effect.

a. one house vote
b. appropriation
c. duplication
d. legislative veto

Answer 250

d. legislative veto

Question 251

Each of the following statements regarding congressional investigations is correct EXCEPT:

a. the investigative power is not mentioned in the Constitution.
b. persons who ignore subpoenas cannot be punished for contempt.
c. Congress many compel a person to appear by issuing a subpoena.
d. investigations should not be for the sole purpose of exposing a private individual’s personal affairs.

Answer 251

b. persons who ignore subpoenas cannot be punished for contempt.

Question 252

___refers to complex bureaucratic rules and procedures that must be followed to get something done.

a. Red tape
b. Iron triangle
c. Duplication
d. Imperialism

Answer 252

a. Red tape

Question 253

___ is the right of the federal courts to declare laws of Congress and acts of the executive branch unconstitutional

a. Opinion of the Court
b. A litmus test
c. Political advocacy
d. Judicial review

Answer 253

d. Judicial review

Question 254

The ___ approach is the method holding that judges should confine themselves to applying those rules stated in or clearly implied by the language of the Constitution

a. activist
b. judicial restraint
c. conservative
d. liberal

Answer 254

b. judicial restraint

Question 255

The___approach argues that judges should discover the general principles underlying the Constitution and its often vague language, amplify those principles on the basis of some moral or economic philosophy, and apply them to cases.

a. activist
b. judicial restraint
c. conservative
d. liberal

Answer 255

a. activist

Question 256

Which of the following statements concerning the Founders and the courts is INCORRECT?

a. Most Founders did not expect the Supreme Court to have the power of judicial review.
b. The Founders did not expect federal courts to play a large role in federal policymaking.
c. The Founders did not mention judicial review in the Constitution.
d. The Founders expected that the courts would find and apply existing law, not make it.

Answer 256

a. Most Founders did not expect the Supreme Court to have the power of judicial review.

Question 257

In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court held that___

a. states could tax a federal bank and Congress could supersede state rulings
b. states could tax a federal bank and the Court could declare an act of Congress unconstitutional
c. the Court could declare an act of Congress unconstitutional and Congress could supersede state rulings
d. the federal government had the power to regulate intrastate commerce and states could tax a federal bank

Answer 257

c. the Court could declare an act of Congress unconstitutional and Congress could supersede state rulings

Question 258

The Dred Scott case proved to be a catalyst for___

a. federal tax law revision
b. the separation of church and state
c. the Civil War
d. The Suffrage movement

Answer 258

c. the Civil War

Question 259

From the end of the Civil War to the 1930s, the Supreme Court was primarily occupied with___

a. the civil rights of former slaves
b. economic regulation by government
c. the rights of the criminally accused
d. First Amendment freedoms

Answer 259

b. economic regulation by government

Question 260

From 1937 to 1974, the Supreme Court focused on overturning acts of Congress that___

a. violated personal political liberties
b. regulated business
c. expanded federal power to regulate the economy
d. restricted states’ rights

Answer 260

a. violated personal political liberties

Question 261

One basic difference between a constitutional court and a legislative court is that___

a. constitutional court judges handle cases that need not be decided by the SC
b. constitutional court judges cannot be fired
c. legislative court judges are not confirmed by the Senate
d. legislative court judges cannot be fired

Answer 261

b. constitutional court judges cannot be fired

Question 262

Senatorial courtesy is an especially important consideration in nominations to___

a. legislative courts
b. courts of appeals
c. district courts
d. constitutional courts

Answer 262

c. district courts

Question 263

The litmus testing of a judicial candidate is a test of the candidate’s ___

a. professional qualifications
b. ideology
c. political apsiriations
d. political knoweldge

Answer 263

b. ideology

Question 264

When the Supreme Court issues a ___, it means four justices have agreed to hear a lower-court case

a. blue slip
b. writ of certiorari
c. in forma paurperis
d. class-action suit

Answer 264

b. writ of certiorari

Question 265

Standing, in a federal court, refers to___

a. law enabling plaintiffs to collect costs from the defendant if the defendant loses
b. an examination of the political ideology of a nominated judge
c. a brief, unsigned court opinion
d. a legal rule stating who is authorized to start a lawsuit

Answer 265

d. a legal rule stating who is authorized to start a lawsuit

Question 266

Under the rules governing standings, you cannot sue the government without its consent under the doctrine of___

a. sovereign immunity
b. stare decisis
c. diplomatic immunity
d. national supremacy

Answer 266

a. sovereign immunity

Question 267

The famous Brown v. Board of Education case, in which the Supreme Court found that Linda Brown was denied equal protection of the laws due to segregation of Topeka public schools, is an example of___

a. hypothetical damages
b. a class-action suit
c. a politcal question
d. amicus curiae

Answer 267

b. a class-action suit

Question 268

The ___ decides what cases the government will appeal from lower courts and personally approves every case the government presents to the Supreme Court.

a. solicitor general
b. attorney general
c. deputy attorney general
d. chief justice

Answer 268

a. solicitor general

Question 269

All of the following justices are part of the Court’s “conservative bloc” EXCEPT___

a. Samuel Alito
b. John Roberts
c. Ruth Bader Ginsburg
d. Clarence Thomas

Answer 269

c. Ruth Bader Ginsburg

Question 270

The principle of precedent, or the informal rule of “let the decision stand,” is known as___

a. per curiam
b. stare decisis
c. amicus
d. immunity

Answer 270

b. stare decisis

Question 271

A judicial order known as a remedy is set forth when a judge___

a. hears a cade during appeal
b. reverses existing law
c. feels he or she cannot be impartial
d. believes something to be wrong

Answer 271

d. believes something to be wrong

Question 272

Which of the following does NOT represent a check on the judiciary by Congress?

a. Congress can alter the number of judicial positions in the federal judiciary.
b. Congress can alter the jurisdiction of lower federal courts.
c. Congress can impeach judges.
d. Congress can merely ignore Constitutional provisions if a majority concur.

Answer 272

d. Congress can merely ignore Constitutional provisions if a majority concur.