Radiography Of The Foal

Question 1

Two notable structures of the carpus in the foal

Answer 1

Distal epiphysis of the radius, styloid process

Question 2

Four notable structures of the elbow in the foal

Answer 2

Epiphysis of the medial epicondyles of humorous, proximal epiphysis of ulna, proximal epiphysis of radius, distal the purposes of humorous

Question 3

3 notable structures of MCP/MTP in the foal

Answer 3

Distal purposes of MC three, proximal epiphysis of first phalanx , proximal purposes of second phalanx

Question 4

Four notable structures of the shoulder in the foal

Answer 4

Ossification center of the supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process, ossification center for the cranial part of the glenoid, ossification center of the humeral head and lesser tubercle, ossification center of the greater tubercle

Question 5

Three notable structures in the stifle of the foal

Answer 5

Distal femoral epiphysis, tibial tuberosity (apophysis) proximal tibial epiphysis

Question 6

Two notable structures of the tarsus in the foal

Answer 6

Distal epiphysis of tibia, lateral malleolus of tibia

Question 7

**Failure or delay of ossification in the carpus – which aspect collapses and what deformity is caused

Answer 7

Lateral, carpal Valgas

Question 8

**Failure or delay of ossification in the tarsus – which aspect collapses and what deformity is caused

Answer 8

Dorsal, abnormally curved appearance to the tarsus

Question 9

**Describe the grading system used for radiographic assessment of incomplete ossification

Answer 9

Grade 1 - some of the bones have some evidence of ossification,
grade 2 - all of the bones have some evidence of ossification,
grade 3 – the bones are all visible but are small and round in shape,
grade 4 - the bones are normal size and normal shape

Question 10

Angular Limb deformity medial – angular limb deformity lateral –

Answer 10

– Varus

– Valgas

Question 11

Infectious septic arthritis 
– etiology 
– signalment 
– radiographic findings 
- possible sources of bacteremia

Answer 11

– Hematogenous spread of bacteria
– foals in the first 6 to 8 weeks of life but occasionally up to 10 to 12 months
– soft tissue swelling
– umbilicus, lungs, gastrointestinal

Question 12

What are the five types of infectious polyarthritis of neonates

Answer 12

Type S – synovial, type P – physeal , type E- epiphyseal, type T – tarsal, taped C – carpal

Question 13

**Salter – Harris classification scheme for physeal fractures

Answer 13

Type one - through 
Type two - metaphyseal involvement 
Type three – epiphyseal involvement 
Type four – involvement of both the metaphysis and epiphysis
Type five – crushing

Question 14

Non-septic physeal dysplasia
 – definition 
– seen during when 
- three most common locations 
– thought to be secondary to… 
- 3 possible etiologies

Answer 14

– Developmental disease characterized by disturbance of endochondral ossification at the physis
– active growth phases
– distal radial physis (8 to 24 months), distal MC/MT3 physis (3 to 6 months), distal tibial physis
- rapid cartilage production or defects in mineralization within the primary spongiosa
– genetic, excessive nutrition or rapid growth

Question 15

Physeal dysplasia 
– Clinical signs 
– most common aspect 
– can lead to… 
– Treatment 
– prognosis

Answer 15

– Warm, painful, firm swelling at the level of the distal raduis or distal MC/MT 3 physis
– medial aspect most common but can be bilaterally symmetric or lateral
– premature physeal closure and angular limb deformity
– exercise restriction, stall rest plus/minus NSAIDS
– Good

Question 16

Physeal dyspraxia

Three radiographic findings

Answer 16

Irregular widening of the physis with bony irregularity at the metaphyseal and epiphyseal margins,

metaphysis of the bone it may appear broad – metaphyseal flaring or living,

hook-like projection at the metaphysis may also be present at the margin of the phthisis