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PHASE 2A > MICROBIOLOGY > Flashcards

MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

What colour are gram positive bacteria?

A

Purple

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2
Q

What colour are gram negative bacteria?

A

Pink

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3
Q

How do we gram stain?

A

Fixation -> crystal violet->iodine treatment->discolouration -> counter stain with safranin

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4
Q

What are two types of gram positive cocci?

A

Staphylococcus (clusters)

Streptococcus (chains)

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5
Q

What differentiates between staphylococcus and streptococcus?

A 
Staph= catalase positive
Strep= catalase negative
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6
Q

What does haemolysis on blood agar differentiate?

A

Alpha and beta streptococci

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7
Q

What colour do haemolysis blood agar test?

A

Alpha- greening

Beta- clearing

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8
Q

What does the optochin test distinguish?

A

It distinguishes between optochin sensitive and resitant gram positive alpha streptocci

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9
Q

What is a optochin sensitive alpha streptococci?

A

S.Pneumoniae

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10
Q

What is a optochin resistant alpha streptococci?

A

S.viridans

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11
Q

What test distinguish different beta streptococci and which result is important?

A

The Lancefield group (A,B,C,D) with A being S.Pyogenes

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12
Q

How are staphylococcus distinguished?

A

The coagulase test

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13
Q

What does a positive coagulase positive test indicate?

A

S.Aureus

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14
Q

What staphylcoccus are negative on the coagulase test?

A

S.epidermidis and S.saprophiticus

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15
Q

What are the 2 types of gram positive bacilli?

A

Aerobic (listeria monocytogenes) and anaerobic (c.diff)

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16
Q

what bacteria are gram negative cocci?

A

N. gonorrhoea and N. meningitidis

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17
Q

What distinguishes gram negative bacilli?

A

MacConkey plate grows lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters

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18
Q

What colour are lactose fermenters?

A

Pink

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19
Q

What bacteria are lactose fermenters?

A

Gram negative bacilli such as E.coli and Kelbsiella pneumoniae

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20
Q

What test distinguishes non- lactose fermenters?

A

Oxidase test

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21
Q

What do the results of the oxidase test show?

A

Negative indicates enterobacteria and psuedmonas such as p.aeruginosa

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22
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Glycopeptides and beta lactams

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23
Q

What type of antibiotic in vancomycin?

A

It is a glycopeptide that inhibits cell wall synthesis

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24
Q

What are examples of beta lactams?

A

Penicilins (flucoxacillin and amoxicillin)

Cephalosporins (cephalexin, cefuroxime) and carbapnems (imipenem, ertapenem)

25
Q

What does trimethorpim do?

A

It inhibits folate synthsis

26
Q

What does fluroquinolones do?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase

27
Q

What does rifampicin do?

A

It binds to RNA polymerase to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

28
Q

What does metronidazole do?

A

It breaks the DNA strand

29
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Clarithromycin, erythromycin and gentamycin

30
Q

What system determines the severity of pneumonia?

A

CURB65

31
Q

Which bacterial pneumonia is associated with HIV?

A

Pneumocyctis jiroveci

32
Q

What is a complication of COPD?

A

Pneumonia caused by haemophilus influenza

33
Q

What bacteria causes legionnaires pneumonia?

A

Legionella pneumophilia

34
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim or nitrofurantroin

35
Q

What infection spreads upwards from a UTI causing loin to groin pain?

A

Pyelonephritis

36
Q

What bacteria causes cellulitis?

A

s.pyogenes and s.aureus

37
Q

What antibioctics are used to treat cellulitis?

A

flucoxacillin

38
Q

What would give to someone with suspected sepsis?

A

15L oxygen
Fluids
Broad spec antibiotics

39
Q

Sepsis warning signs?

A

Shivering, Extreme pain, Pale, Sleepy/confused, Impending doom, Sob

40
Q

Name an anti- emetic and an anti-diarrhoeals?

A

prochlorperazine

loperamide

41
Q

What antibiotics would you give to someone with infective endocarditis?

A

Amoxicillin and gentamicin

42
Q

What are signs for infective endocarditis?

A

Roth spots, splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions

43
Q

What valve does IVDU effect most commonly?

A

Tricuspid valve

44
Q

Which antibiotics cause c.diff?

A

Co-amoxicalv, Clindomycin, Cephaslosporins, ciprofloxacin and carbapenems

45
Q

What is the treatment for c.diff

A

oral vancomycin or metronidazole

46
Q

What medication is linked to c.diff?

A

PPI

47
Q

What is the treatment of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Rifampicin, Isoniszid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

48
Q

What are the complications of the TB drugs?

A

Rifampicin- red urine, hepatitis
Isoniazid- Polyneuropathy
Pyrazimide- Gout, hepatitis
Ethambutol- Optic nueritis

49
Q

What are the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

A

+have a thicker peptiglycan layer
+ have lipoteichoic acid on the outside
+ do not have lipopolysaccharides on the outside
- have 2 outer layers

50
Q

What are enterobacteria?

A

E.coli, shigella and salmonella

51
Q

What does vancomycin treat?

A

MRSA and gram +

52
Q

What is used for atypical pneumonia and Gram + treatment?

A

Clarithromycin and erythromycin

53
Q

What is the treatment for the chest infections?

A

Doxycyclin

54
Q

What is the treatment for UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim and nitrofurantoin

55
Q

What virus causes chicken pox and shingle?

A

Varicella zoster

56
Q

What causes the black plague?

A

Yersina spp

57
Q

What causes cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae

58
Q

What causes whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertusis

59
Q

What is the most common food poison cause?

A

campylobacter

PHASE 2A (14 decks)

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