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Construction safety > Final study guide > Flashcards

Final study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Theories of accident causations:

A

List different theories of accident causation (Domino, Human error, Human factors, accident/incident, epidemiological, systems theory, behavioral theory)

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2
Q

2- Elements of safety management

A

(Safety planning, Safety Plan Execution, Administration and reporting)

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3
Q

OSHA stands for:

A

The Act: Occupational Safety and Health Act. The Administration overseeing the act: Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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4
Q

Purpose of the Act:

A

(To ensure every working man and woman in the nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve human resources)

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5
Q

Who is exempt from the OSH Act?

A

(self-employees and employees where other federal or state agencies exercise authority over occupational safety and health)

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6
Q

Types of violations

A

(willful, serious, not serious, failure to correct)

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7
Q

Niosh

A

(National institute for occupational safety and health)

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8
Q

CFR

A

(Code of Federal Register)

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9
Q

Reasons for having a written program:

A

(ethical, regulatory, economic, and practical)

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10
Q

Elements of an effective safety program include:

A

Management commitment and employee involvement, worksite analysis, hazard prevention and control, and safety and health training

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11
Q

Types and priorities of inspections:

A

(Imminent danger, post incident investigation, complaint, referral, follow up, special emphasis, random)s,

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12
Q

OSHA’s authority to investigate include:

A

(inspection, questioning, reviewing records)

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13
Q

What is CSHO?

A

(Compliance safety and health officer, he is the one performing the inspection not issuing the citation which is done by the area director)

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14
Q

Elements of the inspection:

A

(opening conference, walk around inspection, closing conference)

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15
Q

Citations must be issued within ___ days of the inspection, and the employer has __ days to appeal

A

a. 180

b. 15

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16
Q

Focus four

A

Electrical hazards, fall hazards, struck-by hazards, and caught-in or -between hazards

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17
Q

A good safety program may result in a reduction in penalties of up to ___.

A

25%

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18
Q

Conditions for a confined space:

A

(large enough to get into and work inside of, restricted means of entry or exit, not designed for continuous occupancy)

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19
Q

Permit-required confined space (PRCS):

A

is a confined space with safe atmosphere (toxic, flammable, oxygen deficient)

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20
Q

Characteristics complicating the confined space:

A

(internal configuration, elevation, portal size, space access orientation )

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21
Q

Oxygen deficiency:

A

(<19.5%)

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22
Q

Duties of authorized entrant:

A

(know the hazards regarding the space, know signs or symptoms and consequences of exposure to hazardous atmosphere, know how to use equipment properly, communicate with the attendant, exit when there is danger)

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23
Q

Duties of attendant:

A

(same as entrant + remains outside and monitors activities inside and outside space, summon rescue, alert entrant, perform non-entry rescue)

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24
Q

Who should keep records:

A

Employers with more than 10 employees

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25
Q

Forms include:

A

300 log for recordable injuries, 300 A summary, and 301 form

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26
Q

Counting cap for lost workdays due to injury is ___.

A

180 calendar days

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27
Q

______ is non-recordable

A

1st aid

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28
Q

is a hazard resulting from water rising up from the bottom of the trench

A

Boiling

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29
Q

is downward pressure from adjoining soil pushing the trench bottom upwards

A

Heaving

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30
Q

can identify hazards and has the authority to stop work or change conditions

A

A competent person

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31
Q

done prior to work starting, as needed through the shift, after rainstorms, or other hazard increasing events

A

Inspections

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32
Q

should be at least 2 feet from edge of excavation or restraining devices should be used

A

Spoil piles and equipment

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33
Q

Trenches___or deeper must have means of egress and the maximum horizontal travel distance is ___.

A

A. 4’

B. 25 feet

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34
Q

Walkways over excavations ___ deep or more must have guardrails

A

6 feet

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35
Q

Excavations ___ or more need a P.E.

A

20 feet

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36
Q

Stairs or ladders are needed if there is a break in elevation of ___ or more

A

19 inches

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37
Q

Rails must be able to withstand a force of

A

200 pounds

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38
Q

Stairs with 4 or more risers or higher than 30 inches need at least one ___.

A

handrail

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39
Q

Stairs slope between ________ and variation in tread height or width not more than ¼ inch

A

30 and 50 degrees

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40
Q

Landings needed every ___ and must be at least _____ deep by ____ wide

A

a. 12 feet
b. 30 inches deep
c. 22 inches wide

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41
Q

At least ____ of platform beyond door swing.

A

20 inches

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42
Q

Ladder rungs spaced _____ apart

A

10 to 14 inches

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43
Q

Side rails in ladders at least ___ apart

A

11.5 inches

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44
Q

Ladder must support ____ maximum load.

A

4 times

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45
Q

Ladder slope angle is _ horizontal to _ vertical with at least _____ beyond landing surface

A

a. 1
b. 4
c. 3 feet

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46
Q

A double cleat ladder should be provided when ladders are the only means of entry or exit to a working area with __ or more employees

A

25

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47
Q

Guards required at

A

6 feet

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48
Q

4 methods of fall protection

A

(guardrails, PFAS, safety net, CAZ and written program)

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49
Q

Guardrails at __ and mid-rail at __ (+- 3 inches) and toe-board _ inches

A

a. 42 inches
b. 21 inches
c. 4 inches

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50
Q

Holes _ or more inches should be covered by a cover supporting _ x the load

A

a. 2

b. 2

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51
Q

PFAS parts are:

A

anchorage, lanyard, lifeline, and body harness

52
Q

Body belts not to be used for fall arrest.

A

Can only be used as a positioning device

53
Q

Full body harness should limit the arresting force to

A

1800 pounds

54
Q

Lanyards must have minimum breaking strength of _____ and should stop fall at ___ and have ____ arresting strength

A

a. 5,000 pounds
b. 2 feet
c. 3000 pounds

55
Q

Anchorage platform point supports at least ______ per worker and is independent of the platform

A

5000 pounds

56
Q

Fall clearance:

A

19.5 feet

57
Q

Safety net must have unobstructed fall and is _____ maximum from the working surface with up to _______ horizontal extension. It must resist _____ drop test force

A

a. 30 feet
b. 13 feet
c. 400 pounds

58
Q

To protect workers, the sequence of action is:

A

engineering controls, followed by work practice controls followed by PPE

59
Q

Hearing protection should be used if the employee’s noise exposure exceeds _______ sound level of ____.

A

a. 8 hour time weighted average

b. 90 DBA

60
Q

Types of rubber gloves include

A

nitrile (chemicals), butyl (gas and water vapors), Kevlar (cuts and abrasions), and stainless steel mesh (cuts and lacerations)

61
Q

Types of respiratory protection include:

A

air purifying and air supplying

62
Q

Respirators can be:

A

negative or positive pressure

63
Q

PAPR is:

A

power air purifying respirator

64
Q

a 6 x 25 wire rope has ______ of _____ construction each

A

a. 6 strands

b. 25 filler wire

65
Q

Types of slings include:

A

choker, basket, straight, bridles

66
Q

Wire rope shall not be used if in a length of _____ visible broken wire exceeds _____ of total number of wires.

A

a. 8 diameters

b. 10 percent

67
Q

Synthetic webbing will not be used around ______.

A

acids or phenolics

68
Q

Spreader beams can be used with a _______ to handle _____.

A

a. double vertical hitch

b. long loads

69
Q

Load on each sling leg is obtained through the equation:

A

(load/number of legs)x(l/h)

70
Q

Electrical hazards include 3 direct:

A

shock electrocution, and burns

71
Q

Electrical hazards 3 indirect hazards:

A

Falls, fires, and explosions

72
Q

Currents more than ___ causes rapid ineffective heartbeat.

A

75 ma

73
Q

Currents above ___ can paralyze muscles.

A

10 ma

74
Q

_____ or more lead to death

A

4 amps

75
Q

Minimum working distance from power lines is ____.

A

10 feet

76
Q

Extension cords must be _____ and designed for _________.

A

a. 3 wire type

b. hard or extra hard use

77
Q

Temporary wiring must have ______ and not be on the floor.

A

breaker protection

78
Q

Repairs to extension cords can only be done to _____ or larger and must have strain relief

A

12 gauge

79
Q

GFCI cuts electricity in ____ of a second, and trips at 4 – 6 ma

A

1/40th

80
Q

GFCI required on all portable generators of ___ or more

A

5 kw

81
Q

AEGP:

A

assured equipment grounding program

82
Q

Access to live parts of __ or more molts should be controlled by restricted areas or physical locations elevated 8 feet or above.

A

50

83
Q

physical locations are located ______.

A

8 feet

84
Q

Types of scaffolds are

A

supported, suspended, or man lifts

85
Q

Scaffolds must support _____ the maximum expected load

A

4 times

86
Q

Must be fully planked with no more than ___ gap between planks

A

1 inch

87
Q

Minimum plank overlap is _____ and has to be above supports

A

12 inches

88
Q

______ is not acceptable for scaffold construction

A

plywood

89
Q

Platform should be at least _____ wide and workers should use fall protection at ____ (guardrails or PFAS)

A

a. 18 inches

b. 10 feet

90
Q

Maximum distance between scaffold and workface distance is ________, and _______ in case of plastering and lathing operations

A

a. 14 inches

b. 18 inches

91
Q

Maximum overhang is _____ for platforms 10 feet or less, and ____ for more than 10 feet

A

a. 12 inches

b. 18 inches

92
Q

Rope in suspension scaffolds must ____ the load.

A

hold 6 times

93
Q

Counterweights on suspension scaffolds must be of ______, permanently marked with weight, and securely attached. No power equipment on suspension scaffolds

A

non-flowable material

94
Q

Elements of proper scaffold footing on frame scaffolds is _______.

A

baseplates, mudsills, and casters

95
Q

For mobile scaffolds, maximum height to base ratio is ____.

A

2:1

96
Q

Access must be provided when platform is > ___ above or below point of access

A

2 feet

97
Q

PE required if frame scaffolds are > _____ high

A

125 feet

98
Q

If > 3 ft wide, secure every ____. If < 3 ft wide, secure every ____.

A

a. 26 feet

b. 20 feet

99
Q

For scaffolds with height to width ratio of more than ___, they must be tied, guyed, or braced

A

4:1

100
Q

Fire extinguishers must be provided every ____ of open floor

A

3000 sq. ft.

101
Q

Minimum one extinguisher per floor and at least one near _____.

A

stairway

102
Q

What does PASS stand for

A

(Pull, Aim, squeeze, sweep)

103
Q

Maximum travel distance in protected areas should not exceed ___.

A

100 feet

104
Q

a. Flammable liquids > 1 gallon require a _____, and should not be stored near exits or stairways.

A

SAFETY CAN

105
Q

c. Classifications of fire (A, B, C, D)

A

A: wood, paper, and trash
B: Flammable liquids
C: Electrical equipment
D: Combustible metals

106
Q

Covers hazardous chemicals including health, physical, and biological hazards

A

Hazcom

107
Q

EMR

A

Experience modification rating

108
Q

MSDS

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

109
Q

UEL and LEL

A

(upper and lower explosive limits)

110
Q

How is an EMR rating calculated?

A

Calculated using the company’s accident records for the first 3 of the last 4 years of operation

111
Q

Determines worker’s compensation rates

A

EMR rating

112
Q

EMR starts with __ for a new company and goes down with good safety performance or up with accidents.

A

1.0

113
Q

List hazards of material when exposed to

fire conditions

A

NFPA – 704 Diamond

114
Q

Relates to every day exposure

A

HMIS - Hazardous materials identification system

115
Q

The nine DOT Classes

A

CLASS 1:EXPLOSIVES ( SIX DIVISIONS - 1.1 - 1.6 )
CLASS 2:GASES ( THREE DIVISIONS - 2.1 - 2.3 )
CLASS 3:FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE LIQUIDS
CLASS 4:FLAMMABLE SOLIDS ( THREE DIVISIONS - 4.1 - 4.3 )
CLASS 5:OXIDIZERS AND ORGANIC PEROXIDES ( TWO DIVISIONS - 5.1 - 5.2 )
CLASS 6: POISONS ( TWO DIVISIONS - 6.1 - 6.2 )
CLASS 7: RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL
CLASS 8:CORROSIVES
CLASS 9:MISCELLANEOUS

116
Q

Is responsible for, and

authority to control conditions on the jobsite.

A

Controlling Employer

117
Q

Employer whose employees created the hazards.

A

Creating Employer

118
Q

Employer whose employees are exposed to the hazards).

A

Exposing Employer

119
Q

Employer who has the responsibility for actually correcting the hazard.

A

Correcting Employer

120
Q

Exposing employer’s defense against citations

A
  1. create the hazard
  2. correct the hazard
  3. ability to correct hazard
  4. Notify others
  5. recognize the hazard
121
Q

UFL/LFL

A

upper flammable limit and lower flammable limit

122
Q

Particle size, Spalling and fissures, Water presence

A

Visual test

123
Q

Pocket penetrometer, roll test, sedimentation test

A

manual test

124
Q

Generally a clay soil and has a slope of 3/4:1.

A

Type A soil

125
Q

Has cohesive properties and has a slope of 1:1.

A

Type B soil

126
Q

Cohesive soil and has an unconfined compressive strength of .5 tsk or less. Has a slope of 1.5:1.

A

Type C soil

127
Q

Competent employee watches site after possible fire could occur with a fire extinguisher. For instance after welding.

A

fire watch

Construction safety (24 decks)

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