69-77 Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
What is the pressure drop in psi of 60 F water flowing through 65 ft of horizontal 1-inch schedule 40 pipe at 20 gpm?
A. 1.2
B. 7.1
C. 21.0
D. 0.008
A
B. 7.1
2
Q
What is the Fanning friction factor for smooth pipes when Reynold’s number is 1E7?
A. 0.0015
B. 0.002
C. 0.0025
D. 0.003
A
B. 0.002
3
Q
The Fanning friction factor for a 10-mm galvanized iron pipe when Reynold’s number is 2E7 is approximately
A. 0.011
B. 0.014
C. 0.015
D. 0.01
A
A. 0.011
4
Q
Find the diameter of a square edged orifice used to measure a 150 gpm water flow at 60 F in a 4-inch schedule 40 pipe with a pressure differential of 3 psi.
A. 0.637 in
B. 1.243 in
C. 1.765 in
D. 2.008 in
A
A. 0.637 in
5
Q
Natural gas (viscosity=0.11 cP) is flowing through a 6-in schedule 40 pipe equipped with a 2-in orifice with flanged taps. The manometer reading is 50 in H2O at 60 F, k for natural gas is 1.3. Calculate the rate of the gas through the line in pounds per hour. Assume the molecular weight of the gas is 16.
A. 11150 lb/hr
B. 1212 lb/hr
C. 1361 lb/hr
D. 1540 lb/hr
A
C. 1361 lb/hr
6
Q
Air at 1500 kN/m2
and 370 K, flows through an orifice of 30 mm2 to atmospheric pressure. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.65, the critical pressure ratio 0.527, and the ratio of the specific heats is 1.4, calculate the mass flowrate.
A. 0.000061 kg/s
B. 0.0061 kg/s
C. 0.061 kg/s
D. 6.1 kg/s
A
C. 0.061 kg/s
7
Q
A venture meter having a throat diameter of 38.9 mm is installed in a line having an inside diameter of 102.3 mm. it meters water having a density of 999 kg/m3. The measured pressure drop across the venture coefficient Cv is 0.98. Calculate the flow rate in gal/min.
A. 0.02
B. 330
C. 245
D. 125
A
B. 330
8
Q
A heat exchanger is required to cool 20 kg/s of water from 360 K to 340 K by means of 25 kg/s water entering at 300 K if the overall coefficient of heat transfer is constant at 2 kW/m2K calculate the surface area required in a co-current concentric tube exchanger.
A. 17.5 sq. m.
B. 21.3 sq. m.
C. 19.8 sq. m.
D. 24.3 sq. m
A
B. 21.3 sq. m.
9
Q
Find the thermal conductivity of 0.5 m thick material with an area of 5 m2 and a temperature difference of 10 K if the heat transmitted during 2 hours test is 2000 kJ?
A. 2.78 W/m-K
B. 3.67 W/m-K
C. 1.52 W/m-K
D. 4.41 W/m-K
A
A. 2.78 W/m-K
10
Q
A furnace has an area of 1000 ft2 exposed to surrounding. The furnace is made of 6 inch thick insulating bricks with a thermal conductivity of 0.15 BTU/hr-ft-oF. The change in temperature across the brick is 150oF. How much fuel is required in lb/day to heat the furnace if the fuel has a heating value of 15000 BTU/lb?
A. 342
B. 26
C. 72
D. 610
A
C. 72
11
Q
A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick, 6 in. thick. The temperature of the inside of the wall is 1300 F, and the temperature of the outside of the wall is 175oF. If the mean thermal conductivity of the brick under these conditions is 0.17 Btu/hr- oF-ft, what is the rate of heat loss through 10 sq. ft of wall surface?
A. 1200 Btu/hr
B. 1940 Btu/hr
C. 2400 Btu/hr
D. 3825 Btu/hr
A
D. 3825 Btu/hr
12
Q
A plane wall is 2 m high by 3 m wide and is 20 cm thick. It is made of a material which has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m-K. At
temperature difference of 60oC is imposed on the two large faces. Find the heat flux in W/m2.
A. 150
B. 145
C. 160
D. 155
A
A. 150
13
Q
A plane wall is 2 m high by 3 m wide and is 20 cm thick. It is made of a material which has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m-K. At temperature difference of 60oC is imposed on the two large faces. Find the heat loss in watts.
A. 950
B. 790
C. 850
D. 900
A
D. 900
14
Q
A furnace is constructed with 0.20 m of firebrick (1.4 W/mK), 0.10 m insulating brick (k=0.21 W/mK), and 0.20 m of building brick (k=0.70
W/mK). The inside temperature is 1200 K and the outside temperature 330 K. Calculate the temperature at the junction of the firebrick
and the insulating brick.
A. 800 K
B. 1080 K
C. 1063 K
D. 985 K
A
C. 1063 K
15
Q
A furnace wall consists of an inner layer of refractory brick 20 cm thick and an outer layer of insulating brick 20 cm thick. The fire side of
the refractory brick is at 1000oC while the outside wall of the insulating brick is at 80oC. The thermal conductivities of the refractory brick
and the insulating brick are 1.52 W/m-oC and 0.14 W/m-oC respectively. The temperature at the junction of the two brick is
A. 342 C
B. 948 C
C. 888 C
D. 550 C
A
C. 888 C
16
Q
Calculate the heat loss per linear foot from 2-in nominal pipe (2.375-in outside diameter) covered with 1-in of an insulating material having an average thermal conductivity of 0.0375 BTY/ht-ft-o
F, Assume that the inner and outer surface temperatures of the insulation are 390oF and 80oF respectively.
A. 110 BTU/hr-ft
B. 120 BTU/hr-ft
C. 118 BTU/hr-ft
D. 126 BTU/hr-ft
A
B. 120 BTU/hr-ft
17
Q
A metallic tube ha a 3” inside diameter and 6” outside diameter. The inner side is maintained at 300oC while the outside is maintained at
100oC. What is the heat loss per foot of the pipe in Btu/hr-ft? k= 45 Btu/ht-f-ft
A. 71200
B. 71280
C. 72040
D. 73424
A
D. 73424
18
Q
A steel pipeline, 2-in schedule 40 (thickness, 3.91 mm and inside diameter, 52.50 mm), contains saturated steam at 121.1oC. The line is insulated with 25.4 mm asbestos (k=0.182 W/m-K). Assuming that the inside surface temperature of the metal wall is at 121.1oC and the
outer surface of the insulation is at 26.7oC, calculate the heat loss for 30.5 m, of pipe ksteel is 45 W/m-K.
A. 5384 W
B. 4718 W
C. 3055 W
D. 5200 W
A
D. 5200 W
19
Q
A 10% wt NaOh solution at 80oF is to be concentrated in a single effect evaporator to 40% wt. Steam is supplied at 20 psig and the vacuum pressure of the barometric condenser is 26 inHg. One hundred gallons per minute of water at 70oF is fed to the condenser and
the water leaving the condenser which includes the condensate, is at 100oF. The overall heat transfer coefficient of the evaporator is 200
BTU/hr-ft2-F. Calculate the heating surface required for the evaporator in square feet.
A. 910
B. 127
C. 520
D. 1400
A
A. 910
20
Q
The temperature of 100 g liquid water at 0 C is raised by 1 C. how many calories are consumed?
A. 4.18 cal
B. 80 cal
C. 100 cal
D. 1000 cal
A
C. 100 cal
21
Q
Air at 1 bar and 25oC enters a compressor at low velocity, discharge at 3 bars, and enters a nozzle in which it expands to a final velocity of 600 m/s at the initial conditions of pressure and temperature. If the work of compression is 240 kJ/kilogram of air, how much heat must
be removed during compression in kJ/kg?
A. -60
B. 180
C. 240
D. 300
A
A. -60
22
Q
What is the maximum work which can be obtained by the reversible isothermal expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas at 0oC from 2.24 to 22.4 L?
A. 1200 cal
B. 1220 cal
C. 1240 cal
D. 1250cal
A
D. 1250cal
23
Q
A motor is used to stir a 5 kg water at 0.4 Hp. Assuming that there was no losses and all the work went into heating, how long will it take
to increase the temperature of water by 6oC?
A. 7 min
B. 5 min
C. 10min
D. 12 min
A
A. 7 min
24
Q
A steady state device has the following conditions of the working substance at the entrance: pressure equals 100 psia and density is 62.4
lb/ft3. If 10,000 ft3/min of this fluid enters the system, determine the exit velocity if the exit area is 2ft^2
.
A. 5000 ft/min
B. 4500 ft/min
C. 3000 ft/min
D. 4000 ft/min
A
A. 5000 ft/min
25
The stream flow of a steam turbine is 50,000 lb/hr with steam specific volume of 0.831 ft3/lb, determine the exit velocity.
A. 72.6 ft/s
B. 87.6 ft/s
C. 65.9 ft/s
D. 88.7 ft/s
A. 72.6 ft/s
26
Pig iron is prepared in a blast furnace from a hematite ore. The ore contains 83% iron oxide (Fe2O3), the pig iron produced is 96% iron
and the iron in the stag contains 10% of the iron in the ore. How many tons of pig iron is produced for every 500 tons of ore?
A. 156
B. 272
C. 150
D. 353
B. 272
27
A solution containing 15% dissolved solids is to be concentrated to 60% dissolved solids. If the evaporator will evaporate 20,000 kg of
water per hour, what must be the feed rate in kilograms per hour?
A. 16803
B. 17782
C. 23333
D. 26667
D. 26667
28
Feed consisting of 20% benzene and 80% inert solid. Pure nitrogen is used to absorb the benzene and 0.7 lb of benzene is absorbed per
pound of nitrogen. What amount of nitrogen is required to absorbed all the benzene per pound of solid?
A. 0.286
B. 0.700
C. 0.451
D. 0.527
A. 0.286
29
A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned in excess air. The analysis of the dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO,
8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2 by mole. Determine the following:
I. The percentage of excess air
A. 33.61%
B. 49.81%
C. 67.21%
D. 74.72%
B. 49.81%
30
A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned in excess air. The analysis of the dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO,
8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2 by mole. Determine the following:
II. The mole percentage of methane in the fuel
A. 18.57%
B. 20.36%
C. 40.71%
D. 81.43%
A. 18.57%
30
A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned in excess air. The analysis of the dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO,
8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2 by mole. Determine the following:
III. If the fuel is composed mainly of a saturated hydrocarbon, what is the ratio of carbon to hydrogen in the fuel?
A. 271
B. 0.346
C. 0.587
D. 0.603
A. 271
31
A furnace completely burns coal containing 70%C. Analysis of the flue gas shows 15%CO2, 4%O22, 81% N2 and no CO. what is the % of
the net hydrogen in the coal?
A. 6.126%
B. 1.53%
C. 2.38%
D. 3.94%
D. 3.94%
32
A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the product of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO, 5.28% O2 and no free H2. The formula of the hydrocarbon is
A. C3H8
B. C2H6
C. C4H10
D. C2H
A. C3H8
33
A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC, and 9% ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC and
62% ash. The higher heating value of the coal “as fired” is 14,300 BTU/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of the coal that is lost in the refuse. The moisture in the refuse is due to “wetting down” to prevent dusting. It is not moisture from the original coal.
A. 4.68%
B. 5.72%
C. 9.08%
D. 12.92%
A. 4.68%
34
Coal fired in a furnace has a heating value of 13800 BTU/lb and contains 78.05%C and 1.2%S. The proximate analysis shows 4% M,
24% FC, 8% ash and the analysis of the refuse shows 8% VCM, 25% FC and 32% ash. Calculate the % of C lost in the refuse.
A. 8.0%
B. 4.22%
C. 9.5%
D. 17.0%
C. 9.5%
35
The furnace at the Bataan refinery is using a fuel gas which contains methane, ethane and 20% nitrogen. The Orsat analysis shows 4%M, 24% FC, 8% ash and the analysis of the refuse shows 8% VCM, 25% FC and 32% ash. Calculate the % of C lost in the refuse.
A. 22.76
B. 57.24
C. 50.20
D. 63.25
B. 57.24
36
19.6 grams of carbon disulfide reacted with excess oxygen to form carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide. What is the amount of sulfur dioxide formed?
A. 33 g
B. 24 g
C. 9.5 g
D. 16.3 g
A. 33 g
37
The flue gas analysis is 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2. Find the % excess if all fuel is burnt.
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
D. 50%
38
A gaseous fuel is composed of 20% methane (CH4), 40% ethane (C2H6), and 40% propane (C3H8), where all percentages are by volume. The volumetric analysis of the dry products of combustion (ie. Everything except the water) for this fuel gives 10.6 % carbon dioxide
(CO2), 3% oxygen (O2), 1% carbon monoxide (CO) and 85.4% nitrogen (N2). Determine the air fuel ratio on a mass basis for this reaction.
A. 1
B. 18
C. 23
D. 33
B. 18
39
If the reaction of 3.82 g of magnesium nitride with 7.73 g of water produced 3.6 g of magnesium oxide what is the percent yield of this reaction?
A. 94.5%
B. 78.8%
C. 46.6%
D. 49.4%
B. 78.8%
40
A saturated solution containing 1500 kg of potassium chloride at 360 K is cooled in an open tank to 290 K. if the specific gravity of the
solution is 1.2, the solubility of potassium chloride per 100 parts of water is 53.55 at 360 K and 34.5 at 290 K, calculate the amount of
crystals obtained assuming that loss of water by evaporation is negligible.
A. 4301 kg
B. 1500 kg
C. 966 kg
D. 534 kg
D. 534 kg
41
An ideal gas undergoes the following reversible process : from an initial state of 70oC and 1 bar, It is compressed adiabatically to 150oC;
then it is cooled from 150 to 70oC at constant pressure and the final expanded isothermally to its original state. Calculate Q for the entire
cycle. Take Cv=3R/2.
A. -168 Btu/lbmol
B. -1663 Btu/lbmol
C. 1495 Btu/lbmol
D. -998 Btu/lbmol
A. -168 Btu/lbmol
42
Determine the value of N in the process pvN
= constant if this process has the following end state: 100 psia, 1 cu ft; 20 psia, 6 cu ft.
A. 0.80
B. 0.90
C. 0.75
D. 0.98
B. 0.90
43
What is the change in the entropy in Btu/o
F of 1 lbmol of an ideal gas which is initially at 120oF and 1 atm pressure is expanded
irreversibly to 1 atm and 70oF? the molar heat capacity at constant pressure is 7 Btu/lbmol-oF.
A. 4.58
B. 8.95
C. 0.63
D. 0
B. 8.95
44
A steel casting [Cp=0.5 kJ/kg-K] weighing 40 kg at a temperature of 450oC is quenched in 150 kg of oil [Cp=2.5 kJ/kg-K] at 25oC. If there
are no heat losses, what is the change in entropy of the casting?
A. 26.13 kJ/K
B. -16.33 kJ/K
C. 9.80 kJ/K
D. 0
B. -16.33 kJ/K
45
A 10-L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 oC and the other part is vacuum. Calculate the entropy change of the gas after the thin membrane burst?
A. -1.26 J/K
B. 1.86 J/K
C. 2.21 J/K
D. 2.35 J/K
A. -1.26 J/K
46
Ninety kilograms of ice at 0oC are completely melted. Find the entropy change, in kJ/K if T2= 0 C.
A. 0
B. 45
C. 85
D. 110
D. 110
47
A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input rating of 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the
refrigerator is
A. 5.67
B. 4.27
C. 3.26
D. 4.44
B. 4.27
48
A 30 MW geothermal electric power plant uses hot steam from the earth at 157 deg C to heat and vaporize isobutene, which turns a
turbine that is connected to a generator. The isobutene is subsequently cooled to 27 deg C using fans and condensed back to a liquid. The overall efficiency of the plant is 40% of the ideal (Carnot) efficiency. How many joules of heat must be released to the atmosphere per second?
A. 2.5E8
B. 2.2E8
C. 3E7
D. 5.2E8
B. 2.2E8
49
Calculate the force necessary to accelerate a 20 000 lbm rocket vertically upward at the rate of 100 ft/sec2
.
A. 82 100 lbf
B. 10 000 lbf
C. 90 000 lbf
D. 70 000 lbf
A. 82 100 lbf
50
1.05 x 106
kJ of heat is added to 22.8 kilomoles of methane flowing at steady state at a temperature of 200oC. What is the change in
enthalpy in kJ/kmol?
A. 46052.6
B. 52098.0
C. 54200.5
D. 56904.1
A. 46052.6
51
What is the heat needed to raise 1 molecule of water by 10oC in ergs?
A. 1.3E-15
B. 2.6E-12
C. 2.6E-14
D. 1.3E-12
A. 1.3E-15
52
A 5.82 g silver is dissolved in nitric acid. When sodium chloride is added to the solution, all the silver is precipitated as AgCl. The AgCl
precipitated weighs 7.20 g. Determine the percentage silver in the coin.
A. 83.2%
B. 89.6%
C. 93.1%
D. 96.8%
C. 93.1%
53
A sample of impure sulfate ore contains 42.43 % Zn. Find the percentage of Pure ZnS in the sample.
A. 67.10%
B. 63.10%
C. 56.05%
D. 52.15%
B. 63.10%
54
The “roasting” of 100 g of copper ore yielded 75.4 g of 89.5 % pure copper. If the ore is composed of Cu2S and CuS with 11.0% inert impurity, calculate the percent of Cu2S in the ore.
A. 62%
B. 38%
C. 74%
D. 28%
A. 62%
55
A 1.2048 g sample of impure NaCO3 is dissolved and allowed to react with a solution of CaCl2. The resulting CaCO3, after precipitation,
filtration, and drying, was found to weight 1.0362 g. Assuming that the impurities do not contribute to the weight of the precipitate,
calculate the percent purity of the Na2CO3.
A. 86.2%
B. 88.9%
C. 91.9%
D. 93.2%
C. 91.9%
56
An 8.24-gram sample of a hydrated salt is heated until it has a constant mass of 6.20 grams. What was the percent by mass of water
contained in the original sample?
A. 14.1%
B. 32.9%
C. 24.8%
D. 75.2%
C. 24.8%
57
A furnace is fired with petroleum oil containing 80%C, 13% H, 3%S, 1% N and 3% O. Determine the moles theoretical air required for the
combustion of one kilogram of oil.
A. 0.09917
B. 99.17
C. 0.4722
D. 472.2
D. 472.2
58
A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the products of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO,
5.28% O2 and no free H2. Calculate the formula of hydrocarbon.
A. C2H6
B. C3H8
C. C4H10
D. C5H12
B. C3H8
59
A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsat analysis of the products of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% CO,
5.28% O2 and no free H2. Calculate the percent excess air supplied.
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 35%
B. 25%
60
A 100-kg batch of clay contains 20% water. It was dried to a water content of 5%. How much water is removed?
A. 15.8 lbs
B. 27.2 lbs
C. 15.8 kgs
D. 27.2 kgs
C. 15.8 kgs
61
A log mass 40 kg is dropped into a river at 0oC. If the relative density of the log is 0.80, what will be the volume of the log above the
surface?
A. 0.020 cu.m.
B. 0.040 cu.m.
C. 0.08 cu.m.
D. 0.01 cu.m
D. 0.01 cu.m
62
Water flows through an 8-in (ID=7.891 in) steel pipe at an average velocity of 6 ft/s. Downstream the pipe splits into an 8-in main and a 2 in (ID=2.067 in) bypass pipes. If the velocity in the bypass is twice the velocity of the main pipe, the volumetric flow rate [ft 3
/s] in the main
pipe is
A. 10.58
B. 5.29
C. 1.84
D. 0.25
C. 1.84
63
A pressure tank contains a fluid with weight density 81.5 lbf/ft3. The pressure in the air space is 100 psia. Fluid exits to the atmosphere from the bottom of the tank. What is the exit velocity v? The distance from the surface of the fluid exit point is 10 feet.
A. 25.4 ft/s
B. 98.5 ft/s
C. 101.7 ft/s
D. 106.6 ft/s
C. 101.7 ft/s
64
Water at 100o
F is flowing through a straight 4-in schedule 40 pipe at a rate of 1 gal/min. The length of the pipe is 10 feet.
A. 0.0378
B. 0.0454
C. 0.0504
D. 0.0252
C. 0.0504
65
Water enters a boiler at 18.33oC and 137.9 kPa through a pipe at an average velocity of 1.52 m/s. Exit steam at a height of 15.2 m above
the liquid inlet leaves at 137.9 kPa, 148.9oC, and 9.14 m/s in the outlet line. At steady state how much heat must be added per kg mass of
steam? The flow in the two pipes is turbulent.
A. 2.69E6 J
B. 3.21E8 J
C. 5.12E7 J
D. 7.0E5 J
A. 2.69E6 J
66
Water at 60 deg F is flowing through a 3-inch I.D. smooth horizontal pipe. If the Reynolds number is 35,300the pressure drop in pressure drop in psi per 100 ft of the pipe is
A. 1.67
B. 0.17
C. 6.85
D. 2.22
B. 0.17
67
A water storage tank assumes the supply water into a factory. Water is supplied to the tank through a booster pimp installed in the water line. The theoretical pupm horsepower required is 3.25 hp. What is the monthly operating cost of the pump if electric power cost on the
average is PhP 3.73/kWh. The pump is 65% efficient and operates for 12 hr a day.
A. P 3300
B. P 5000
C. P 7000
D. P 12000
B. P 5000
68
Water at 60 deg F is flowing through a 3-inch I.D. smooth horizontal pipe. A pitot tube shows a 3-inch Hg differential. If the pitot tube is
located at the center of the pipe, what is the mass flow rate of the water [lb/s]?
A. 11.61
B. 14.24
C. 31.7
D. 37.1
D. 37.1
69
What size sharp-edged orifice [inches] was in use if a flow of 120 gpm produced a 4-in Hg differential ina 4-in Schedule 40 pipe. The fluid, measured at 60 deg F, has a viscosity of 1 cSt and a specific gravity of 1
A. 2.21
B. 1.35
C. 4.67
D. 2
A. 2.21
70
A pump requires 5 Hp to transport the liquid from a lake to a reservoir. If the pump efficiency is 65% and the electricity costs P0.30/kWh,
what is the monthly cost if the pump operates 12 hours per day?
A. P280
B. P680
C. P220
D. P620
D. P620
71
The increase in power requirement of a centrifugal pump when the speed is increased by 20% is approximately
A. 100%
B. 44%
C. 73%
D. 14.5%
C. 73%
72
Oil with the viscosity of 30 cp and density of 60lb/ft 3 flows through a ½ in ID tube. Determine the velocity in ft/s below which flow is laminar?
A. 13.1
B. 16.9
C. 87.2
D. 0.63
B. 16.9
73
The distance between plates is Δy=0.5 cm, Δv=10 cm/s and the fluid is ethyl alcohol at 273 K having a viscosity of 1.77 cp. Calculate the shear stress in dyne per square centimeter.
A. 0.210
B. 0.354
C. 0.540
D. 0.720
B. 0.354
74
One method of determining the radius of capillary tube is to measure the rate of flow of a viscous fluid through a tube. Given the following:
Length of the capillary =50.2 cm
Kinematic viscosity of the fluid=0.000043 m2/s
Density of fluid =9.55 kg/m3
Pressure drop across horizontal tube =4.77 atm
Mass rate of flow through tube =0.003 kg/sec
The radius of the capillary in mm is
A. 0.18
B. 0.45
C. 0.14
D. 0.75
D. 0.75
75
he friction factor for flow through a pipe with a relative roughness of 0.004 at a Reynolds No. of 80,000 is approximately equal ro.
A. 0.052
B. 0.025
C. 0.03
D. 0,038
C. 0.03
76
Air at 250C [viscosity =0.018 cP] enters a section of 2-in schedule 40 commercial steel pipe at a gauge pressure of 310 kPa and a flow
rate of 1200 kg/h. Assuming isothermal flow, what is the pressure drop [kPa} in 60 m of pipe?
A. 350
B. 155
C. 101.3
D. 61
D. 61
77
Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60-m length of smooth 25 mm pipe. If the pressure drop falls by one-half, what will be the new
flow rate [kg/s]? Assume the following properties of sulfuric acid SG=1.84, viscosity= 25 cP.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 0.2
D. 0.124
B. 2
78
A rectangular duct 4 ft by 1.5 ft in cross section carries conditioned air. In determining the pressure drop through the duct, the equivalent
diameter in feet, may be used in the case is
A. 4
B. 1.5
C. 2.18
D. 2.75
C. 2.18
79
Water at 60 deg F flows through a 3-inch inside diameter smooth horizontal pipe. If the Reynold’s number is 353000, calculate the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity.
A. 1.05
B. 1.22
C. 1.72
D. 1.89
B. 1.22
80
Which of the following meters will have the highest permanent pressure loss?
A. Pitot tube
B. orifice
C. venturi
D. rotameter
B. orifice
81
The most economical valve for use with a large diameter pipes.
A. butterfly
B. globe
C. needle
D. gate
A. butterfly
82
The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when
A. fully open
B. ¾ open
C. ½ open
D. ¼ open
A. fully open
83
Property of fluid that converts kinetic energy to heat energy.
A. viscosity
B. fluidity
C. shear
D. resistance
B. fluidity
84
Which of the following is an extensive property?
A. temperature
B. velocity
C. pressure
D. mass
D. mass
85
If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume. This is known as:
A. Charles law
B. Archimedes principle C. Boyle’s law
D. Dalton’s law
C. Boyle’s law
86
Which of the following is the most efficient?
A. Carnot
B. Brayton
C. Otto
D. Diesel
A. Carnot
87
The achievement of a temperature below that of the intermediate surroundings is
A. air conditioning
B. drying
C. refrigeration
D. evaporation
C. refrigeration
88
Work is a
A. property of the system
B. state function
C. path function
D. state description of a system
C. path function
89
Throttling process is
A. a reversible and isothermal process
B. a reversible and constant entropy process
C. an irreversible and constant entropy
D. constant enthalpy process
D. constant enthalpy process
90
In a 3-stage compressor system whose isentropic efficiencies are reported to be 0.75, 0.85 and 0.84, respectively, stema initially at 10 kPa is compresses to a final pressure of 500 kPa. The overall efficiency of the system is
A. greater than 0.85
B. less than 0.75
C. in between 0.75 and 0.85
D. in between 0.84 and 0.90
C. in between 0.75 and 0.85
91
A vertical furnace is made up of an inner wall of firebrick 20 cm thick followed by insulating brick 15 cm thick and an outer wall of steel 1
cm thick. The surface temperature of the wall adjacent to the combustion chamber is 1200oC while that of the outer surface of steel is
50oC. The thermal conductivities of the wall material W/m-K are firebrick, 10; insulating brick 0.26; and steel, 45. Neglecting the film
resistance and contact resistance of joints, determine the heat loss per sq. m. of wall area.
A. 2.55 W/m2
B. 1.93 W/m2
C. 0.93 W/m2
D. 1.45 W/m2
B. 1.93 W/m2
92
A hollow sphere is heated so that the inside wall temperature is 300o
F. The sphere has an internal diameter of 6 inches and is 2 inches
thick. What is the heat loss from the sphere if the outer surface is maintained at 212o
F? The thermal conductivity of metal is 8 Btu/hr-ft-o F.
A. 4200 Btu/hr
B. 5080 Btu/hr
C. 5529 Btu/hr
D. 6024 Btu/hr
C. 5529 Btu/hr
93
At a temperature of 366.4oK, the vapor pressure of n-hexane and octane are 1480 and 278 mmHg, respectively. Assume the heane-octane system obey Roult’s law and the metal is 8 Btu/hr-ft-o F.
Calculate the equilibrium liquid composition (in mole fraction) of the more volatile component.
A. 0.401
B. 0782
C. 0.653
D. 0.236
A. 0.401
94
At a temperature of 366.4oK, the vapor pressure of n-hexane and octane are 1480 and 278 mmHg, respectively. Assume the heane-octane system obey Roult’s law and the metal is 8 Btu/hr-ft-o F.
Calculate the equilibrium vapor composition (in mole fraction) of more volatile component.
A. 0.245
B. 0.544
C. 0.781
D. 0942
C. 0.781
95
An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.
A. Bayer process
B. Lead chamber process
C. Leblanc process
D. contact process
D. contact process
96
Compounds added to the glass to give it the white opaque appearance so characteristics of vitreous enamels.
A. fluxes
B. opacifiers
C. electrolytes
D. whiteners
B. opacifiers
97
The union of the nonvolatile inorganic oxides resulting from the decomposition and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand,
and other constituents, ending in a product with random atomic structure. It is a rigid, undercooled liquid having no definite melting point
and sufficiently high viscosity to prevent crystallization.
A. ceramics
B. glass
C. cements
D. refractories
B. glass
98
A small hole in the wall of a cavity in an object of any kind behaves like a blackbody because any radiation that falls on it is trapped inside by reflections from the cavity wall until it is absorbed. At what rate does radiation escape from a hole of area 20 cm2 in the wall surface
whose interior temperature is 800oC?
A. 150 W
B. 142 W
C. 135 W
D. 146 W
A. 150 W
99
An equipment used to separate liquids where there is sufficient differences in density between the liquids for the droplets to settle readily.
A. decanters
B. hydrocyclones
C. coalescers
D. centrifuge
A. decanters
100
A principle type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force.
A. cyclones
B. air filter
C. gravity settler
D. impingement separator
A. cyclones
101
A fluid has a velocity of 100 ft/s when entering a piece of apparatus. With what velocity must the fluid leave the apparatus so that the
difference in entering and leaving kinetic energies is equivalent to 1 BTU/lb of the fluid?
A. 185 ft/s
B. 210 ft/s
C. 245 ft/s
D. 254 ft/s
C. 245 ft/s
102
inserted at the center of the pipe, and its leads are filled with the same oil and attached to a U-tube containing water. The reading on the
manometer is 3 ft. Calculate the volumetric flow of oil (ft3
/min)
A. 0.11
B. 1.12
C. 11.12
D. 112
C. 11.12
103
A Carnot machine operates between a hot reservoir at 200oC and a cold reservoir at 20oC. When it operates as an engine, it receives
10000 kJ/kg, find the coefficient of performance (COP), when operated as a refrigerator.
A. 1.77
B. 1.81
C. 1.63
D. 1.97
C. 1.63
104
A multiple effect evaporator produces 10,000 kg of salt from a 20% brine solution per day. One kg of steam evaporates 0.7 N kg of water
in N effects at a cost of P25 per 1000 kg of steam. The cost of the first effect is P450,000 and the additional effects at P300,000 each.
The life of the evaporator is 10 year with no salvage value. The annual average cost of repair and maintenance is 10% and taxes and insurance is 5%. The optimum number of effects for minimum annual cost is
A. 3 effects
B. 5 effects
C. 4 effects
D. 2 effects
A. 3 effects
105
The material cost at erection site for a 10,000 bbl/stream day vacuum distillation unit is P600000. Estimate the cost of a similar unit with a capacity of 30,000 bbl/stream day?
A. P715,300
B. P1,180,000
C. P890,650
D. P934,200
B. P1,180,000
106
An organic chemical is produced by a batch process. In this process chemical X and Y react to form Z. Since the reaction rate is very
high, the total time required per bath has been found to be independent of the amount of materials and each batch required requires 2 hr, including time for charging, heating and dumping. The following equation shows the relation between the pound of Z produced (lbz.) and the pound of X (lbx) and Y (lby) supplied:
Lbz = 1.5(1.1lbxlbz + 1.3lbylbz - lbx lby)^0.5
Chemical X costs P0.09 per pound, chemical Y costs P 0.04 per pound and chemical Z sell for P0.8 per pound. If half of the selling price
for chemical Z is due to cost other than raw materials, the maximum profit obtainable per pound of chemical Z is
A. P0.3 per lbz
B. P0.5 per lbz
C. P0.12 per lbz
D. P0.25 per lbz
C. P0.12 per lbz
107
The rate of formation of B in terms of rA (where rA=-kCACB^2) is
A. 1/2rA
B. rA
C. 2rA
D. -1/2rA
D. -1/2rA
108
What is the reaction rate constant, K, for third order reaction?
A. (L/mol)/s
B. (L/mol)/s2
C. (L/mol)^2/s
D. (L/mol)^3/s
C. (L/mol)^2/s
109
Consider the reaction 2H2 + O2 -> 2H2O. What is the ratio of the initial rate of appearance of water to the initial rate of disappearance of
oxygen?
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 2:2
D. 3:2
B. 2:1
110
The net rate of reaction of an intermediate is
A. 0
B. 2
C. >0
D. <0
A. 0
111
A catalyst can
A. shift the equilibrium reaction
B. increase the rate constant of the forward reaction
C. diminish the activation energy
D. decrease the pressure
C. diminish the activation energy
112
. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because ______.
A. The heat is more evenly distributed
B. The boiling point is elevated
C. The higher pressure tenderizes the food
D. A large flame must be used
B. The boiling point is elevated
113
What is the order of the reaction wherein the half-life increases as the initial concentration increases?
A. 1st order
B. zero order
C. 2nd order
D. 3rd order
B. zero order
114
Catalyst is a substance which
A. Increase the speed of chemical reaction
B. Decrease the speed of chemical reaction
C. Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
D. Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction
C. Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
115
For the reaction 2A(g) + 3B(g) -> D(g) + 2E(g) with rD= kCACB^2 the reaction is said to be
A. non-homogeneous
B. elementary
C. non-elementary
D. consecutive
C. non-elementary
116
It is the amount of energy in excess of the average energy level which the reactants must have in order for the reaction to proceed.
A. bond energy
B. activation energy
C. free energy
D. heat energy
B. activation energy
117
A reaction A -> 3B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in
6 minutes. The final conversion is
A. 0.33
B. 1
C. 0.50
D. Data insufficient, can’t be predicted
B. 1
118
A gas decomposition reaction has an activation energy of 245 kJ/mol. The rate of the reaction can be accelerated by using a platinum catalyst where the activation energy for the resulting catalyzed reaction is lower at 136 kJ/mol. Using Arrhenius law and assuming the
frequency factor remains the same, the catalyzed reaction is faster than the original reaction by a factor of
A. over 100,000 but less than a million
B. over 20 million
C. over 100 but less than 200
D. over 2 but less than 3
B. over 20 million
119
Batch reaction 2D + E -> F has a conversion factor expressed by the equation r=0.24t0.5 where r = conversion factor based on the
reactant E; t = time in hours which ranges from 0.5 to 16 hours per batch depending upon the process variables. The average molecular
weight of the feed is 60 and a density of 1.4 g/cc. The feed consists of 2 kgmole of D and 1 kgmole of E. the charging, cleaning and
discharging time per batch is 2.5 hrs and the volume of the reactor is twice the volume of the feed. Assume 300 days per year and 12
hours operation/day. The volume of the reactor in liters is
A. 257
B. 275
C. 300
D. 527
A. 257
120
An optimum number of the effects for a given application is a function of the
A. capacity
B. economy
C. efficiency
D. none of these
B. economy
121
A method of selecting alternates by the comparison of all the pertinent annual direct costs plus the capital recovery costs.
A. present worth method
B. pay-out time method
C. annual cost method
D. rate-of-return method
C. annual cost method
122
In economic balance in evaporation, the common variable is the number of effects, an increasing number of which ____ the fixed costs.
A. increases
B. does not affect
C. decrease
D. may increase or decrease
A. increases
123
It is measure of profitability defined as the annual profit before taxes, divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. return on investment B. payback period
C. annual return
D. present worth
A. return on investment
124
Gross income less gross expense before deducting provision for income tax is
A. net income
B. gross proceeds
C. gross profit
D. gross sales
C. gross profit
125
It is also known as the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
A. discount
B. principal
C. amortization
D. interest
D. interest
126
Factors other than economic ones which at present time cannot be evaluated in terms of dollars and cents.
A. reducible factors
B. irreducible factors
C. indirect costs
D. sunk cost
B. irreducible factors
127
The realization value of a plant or equipment which is still reusable is still reusable is the
A. scrap value
B. par value
C. salvage value
D. book value
C. salvage value
128
It is the design of equipment or the selection of operations conditions whereby the increasing costs are balance by the decreasing costs
to give the greatest economic return.
A. replacement
B. break-even analysis
C. economic balance
D. equivalent alternates
C. economic balance
129
When using net present worth calculation to compare two projects; which of the following could invalidate calculation?
A. differences in the magnitude of the project
B. evaluating over different time periods
C. mutually exclusive projects
D. non-conventional cash flow
B. evaluating over different time periods
130
The uniform annual end of year payment to repay a debt in years, with an interest rate I, is determined by multiplying the capital recovery factor by the
A. average debt
B. initial debt plus interest
C. initial debt
D. average debt plus interest
C. initial debt
131
What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
A. identical salvage values
B. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flow
C. different salvage values
D. different equivalent uniform annual cash flow
D. different equivalent uniform annual cash flow
132
Design based on conditions giving the least cost per unit time or maximum profit per unit of production
A. limit
B. plant design
C. breakeven
D. optimum economic design
D. optimum economic design
133
Cost in index use to estimate equipment cost of
A. quotations given for different equipment capacity
B. quotations of different time period
C. similar equipment quotations indifferent years
D. equipment cost quoted at different capacities
C. similar equipment quotations indifferent years
134
It is equal to the gross annual sales divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. turnover ratio
B. capital ratio
C. investment ratio
D. acid ratio
A. turnover ratio
135
It is the rate of earning that must be achieved by an investment in order for it to be acceptable for the investor.
A. MARR
B. ROI
C. PBP
D. acid ratio
A. MARR
136
The initial cost of a dam is P25 M. the annual maintenance cost is P0.20 M. If the interest rate is 10% per year, determine the capitalized
cost.
A. P27M
B. P28.5
C. P30M
D. P32M
A. P27M
137
The projected annual after-tax profit of a project which would need an investment of P1M is as follows;
Year Annual after-tax profit
1 P 100,000
2 P 200,000
3 P 300,000
4 P 400,000
5 P 500,000
6 0
Find the ROI in %
A. 0.25
B. 0.025
C. 2.5
D. 25
D. 25
138
An old highway bridge may be strengthened at a cost of P9000 or it may be replaced for P40,000. The present salvage value of the old
bridge is P13,000. It is estimated that the reinforced bridge will last for 20 years with an annual cost of P500 and will have a salvage value
of P10,000 at the end of 20 years. The estimated salvage value of the new bridge after 25 years is P15,000. The maintenance for the new
bridge will be P100 annually. Which is the best alternative at 8%? Assume the bridge will be there forever.
A. keep old bridge
B. replace old bridge
C. need more data
D. either
A. keep old bridge
139
A present investment of P10, 000 is expected to yield an income of P1500/yr for 15 years. What is the equivalent rate of return?
A. 10.2%
B. 12.4%
C. 14.1%
D. 16.5%
B. 12.4%
140
The following table contains the summary of how a project’s balance changes over its 5-year service life at 10% interest (MARR).
End of period Project balance
0 $-1,000
1 $-1,500
2 $600
3 $900
4 $1,500
5 $2,000
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The required additional investment at the end of period 1 is $500
B. The net present worth of the project at 10% interest is $1,242
C. The net future worth of the project at 10% interest is $2,000
D. The rate of return of the project should be greater than 10%
A. The required additional investment at the end of period 1 is $500
141
A company invests $2000 in a project over five years. At the end of every year, for the first three years the project generates $500. At the
end of the fourth year the project generates no money. At the end of the fifth year, the project is terminated. How much must the project generate at the end of the fifth year to realize a 13% return on the initial investment?
A. $14001520
C. $1490
142
What is the present worth of the following cash flow series?
End of period Project balance
1 $1,900
2 $-1000
3 $700
The interest for the first two years will be 12% compounded monthly and then it will change to 10% compounded quarterly.
A. $1,380
B. $1,400
C. $1,425
D. $1,600
B. $1,400
143
How long will it take for an investment to triple at an interest rate 7%, compounded monthly?
A. between 10 and 12 years
B. between 15 and 16 years
C. between 12 and 14 years
D. between 17 and 50 years
B. between 15 and 16 years
144
Company Z is considering the purchase of a new equipment for a replacement. Its initial cost is $250,000. The equipment requires an
annual maintenance cost of $15,000. Also to be taken into account is an additional overhauling cost ( at the end of every 7 years) of $ 80,0000. The company plans to use the equipment for an infinite period. Find the capitalized equivalent cost of this investment at an interest rate of 12%.
A. between $439,001 and $442,000
B. between $445,001 and $448,000
C. between $442,001 and $445,000
D. greater than $448,000
A. between $439,001 and $442,000
145
Assume that you deposited $100,000 in a savings account paying an interest of 6% compounded monthly. You wish to withdraw $2000 at the end of each month. How many months will it take to delete the balance?
A. less than 47 months
B. between 52 and 55 months
C. between 48 and 51 months
D. between 56 and 59 months
D. between 56 and 59 months
146
What is the acid test ratio?
A. the ratio of owners’ equity to total current liabilities
B. the ratio of all assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
C. the ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
D. the ratio of profit after taxes to equity
C. the ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
147
As a particle size is reduced
A. screening becomes progressively more difficult
B. screening becomes progressively easier
C. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
D. surface area of solid decreases
A. screening becomes progressively more difficult
148
No heat cycle is possible without the rejection of some heat. One of the useful statements of the second law of thermodynamics.
A. false
B. partly false
C. does not follow
D. true
D. true
149
When the thermodynamics system undergoes a cyclic process its internal energy change is
A. infinite
B. negative
C. positive
D. zero
D. zero
150
Reversible adiabatic operation has no change in
A. heat
B. enthalpy
C. temperature
D. entropy
D. entropy
151
The work output of every heat engine
A. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
B. equals that of a Carnot engine with the same intake and exhaust temperatures
C. depends only on its intake temperature
D. depends only on its exhaust temperature
A. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
152
The area enclosed by the p-V graph of a complete heat engine cycle equals
A. the heat intake per cycle
B. the heat output per cycle
C. the work done on the engine per cycle
D. the work done by the engine per cycle
D. the work done by the engine per cycle
153
A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is
A. equal to its input temperature
B. less than its input temperature
C. 0oC
D. 0K
D. 0K
154
A process not involved in the operating cycle of a Carnot engine is
A. an isothermal expansion
B. an isobaric expansion
C. an adiabatic compression
D. an adiabatic expansion
B. an isobaric expansion
155
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of
the payment
A. deferred annuity
B. progressive annuity
C. delayed annuity
D. simple annuity
A. deferred annuity
156
Heat transfer by conduction occurs
A. only in liquids
B. only in solids
C. only in gases and liquids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids
157
Heat transfer by convection occurs
A. only in gases
B. only in liquids
C. only in gases and liquids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids
C. only in gases and liquids
158
What is the equivalent of Prandtl number in convective transfer?
A. Sc
B. Sh
C. Bi
D. Pe
A. Sc
159
What are the two contacting phase in leaching?
A. extract phase and raffinite phase
B. feed phase and solvent phase
C. solvent phase and solute phase
D. overflow and underflow
D. overflow and underflow
160
To determine the minimum ratio of the extraction solvent to feed solvent, one has to know
A. the distribution coefficient
B. only the concentration of solute in the feed solvent
C. only the concentration of solute in the extraction solvent
D. number of stages in the system
A. the distribution coefficient
161
Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is
A. 1
B. <1
C. >1
D. 0
A. 1
162
It is a dimensionless group which is proportional to the ratio of inertial force and surface tension force.
A. Bond number
B. Froude number
C. Weber number
D. Power number
C. Weber number
163
A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as
A. compressor
B. motor
C. pump
D. turbine
C. pump
164
What do you call the heating of an ore to bring about reaction with the furnace atmosphere.
A. smelting
B. leaching
C. roasting
D. calcination
A. smelting
165
The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by
A. increase in rate of drying
B. increase temperature both on the surface and within the solid
C. decrease temperature
D. none
B. increase temperature both on the surface and within the solid
166
The dew point of air indicates
A. the actual temperature of the air
B. the temperature at which its volume per unit weight of dry air is calculated
C. the temperature at which its enthalpy is calculated
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
167
It is defined as the percentage ratio of the partial pressure of the vapor to vapor pressure of the liquid at the existing temperature.
A. relative saturation
B. percentage saturation C. relative humidity
D. saturation
C. relative humidity
168
It refers to adherence to a surface.
A. adsorption
B. absorption
C. desorption
D. osmosis
A. adsorption
169
A control structure with two feedback controller with the output of the primary controller changes the set point of the secondary controller
whose output goes to the final controller.
A. feedforward control
B. ratio control
C. cascade control
D. override control
C. cascade control
170
Which control system is used for multi-input, multi-output system?
A. cascade control
B. feedbackward control
C. feedforward control
D. model predictive control
D. model predictive control
171
Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35oC and 18oC respectively) is passed through a water spray chamber
maintained at 15oC. The air will be
A. cooled and humidified
B. cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
C. cooled at the same relative humidity
D. cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
D. cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
172
Which product is produced commercial by the Haber process?
A. sulfuric acid
B. ammonia
C. propane
D. calcium
B. ammonia
173
Which of the following types of radiation will be stopped by a piece of paper?
A. alpha
B. neutron
C. gamma ray
D. x-ray
A. alpha
174
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
A. D α T
B. D α T^0.5
C. D α T^1.5
D. D α T^3
C. D α T^1.5
175
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
A. D α T^1.5
B. D α 1/P^0.5
C. D α 1/P
D. D α 1/P^1.5
C. D α 1/P
176
In case of an absorber, the operating
A. line always lies above the equilibrium curve
B. line always lies below the equilibrium curve
C. line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
D. velocity is more than the loading velocity
A. line always lies above the equilibrium curve
177
In case of desorber (stripper)
A. the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
B. the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
C. temperature remains unaffected
D. temperature always increase
B. the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
178
Absorption factor is defined as
A. slope of the equilibrium curve/ slope of the operating line
B. slope of the operating line/slope of the equilibrium curve
C. slope of the operating line-slope of the equilibrium curve
D. slope of the operating line x slope of the equilibrium curve
B. slope of the operating line/slope of the equilibrium curve
179
If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L=non-volatile solvent in liquid stream, then the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
A. L/G
B. G/L
C. always<1
D. none of these
A. L/G
180
200 mesh screens means
A. 200 openings/cm2
B. 200 opening/cm
C. 200 opening/inch
D. 200 opening/in2
C. 200 opening/inch
181
It is a portable platform on which packaged material can be handled and stored
A. pallets
B. steel drums
C. hopper trucks
D. baler bags
A. pallets
182
It is the angle at which a material will rest on a pile.
A. angle of inclination
B. angle of repose
C. contact angle
D. banking angle
B. angle of repose
183
Drag coefficient in hindered settling is
A. less than in free settling
B. not necessarily quarter than in free settling
C. equal to that in free settling
D. greater than in free settling
D. greater than in free settling
184
Aqua regia is prepared by adding conc. HNO3 to
A. conc. H2SO4
B. conc. H3PO4
C. conc. HCl
D. conc. HBr
C. conc. HCl
185
Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity with changes in temperature?
A. viscosity index
B. viscosity factor
C. coefficient of viscosity D. viscosity ratio
A. viscosity index
186
A screen is said to be blinded when
A. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
B. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
C. the screen is plugged with solid particles
D. its capacity is abruptly increased
C. the screen is plugged with solid particles
187
The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
A. intermediate material B. minus material
C. plus material
D. oversize
A. intermediate material
188
The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes.
A. butterfly
B. globe
C. needle
D. gate
A. butterfly
189
Multistage compressors are in industry because, they
A. reduce the cost compressor
B. resemble closely to isothermal compression
C. reduce the size requirement
D. are easy to control
B. resemble closely to isothermal compression
190
The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when
A. fully open
B. ¾ open
C. ½ open
D. ¼ open
A. fully open
191
Found exclusively in the milk of mammals
A. lactose
B. fructose
C. glucose
D. maltose
A. lactose
192
Which of the following provides the basis of radiation heat transfer?
A. Newton’s law
B. Torricelli’s theorem
C. Stefan Boltzmann Law D. Fourier’s Law
C. Stefan Boltzmann Law
193
What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature?
A. absorptivity
B. conductivity
C. emissivity
D. reflectivity
C. emissivity
194
If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call this manometer?
A. continuous manometer
B. free end manometer
C. open manometer
D. differential manometer
C. open manometer
195
An instrument use to measure small pressure
A. venturi
B. orifice
C. aneroid
D. manometer
D. manometer
196
If Ca is plotted versus time and a straight line is observed, the reaction is said to be
A. first order
B. second order
C. zero order
D. fractional order
B. second order
