7 - Operational Standards Flashcards
(390 cards)
1
Q
What is the expected priority sequence for flight crew tasks?
A
Aviate, Navigate, Communicate.
2
Q
When can deviation from procedures occur?
A
Only in the interest of safety and under unusual circumstances.
3
Q
What must crew members do in time-critical situations?
A
Apply procedures from memory without referencing publications.
4
Q
What must crew members be able to locate timely?
A
Non time-critical information needed for daily operations.
5
Q
Who operates Air Canada flights?
A
Fully qualified flight crew employed by Air Canada.
6
Q
Who is in command during flight operations?
A
The Pilot-in-Command.
7
Q
What is the order of command succession if the PIC is incapacitated?
A
Supervisory/Relief Captain, Designated FO, Operational Relief FO, Cruise Relief Pilot.
8
Q
What are the priorities during flight operations?
A
- Safety, 2. Comfort and service, 3. Operational efficiency.
9
Q
What does operational efficiency include?
A
SOP compliance, schedule adherence, and fuel-saving techniques.
10
Q
Can emergencies be simulated during flight?
A
No, per CARs and ICAO ISARPs.
11
Q
How is the Pilot Flying (PF) designated?
A
By the Pilot-in-Command.
12
Q
What are the PF and PM responsibilities?
A
PF flies the aircraft, PM monitors and assists.
13
Q
How is control transferred between pilots?
A
‘You have control’ – ‘I have control’ or vice versa.
14
Q
What must the PF maintain access to?
A
Thrust levers and flight controls at all times.
15
Q
What happens during multi-crew troubleshooting?
A
One crew member is designated to fly and maintain ATC watch.
16
Q
What defines a critical action?
A
Actions that could exceed aircraft limits, breach ATC clearance, or cause irreversible system changes.
17
Q
What are examples of critical systems?
A
Thrust levers, fuel switches, fire handles, extinguisher switches, IDG/CSD disconnects.
18
Q
What must be cross-checked and verbally confirmed?
A
Configuration, altitudes, airspeeds, control transfers, system changes, performance entries.
19
Q
How many phases of flight has Air Canada defined?
A
17 phases.
20
Q
Why does Air Canada use phase of flight structure?
A
To convey operational information logically and consistently across documents.
21
Q
What are considered critical phases of flight?
A
All flight below 10,000 feet AAE, and all ground operations when the aircraft is in motion.
22
Q
What must be done with loose objects during critical phases of flight?
A
Remove or secure them as per flight deck control procedures.
23
Q
Can a flight crew member vacate a control seat below 10,000 feet AAE for transfer of control?
A
No, both flight crew members must be at the controls at all times below 10,000 feet AAE.
24
Q
How must all outside communications be conducted below 18,000 feet ASL?
A
Using headsets and boom microphones, except if MEL relief is applied.
25
What are the main sterile cockpit principles during critical phases?
Only required operational conversation; only essential activities and communications.
26
Should flight crews rely on EGPWS alone to monitor rate of descent in low altitude structure?
No, situational awareness must be increased and not rely solely on EGPWS.
27
What must the PIC do to manage distractions during climb to cruise and descent from TOD?
Use judgement and authority to minimize distractions and enforce critical phase of flight policy below 10,000 feet AAE.
28
Which regulations must be followed during U.S. operations?
The most restrictive of Canadian and U.S. regulations/OpSpecs.
29
Does AFS use relieve crew of responsibility for safe flight?
No, flight crew are still responsible for flying safely and efficiently.
30
What are key principles for using AFS?
Monitor status/performance, intervene as needed, announce changes, cross-check selections, compare raw/computed data, keep one head up, brief special duties.
31
When is manual flying for proficiency recommended?
Only when conditions and workload permit.
32
What are crews responsible for during managed or manual vertical guidance?
Actively monitoring and ensuring all cleared altitude/constraints are met.
33
What should the altitude selector normally be set to?
The ATC cleared altitude.
34
What should flight crew do if unsure of the final cleared altitude?
Confirm with ATC.
35
When can the altitude selector be set to an intermediate crossing restriction?
If a restriction must be met prior to reaching the final cleared altitude.
36
What must be included in the verbal crosscheck if a different altitude is selected?
Both the final cleared altitude and the selected altitude.
37
What must be done if a climb is followed by a 'pilot discretion' descent clearance?
Keep selector at the higher altitude until level off, then set to the discretionary descent altitude.
38
What are examples of typical prescribed minimum altitudes?
MSA, MDA/H, MEA, MOCA, MORA, MVA, TAA, and other authority-prescribed minimums.
39
When may flight crews descend below prescribed minimum altitudes?
Takeoff/landing, established on an instrument procedure, under radar control, cleared visual/VFR with obstacle separation, or required visual reference met.
40
Who monitors the PF during Cockpit Check?
The PM monitors the PF, and then a crew member remains in the flight deck to prevent changes.
41
What is the collision avoidance responsibility of all flight crew members?
Maintain continuous lookout for conflicting traffic during all ground movement and flight in VMC, except when other duties take precedence.
42
Who ensures checklist compliance?
The Pilot-in-Command.
43
When should QRH procedures and checklists be performed from paper or ECL?
Unless superseded by Air Transmittal Bulletin (ATB).
44
How are memorized drills called for and completed?
Called by the PF, actioned by crew, reviewed if interrupted, no open items, announced complete.
45
When do memorized procedures take place and what is the review process?
Various phases of flight, actioned by PF/PM, reviewed if interrupted, no open items, may be supported by checklist.
46
Who reads and actions written checklists and what is required if interrupted?
Read by FO/PM, actioned by appropriate crew, reviewed if interrupted, no open items, announced complete.
47
Who calls, reads, and closes mechanical checklists? Can they be interrupted or have open items?
Called by PIC, read by FO, actioned by crew, closed by FO; may be interrupted and have open items.
48
What is required for abnormal electronic checklist use?
Review if interrupted, action in sequence, not cleared without confirmation.
49
When are written procedures used and can they have open items?
Used for non-routine or complex procedures, may have items left open.
50
What are initial actions upon detecting an emergency or abnormal condition?
Immediately inform crew, silence aural warnings, rearm master warnings after determining cause.
51
What is the process for memorized drills in emergencies?
PM completes from memory, indicates switch/control before actuation, receives PF confirmation, announces 'Drill complete.'
52
When should PF call for drills and checklists during departure and approach?
Drills: minimum 400' AGL on departure, by 1,000' AGL on approach; Checklists: same altitudes unless otherwise directed.
53
How is a checklist completed after memorized drills in emergencies?
PF calls for checklist, PM reads aloud, calls action as completed, and announces checklist complete.
54
How must all communications for agencies relating to an aircraft in flight be made?
Through Flight Dispatch, including communications originating from or to agencies such as maintenance, medical, security, customs, and handling agencies.
55
What are exceptions to making communications through Flight Dispatch?
Situations on the ground involving exceptional circumstances or Air Canada maintenance at capable stations.
56
What should be considered for transmission methods?
Urgency of communication; use VHF, HF, ACARS, SATCOM, or relay via third parties as appropriate.
57
What is required for all radio communications?
Standard phraseology, proper VHF/HF procedures, clear speech, readbacks, and ICAO Flight ID inclusion.
58
What should be used to refer to waypoints with ATC?
The Navaid identifier rather than the location name.
59
What must be checked if a PM leaves and returns to the Flight Deck?
Audio panels are set correctly for ATC communication and briefed for changes.
60
When should flight crew seek clarification from ATC?
If any member does not fully understand an instruction.
61
What are situations where understanding ATC clearance is critical?
Clearances in high terrain, heading/altitude/flight level changes, changing frequencies, route/waypoint changes, holding short, and runway crossing/entry.
62
What should crew do if a clearance could cause an unstable approach?
Do not accept the clearance.
63
How should ATC clearance be handled if only one crew member is monitoring?
Confirm the frequency with ATC upon return if any doubt exists.
64
When must ATC be advised of non-compliance?
When clearances can’t be complied with (engine-out, emergency descent, deviations, etc.).
65
When can noise abatement procedures be disregarded?
When safety of flight dictates.
66
What types of hazards must flight crew report to ATC?
Atmospheric conditions, foreign object hazards, security breaches, wildlife, and CNS facility issues.
67
What should flight crew do if onboard equipment failures degrade CNS capability?
Advise ATC and Dispatch; decide best action (continue, reroute, descend, or divert).
68
What must the PM do when selecting gear or flaps?
Monitor indications and immediately advise the PF if abnormal operation is observed.
69
How should navigational aids be verified and identified?
Verify, identify, and call the station/mode selected (e.g., 'Number 1 ILS tuned and identified on Runway 05 ILS').
70
What will be used for all takeoff, approach, and landing phases?
A current QNH setting.
71
What must crews do when operating in QFE airspace?
Request a QNH altimeter setting prior to descending below the Transition Level.
72
When must seatbelts and shoulder harnesses be worn?
At duty position below 10,000 ft AAE, during critical phases, moderate/severe turbulence, or as directed by PIC.
73
When must the seat belt sign be on?
During fueling, flight deck checks, taxi, takeoff, landing, and flight below 10,000 ft AAE.
74
When can the seat belt sign be turned off below 10,000 ft?
At PIC's discretion to allow cabin service on short flights.
75
What should the PIC do if turbulence is anticipated to exceed light?
Instruct Cabin Crew to discontinue service, occupy a seat, and fasten seat belts.
76
If turbulence is anticipated to exceed light turbulence, what must the Pilot-in-Command instruct the Cabin Crew to do?
Discontinue service, secure the cabin, occupy a seat, and fasten their seat belt.
77
Who must the In-Charge Flight Attendant consult with before resuming duties after turbulence while the seat belt sign is still on?
Pilot-in-Command
78
According to CARs, what must the In-Charge Flight Attendant do if turbulence is encountered and considered necessary?
Direct passengers and flight attendants to discontinue service, secure the cabin, occupy a seat, and fasten seat belts; advise the Pilot-in-Command if this action is taken.
79
After turbulence that may have caused concern, what should the Pilot-in-Command do?
Make a brief PA announcement to alleviate passenger anxieties.
80
Who is authorized by Transport Canada to conduct operations using P-EFBs during all phases of flight?
Air Canada
81
What must flight crew members adhere to when using P-EFBs?
Air Canada Code of Conduct, procedures, and policies.
82
Which devices may be connected to the P-EFB during flight operations?
Only Air Canada authorized and/or assigned peripheral devices.
83
Where must the P-EFB be secured and viewable during all critical phases of flight?
In the Air Canada approved Securing Device.
84
What is the rule for downloading software or content onto the P-EFB?
No offensive, malicious, or compromising software or content shall be downloaded.
85
What are the approved hardware items for Air Canada's P-EFB?
Air Canada issued iPad, charging accessories, and protective case.
86
Where is a Securing Device for the P-EFB installed?
In each aircraft's designated securing location.
87
What type of software applications are approved for use on P-EFBs?
Only those listed in the 'FOPs App Store' app.
88
Are commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) GPS devices permitted for use with the P-EFB?
Yes, if they are designed to enhance Location Services.
89
What is required before a flight crew member updates the P-EFB operating system?
Prior written consent from Flight Operations.
90
What risk is there if the P-EFB OS is updated without consent from Flight Operations?
The device may become unserviceable due to application or data incompatibility.
91
How are operational apps deployed to the P-EFB?
Via Mobile Device Management (MDM) software through the 'FOPs App Store' app catalog.
92
What should a flight crew member do if an operational app is deleted from the P-EFB?
Recover the app by going to the 'FOPs App Store' link on the device home screen and selecting the appropriate app.
93
What app provides geo-referenced enroute moving maps and Ownship display?
Jeppesen FliteDeck Pro X (JeppFD Pro)
94
Should Ownship position be used for navigation?
No, it is for situational awareness only.
95
What is WSI PilotBrief Optima authorized for?
Pre-flight weather analysis and inflight strategic weather use.
96
What battery charge level should the P-EFB be at before commencing flight duty?
At least 80%
97
What should flight crew consider to extend P-EFB battery life during flight?
Dim screen brightness to the lowest practical level and put device in sleep mode when not used.
98
Can P-EFBs be charged from cabin electrical sources?
Yes, but only during non-critical phases of flight and using AOM approved methods.
99
Where should the P-EFB be stored when not secured in the securing device?
Flight crew member’s flight bag or an appropriate stowage location as described in the AOM.
100
Is it ever acceptable to place the P-EFB on the floor or glare shield?
No, never.
101
What must each P-EFB remain enrolled in for security purposes?
Mobile Device Management (MDM) software with mandatory passcode.
102
Is it permitted to modify, add, or remove software on the P-EFB?
No, tampering or jail breaking is strictly prohibited.
103
What should flight crew do in countries limiting the import of PEDs?
Coordinate with station manager if customs refuses retention of the P-EFB, and secure it at the station office until outbound departure.
104
Where can flight crew find an updated list of countries limiting PED import?
In the AC P-EFB app under Flight Operations / P-EFB Information.
105
How can flight crew obtain technical support for the P-EFB?
Contact efbsupport@aircanada.ca
106
Who is authorized to perform repair or replacement of Air Canada issued P-EFBs and accessories?
Only the EFB Support Team
107
How can flight crew obtain a loaner P-EFB for short-term use?
Request one at any crew base or Air Canada simulator training facility.
108
How should broken P-EFBs be returned?
Return them to the Base Manager or Maintenance Liaison Officer (MLO).
109
What should flight crew do if their P-EFB is stolen?
File a police report and submit the report number to the Base Manager or MLO.
110
What are some best practices for P-EFB security while abroad?
1. Avoid public internet access points unless necessary. 2. Use only Air Canada supplied software on Wi-Fi. 3. Limit Wi-Fi to trusted local networks. 4. Avoid charging in unknown USB ports. 5. Disable Bluetooth. 6. Avoid updating apps. 7. Use Airplane mode whenever possible.
111
What is Air Canada's policy on Portable Electronic Devices (PED) on the flight deck?
PEDs are prohibited on the flight deck except for reading operational/recreational material, following strict rules: must be in Airplane Mode or, if not possible, turned off and stowed. No audio/video entertainment. Not considered a PED if used as a P-EFB for operations.
112
What should you do if a PED is lost during a flight and not found before leaving the aircraft?
Report the loss to Maintenance and make an entry in the Aircraft Defect Log.
113
When is reading non-operational material permitted on the flight deck?
Only during minimal workload, cruise phase, for a reasonable time at the Captain's discretion, and only if both crew remain in their seats and jumpseat is not occupied by non-crew.
114
What Wi-Fi connections are authorized for use on the flight deck?
Only the hidden Flight Crew Wi-Fi network. Passenger Wi-Fi is not permitted for crew on the flight deck.
115
Can flight crew connect PEDs or P-EFBs to the aircraft Passenger Wi-Fi?
Yes, but only in the cabin or crew rest. Not permitted on the flight deck or jumpseat.
116
What precautions should be taken when passing drinks to the flight deck?
Exercise caution to avoid spills. Pass drinks along the outside perimeter of the flight deck.
117
What is Air Canada's alcohol policy for the flight deck?
No person may consume alcohol on the flight deck, including persons in the jumpseat. Sealed containers may be carried but not visible.
118
How should loose objects be managed on the flight deck?
Exercise vigilance with loose objects to prevent flight control interference.
119
What is the carry-on baggage allowance for operating/commuting Air Canada crew?
Max two items (suitcase and small article), plus flight bag. Purses/lunch bags not counted. Roller bags as standard size. Max 10kg per bag.
120
What must the In-Charge Flight Attendant consult with the PIC about during a ground delay?
1. Anticipated delay length, 2. Door/exit arming, 3. Start of service, 4. Lavatory access.
121
What must the In-Charge provide to the PIC during delays?
Status updates every 30 minutes and inform about use of mobile devices and maintain cabin comfort.
122
Who is responsible for PA announcements to passengers?
Normally the Pilot-in-Command, but may be delegated. Coordination with In-Charge FA is required.
123
What is the order of language for PA announcements?
1. English; 2. French; 3. Route language (if applicable). French comes first for flights from France/Quebec. Route language comes first when departing a country where a route language is spoken.
124
Who are considered Special Attention Passengers (non-security)?
1. Passengers with disabilities, 2. Passengers with medical equipment, 3. Pregnant women, 4. Children under 12, 5. Unaccompanied adults, 6. Obesity, 7. Severe allergies.
125
Who has final authority for carriage of special attention passengers?
The Pilot-in-Command, in accordance with ATPDR and Air Canada policy.
126
When should the Pilot-in-Command instruct the Cabin Crew to discontinue service and secure the cabin?
If turbulence is anticipated to exceed light turbulence.
127
What should the In-Charge Flight Attendant do before resuming normal duties after turbulence?
Consult with the Pilot-in-Command while the seat belt sign is still on.
128
What do the CARs require during turbulence if necessary?
Passengers and flight attendants must be directed to fasten their seat belts and discontinue service.
129
What should happen after turbulence that caused concern or injury?
A brief PA announcement from the Pilot-in-Command may alleviate passengers’ anxieties.
130
When should the seatbelt sign be turned on?
Whenever flight conditions warrant, especially if turbulence is expected to exceed light.
131
Who is authorized to conduct flight operations using P-EFBs at Air Canada?
Air Canada, authorized by Transport Canada.
132
What type of software/devices can be connected to the P-EFB during flight operations?
Only Air Canada authorized and assigned peripheral devices.
133
Where must the P-EFB be stored during critical phases of flight?
In the Air Canada approved Securing Device.
134
Is it permitted to use a portable GNSS source connected by Bluetooth?
Yes, provided it does not interfere with controls, switches, egress, or visibility.
135
What content is prohibited on P-EFBs?
Offensive, malicious, or compromising software or content.
136
What are the approved P-EFB hardware items?
Air Canada issued Apple iPad, iPad charging accessories, and iPad protective case.
137
Where is the securing device for P-EFBs installed?
In each aircraft's designated securing locations.
138
What software may be used on the P-EFB?
Only software from the 'FOPs App Store'.
139
Are commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) GPS devices allowed?
Yes, if they enhance Location Services of the P-EFB.
140
Who must approve any update to the P-EFB OS?
Flight Operations, with written consent.
141
What is the risk of updating the P-EFB OS without consent?
It may result in the P-EFB becoming unserviceable.
142
How should apps be installed or recovered on the P-EFB?
Via the 'FOPs App Store' link on the device.
143
What is the minimum charge required for the P-EFB before flight duty?
At least 80% charged.
144
What should be considered to extend P-EFB battery life?
Dimming the screen brightness to the lowest practical level.
145
Where should a P-EFB be stored if not in the securing device?
In the flight crew member’s flight bag or an approved stowage location.
146
What are some P-EFB security best practices while abroad?
Avoid public Wi-Fi, use Air Canada apps, limit Wi-Fi to trusted networks, disable Bluetooth, avoid USB charging on unknown computers, airplane mode when possible.
147
When are personal electronic devices (PEDs) permitted on the flight deck?
For reading operational or recreational material only if transmitting/receiving functions are disabled.
148
Is the P-EFB considered a PED during flight operations?
No, when used in accordance with P-EFB policies.
149
What should you do if a PED is lost on the aircraft?
Report to Maintenance and make an entry in the Aircraft Defect Log.
150
When is reading non-operational material permitted on the flight deck?
Only during minimal workload, cruise, and at the Pilot-In-Command’s discretion.
151
What is required regarding carry-on baggage for flight crew on the flight deck?
Baggage must be secured in an approved area, not stowed in lavatories or unapproved locations.
152
How many carry-on items are permitted for flight crew members?
Maximum of two items plus a flight bag.
153
Who has the final authority on the acceptance of passenger carry-on baggage?
The Pilot-in-Command.
154
What should be done with drinks passed to flight crew in the flight deck?
Pass drinks along the outside perimeter to avoid the center console.
155
Who is responsible for control of loose objects in the flight deck?
All flight crew members must exercise vigilance.
156
What should the In-Charge Flight Attendant consult with the Pilot-in-Command during IRROPS?
Anticipated length of delay, door/exit status, commencement of service, lavatory access.
157
What information should be provided to passengers during delays?
Status updates every 30 minutes, and that mobile devices may be used during extended delays.
158
When should food and water be provided during tarmac delays?
No later than two hours after the beginning of the delay.
159
How often should PA announcements be made during delays?
Every 30 minutes during all delays.
160
What is the sequence of PA announcement language?
English, then French, then route language (if applicable).
161
When must a deplaning opportunity be offered in Canada during a tarmac delay?
After 3 hours, unless takeoff is imminent (within 45 minutes).
162
When must a deplaning opportunity be offered in the U.S.?
Every 30 minutes into the delay after 3 hours, and resets the delay clock.
163
Who must be consulted before denying a passenger with a POC boarding?
Gate agent, and the passenger must be on the Onboard Service List (OSL).
164
What should be done if Medipak oxygen bottles on-board are different than planned?
Advise Load Planning.
165
When should the Flight Crew notify STOC regarding Medipak?
If a planned Medipak has not been boarded 30 minutes prior to departure.
166
What must the Pilot-in-Command do if turbulence is anticipated to exceed light turbulence?
Instruct Cabin Crew to discontinue service, secure the cabin, occupy a seat, and fasten seat belts.
167
When can cabin crew resume normal duties after turbulence?
Only after consulting the Pilot-in-Command while the seat belt sign is still on.
168
Who directs passengers to fasten seat belts during turbulence if necessary?
The In-Charge Flight Attendant.
169
When should a brief PA announcement be made after turbulence?
After passing through turbulence that may have caused concern, discomfort, or injury.
170
What is required for using P-EFBs in flight operations?
Follow Air Canada Code of Conduct, only use authorized devices, and use securing device for stowage.
171
When is it acceptable to use a portable GNSS (GPS/GLONASS) source with the EFB?
If it does not interfere with flight controls, switches, egress or visibility.
172
What must be done with P-EFB during critical phases of flight?
It must be secured and viewable in the securing device.
173
What is prohibited from being downloaded onto the P-EFB?
Offensive, malicious, or compromising software or content.
174
Who owns the P-EFB and its accessories?
Air Canada.
175
What kind of software is approved for use on P-EFBs?
Only software listed in the FOPs App Store.
176
Are commercial off-the-shelf GPS devices allowed for P-EFB location services?
Yes, if designed to enhance Location Services of the P-EFB.
177
Can a flight crew member update the EFB OS at any time?
No, they must have written consent from Flight Operations.
178
What can happen if the EFB OS is updated without approval?
The P-EFB may become unserviceable.
179
How are operational apps deployed to the P-EFB?
Via Mobile Device Management (MDM) software.
180
What is the use of Ownship in Jeppesen FliteDeck Pro X app?
For situational awareness only, not for navigation.
181
How long can WSI Optima weather data be delayed?
Up to 15 minutes.
182
What is the minimum required battery charge for P-EFB before flight duty?
At least 80%.
183
How should P-EFB be stowed if not in the securing device?
In the flight crew member’s flight bag or approved stowage location, never on the floor or glare shield.
184
What is required for cyber security on P-EFBs?
Remain enrolled in MDM software and not be tampered with.
185
When is use of PEDs allowed on the flight deck?
For operational or recreational reading in accordance with policies, but never for entertainment.
186
What must be done before starting checklist with a PED on the flight deck?
PEDs must be stowed and transmitting/receiving functions disabled (Airplane Mode).
187
Is the P-EFB considered a PED when used for flight operations?
No, not when engaged in flight operations per policy.
188
What should be done if a PED is lost on board?
Report to Maintenance and make an entry in the Aircraft Defect Log.
189
When can non-operational material be read on the flight deck?
During cruise, minimal workload, at PIC's discretion, and only by one crew member.
190
Who can quarantine the CVR and FDR?
The Vice President, Safety or delegate, or a designated investigative authority.
191
What modes must be enabled on the P-EFB before start checklist?
Airplane Mode ON (until after Parking Checklist), Wi-Fi Mode ON, Bluetooth Mode ON.
192
Which Wi-Fi is authorized for flight crew use on the flight deck?
Only the hidden Flight Crew Wi-Fi.
193
Can flight crew use passenger Wi-Fi while in the cabin?
Yes, but not on the flight deck.
194
How many carry-on items can a flight crew member bring?
A maximum of two items (suitcase and small article), plus flight bag.
195
Are crew members allowed to check-in their operating flight crew baggage?
No, operating flight crew members may not check in baggage.
196
Who has final authority for acceptance of passenger carry-on baggage?
The Pilot-in-Command.
197
List three types of special attention passengers (non-security).
Passengers with disabilities, with medical equipment, pregnant women, infants/children under 12.
198
What must the In-Charge Flight Attendant monitor during a delay?
Status updates every 30 minutes, passenger comfort, and mobile device permissions.
199
How soon must food/water be provided after the beginning of a delay?
No later than two hours after the delay begins.
200
When must a deplaning opportunity be offered during a tarmac delay in Canada?
After 3 hours, unless take-off is imminent (with up to 45 minutes extension).
201
How often must PA announcements about delay status be made?
Every 30 minutes.
202
What must happen during a 3-hour tarmac delay in China if no take-off is set?
Arrange for disembarkation at gate or off gate.
203
When is resetting a tripped circuit breaker in-flight allowed?
Only if directed by an AOM checklist or imperative for safe flight completion.
204
What must flight crew do if a pulled circuit breaker is found and not associated with MEL or is unlabeled?
Contact Maintenance and do not reset until cause is determined.
205
Who is responsible for deactivating the CVR after a reportable incident?
The Pilot-in-Command, after flight termination, as soon as possible.
206
Is deliberate deactivation of CVRs or FDRs allowed during flight?
No, it is prohibited while the aircraft is in operation.
207
What must be included in a PA during an extended tarmac delay at the 1.5, 2, and 2.5 hour marks?
Explain current conditions, mention regulations, and state that updates will follow.
208
What is added to the PA script at the 3 hour delay mark?
Inform about deplaning opportunity and invite those needing mobility assistance to identify themselves.
209
210
211
212
213
214
215
216
Who is responsible for ensuring CVR and FDR recordings are handed over to the TSB representatives?
Corporate Safety.
217
To whom are CVR and FDR recordings handed over?
TSB (Transportation Safety Board) representatives.
218
In accordance with what must CVR and FDR recordings be handed over?
Regulatory requirements.
219
If details of a read-out from the CVR and FDR are required, who makes the request?
The on-call Corporate Safety officer.
220
Who does the Corporate Safety officer coordinate with for CVR/FDR read-out requests?
Maintenance Control and the Duty Pilot.
221
When must EGPWS information be displayed on at least one instrument?
When operating into or out of an airport with high terrain in the departure, arrival, or missed approach area.
222
From which phases of flight must EGPWS be displayed if available?
From top of descent to landing and from take-off to cruise.
223
What should the Flight Crew do if monitoring EGPWS interferes with weather radar information?
Determine the priority of displayed information based on circumstances.
224
Where can information on EGPWS system operation and limitations be found?
In the AOM (Aircraft Operating Manual).
225
Can EGPWS be deferred under MEL, failed, or disabled and not displayed?
Yes, if it is deferred under MEL, failed, or disabled, it does not need to be displayed.
226
What does RVSM stand for?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minima.
227
What is the minimum vertical separation in RVSM airspace?
1,000 feet.
228
Between which flight levels does RVSM airspace generally extend?
FL290 to FL410.
229
Where can the boundaries of RVSM airspace be found?
On High Level charts.
230
In which countries are RVSM altitudes assigned in meters?
China, Mongolia, and North Korea.
231
How are RVSM altitudes flown in areas using meters?
By aircraft altimeters calibrated in feet, with conversion cards provided.
232
Are all Air Canada aircraft certified for RVSM airspace?
Yes.
233
How should aircraft be operated in RVSM transition areas?
The same as in RVSM airspace.
234
What should crews do before operating in RVSM airspace regarding weather?
Plan to avoid known areas of severe turbulence and weather.
235
What logbook should be reviewed before RVSM entry?
Aircraft Defect Logbook.
236
What must be checked about altimeters during pre-flight?
That they display a known airport elevation within AOM limits.
237
What should be ensured about the primary altimeters before entry?
They are serviceable and agree within 200 feet.
238
How many automatic altitude keeping devices must be serviceable?
At least one.
239
How many altitude alerting devices must be serviceable?
At least one.
240
Where can oceanic RVSM procedures be found?
Section 9.1 - Oceanic and Remote - General.
241
What must be avoided regarding TCAS RAs in RVSM?
Unnecessary TCAS RAs.
242
By how much should undershooting or overshooting a cleared altitude be avoided?
More than 150 feet.
243
What vertical speed is recommended when leveling off near traffic?
1,000 feet per minute or less.
244
When should this reduced vertical speed be established?
At least 1,000 feet prior to the target altitude.
245
What altimeter cross-check must be done at cruise?
Cross-check between two primary and the standby altimeter; record the readings on the OFP.
246
How often should subsequent cross-checks be done?
At intervals of approximately one hour.
247
Is there a requirement to record all cross-checks?
No, only the initial one.
248
Which system’s input should be used for transponder altitude reporting?
The altimetry system providing input to the autoflight system.
249
How should requests for contingencies, weather deviations, or track offsets be made in RVSM?
Through ATC, same as in non-RVSM airspace.
250
What should be followed in uncontrolled RVSM airspace?
The applicable uncontrolled procedures for the region.
251
When must ATC be notified in RVSM?
If the aircraft is no longer RVSM compliant due to equipment failure.
252
What other situation requires notifying ATC in RVSM?
Loss of redundancy of altimetry systems.
253
What turbulence condition must be reported to ATC in RVSM?
Encountering turbulence affecting capability to maintain flight level.
254
What level deviation must be reported to ATC?
300 feet or more from the assigned level, regardless of cause.
255
What must be planned regarding turbulence before RVSM operations?
Avoid known areas of severe turbulence.
256
What should be checked about equipment defects before RVSM?
That there are no defects affecting RVSM capability.
257
What must be displayed by altimeters during pre-flight check?
Known airport elevation within specified limits.
258
What must primary altimeters agree within before RVSM entry?
200 feet.
259
What must be cross-checked and recorded at cruise?
The two primary altimeters and the standby altimeter.
260
Is there a need to record subsequent hourly cross-checks?
No.
261
What input should drive the transponder altitude reporting?
Autoflight system’s altimetry input.
262
What procedures should be followed in uncontrolled airspace?
Uncontrolled region’s applicable procedures.
263
Who provides RVSM conversion cards on board?
Air Canada.
264
Are procedures for contingencies different in RVSM than non-RVSM?
No, they are requested the same way through ATC.
265
What is the vertical separation between aircraft outside RVSM airspace above FL290?
2,000 feet (traditional separation).
266
Who must ensure all Flight Crew members understand the controlled rest procedure?
The Pilot-in-Command.
267
What is the maximum length of a controlled rest period?
40 minutes.
268
When must controlled rest periods be completed?
At least 30 minutes before the planned top of descent.
269
How should Flight Crew communicate their need for controlled rest?
By keeping other crew members informed.
270
Does reading provide the benefits of controlled rest?
No.
271
When should controlled rest be planned and briefed?
During pre-flight activities.
272
Who determines if controlled rest can be used on a flight?
The Pilot-in-Command.
273
Name one operational consideration that could preclude controlled rest.
Weather, MEL relief, ATC communications, fuel situation, or anticipated high workload.
274
What must be included in pre-flight briefings for controlled rest?
Crew rest requirements, rest period sequence, notification to In-Charge Flight Attendant, and communication procedures.
275
What is the role of the Flight Attendant before controlled rest begins?
Be informed and call the flight deck at a specific time (no later than 45 minutes from briefing).
276
What should the pre-controlled rest operational briefing include?
Fuel check, fuel system status, deviations, anticipated conditions, fatigue level, and planned awakening time.
277
List a reason to interrupt controlled rest.
Abnormal/emergency situation, high workload, thunderstorm activity, or route changes.
278
How many Flight Crew members can rest on the flight deck at a time?
Only one.
279
What must the non-resting Flight Crew member do during controlled rest?
Remain alert and complete the duties of the resting member.
280
How many Flight Crew members must remain on the flight deck during controlled rest?
At least two.
281
When can rest periods be taken?
Only when workload is low, during the cruise phase.
282
What is the recommended method for waking the resting Flight Crew member?
Calling their name in a normal tone.
283
What aids are permitted for resting Flight Crew members?
Eye shades, ear plugs, and neck supports.
284
Where should the resting Flight Crew member remain during rest?
In their operating seat, moved to the full aft position.
285
What should be done after controlled rest before resuming flight duties?
The crew member should have 15 minutes to become fully awake and complete a fuel check and cockpit scan.
286
What is the main purpose of the Voyage Report system?
To communicate irregularities of an administrative nature and non-safety-related operational issues to Flight Operations management.
287
Where is the online Voyage Report form available?
On ACaeronet at My Flight Ops/Submit a report (Air Canada mainline SIMS)/eReports/Voyage Reports.
288
Will you receive a reply to a Voyage Report by default?
No, a reply will only be sent if requested.
289
How should administrative items that are safety-related be reported?
Via an ASR (Aviation Safety Report).
290
What is the Crew Care feedback page used for?
To report concerns or problems with layover hotels or ground transport.
291
Who receives Crew Care reports?
API (Accommodations Plus International) and Air Canada personnel who oversee hotel/transport contracts.
292
Where can the Crew Care online form be found?
On ACaeronet/Flight Ops/My Flight Ops/Work/CrewCare/Feedback/Give feedback.
293
What are Hawkeye reports used for?
To immediately report operational irregularities impacting flight progress, missing/unserviceable GSE, or any issues affecting airline schedule management.
294
Where can information on submitting Hawkeye reports be found?
In the Aircraft Datalink and Communications Manual, available in S4A SMART Suite or the AC P-EFB app.
295
What type of issues do Hawkeye reports address?
Operational irregularities, missing/unserviceable ground support equipment, or any issues affecting schedule and operations.
296
What must flights operating between 50 and 400 nautical miles from a suitable emergency landing site carry?
Lifevests.
297
What additional equipment is required for flights operating beyond 400 nautical miles from a suitable emergency landing site?
Life or slide rafts and survival equipment, in addition to lifevests.
298
How is the sufficiency of lifevests determined for infants?
An infant may be allocated an adult lifevest for counting purposes.
299
What is the requirement regarding lifevests and persons on-board?
The total number of persons must not exceed the total number of lifevests (including infant lifevests).
300
Under what type of flight plan must all commercial and charter flights be conducted?
IFR flight plan.
301
Where can information related to Charter operations be found?
AC P-EFB app or S4A Smart SUITE / Flight Operations / JETZ and Charters.
302
What does NRFO stand for?
Non-Revenue Flight Operations.
303
Name one type of NRFO listed in the FOM.
Positioning, Maintenance, Functional check, Aircraft Program, Acceptance/Return to lease, Inspection, Ferry, Test, Delivery, Specialty, Touch and Go, Air Display, Jetz Program, Aircraft Introduction.
304
Why does NRFO require a high degree of planning and coordination?
Due to its critical role in meeting corporate commitments and unique operational nature.
305
Who developed the NRFO office?
Flight Operations.
306
What is required for authorized personnel to be carried on certain NRFO flights?
Their names must be listed on the Restricted Flight Authorization (ACF641) form.
307
Who must sign the Restricted Flight Authorization (ACF641) form?
The Manager, MOC.
308
To whom must the Restricted Flight Authorization (ACF641) be faxed?
MOC, SOC, and Flight Dispatch.
309
What manual outlines NRFO policies and procedures?
The Non-Revenue Flight Operations (NRFO) Manual.
310
Where is the NRFO Manual available?
In the AC P-EFB app or S4A Smart SUITE in the Non-Revenue Flight Operations folder.
311
What must be considered regarding personnel other than the operating crew on NRFO flights?
They must be counted as persons for minimum Cabin Crew complement regulations.
312
Which FOM section should be referred to for flights carrying nine or fewer persons?
8.2.9.
313
What is the intent of allowing engine runs or flight control surface movements by flight crews for maintenance?
To reduce departure delays by completing routine checks with passengers on-board prior to departure.
314
Who may request flight crews to conduct engine runs or flight control surface movement?
Air Canada Maintenance or non-Air Canada contract maintenance personnel.
315
Is it the intent to allow in-depth troubleshooting or repairs with passengers on-board?
No, only routine and benign checks are allowed with passengers on-board.
316
Why may Flight Crews be requested to conduct engine runs or flight control surface movement?
For maintenance purposes.
317
What is the intent of allowing maintenance engine runs with passengers on board?
To reduce departure delays by allowing routine and benign checks to be completed prior to departure.
318
What types of maintenance checks might Flight Crews assist with before departure?
Leak checks or operational checks after a part change.
319
Is in-depth troubleshooting or repair allowed with passengers on board during maintenance checks?
No, only routine and benign checks are allowed.
320
Who is authorized to conduct maintenance engine runs or flight control surface movements without MOC coordination?
Air Canada Maintenance (ACM) employees.
321
Under what conditions may Flight Crews assist ACM employees with engine runs or control surface movement?
At the discretion of the Pilot-in-Command, subject to specific restrictions.
322
What should the Pilot-in-Command do if no qualified ACM or contract maintenance personnel are available?
Refer to 13.9 - Maintenance Engine Run Form and contact MOC for procedures.
323
What must be suspended during engine runs without passengers on board?
All active loading and unloading of passengers and cargo.
324
What must be done with boarding gates or stairs during engine runs without passengers?
They must be withdrawn from the aircraft.
325
At what engine power setting should ground runs be conducted without passengers on board?
Ground idle power only.
326
Who should Flight Crews coordinate ground runs with?
The appropriate ATC agency or Airport Authority.
327
Who else should Flight Crews coordinate ground runs with?
Ramp Crew through STOC.
328
Where can you find an example of the Engine Ground Run/Control Surface Movement by Flight Crew Checklist?
In 13.9 - Maintenance Engine Run Form (ACF6209).
329
Where should engine runs with passengers on board be conducted?
In the vicinity of the gate and apron pushback area.
330
At what engine power setting must runs with passengers be conducted?
Ground idle power only.
331
Who must be on board and briefed before conducting engine runs with passengers?
The Cabin Crew.
332
What announcement should Flight Crew make before engine runs with passengers?
A courtesy PA explaining the procedure and requesting passengers to remain seated.
333
Where should Cabin Crew be stationed during engine runs with passengers on board?
At their assigned exits.
334
What is the requirement for aircraft exit doors during engine runs with passengers?
All exit doors shall be closed and in the Armed position.
335
What must be ensured about the emergency slide deployment areas outside the aircraft?
They must be clear of obstructions.
336
Why is time critical in the transport of live organs intended for transplant?
Because organs must reach recipients quickly to remain viable.
337
Can live organs be carried on Air Canada flights within Canada if unaccompanied?
Yes, they can be carried accompanied or unaccompanied.
338
In what type of container are live organs typically transported?
In a box within a red or yellow cooler with proper documentation attached.
339
What documentation must accompany a live organ container for screening exemption?
A certificate or form from the health institution or O.P.O. with required details.
340
What four elements must the certificate or form include to exempt the container from screening?
Description of the organ, flight number and date, names of sending and receiving institutions or O.P.O., name and signature of sending official.
341
Who delivers the organ container to the crew on board?
A Customer Sales and Service Agent.
342
How must the live organ container be stowed on board?
In an approved stowage location, secured against movement or tipping.
343
What should Flight Dispatch be notified of if there is a delay on a flight carrying a live organ?
The delay, so they can attempt to reduce or eliminate it, citing Medevac flight priority if needed.
344
What is the Giner P3S device?
An approved organ preservation system that is secured to a passenger seat for transport.
345
Is the Giner P3S considered dangerous goods?
No, it is not considered dangerous goods.
346
Should aircraft doors and compartments be left open and unattended without precautions?
No, specific safety precautions must be followed.
347
When can a passenger cabin door be left open and unattended?
If an approved entry barrier is in place, access stands are in place, or a watch person is posted.
348
Is an aircraft nylon warning strap considered an approved passenger entry barrier?
No, it is not considered an approved barrier.
349
What can be used instead of a barrier at an open passenger cabin door?
Aircraft access stands.
350
Who can guard an open passenger cabin door if no barrier or access stand is present?
A watch person must be posted to guard the opening.
351
Can main floor cargo doors be left open and unattended?
Only if an approved barrier is in place, or access stands/loading platforms are in place.
352
What replaces the need for a barrier at open cargo doors?
Aircraft access stands or loading platforms.
353
What should be done if cabin doors must be opened for cooling and no access stands are present?
The In-Charge Flight Attendant must be briefed to guard the doors.
354
Where should flight attendants be positioned when guarding open cabin doors for cooling?
Away from the doors but able to guard them.
355
What announcement should be made when cabin doors are open for cooling?
The In-Charge Flight Attendant should make a PA announcement as described in the FAM.
356
Who is responsible for briefing the In-Charge Flight Attendant if doors are open for cooling?
The Pilot-in-Command.
357
When must a watch person be posted at an open cabin door?
When maintenance or servicing activities are being performed.
358
When must an ASR be filed regarding open cabin doors?
If the doors are opened for cooling in exceptional circumstances.
359
Why must open aircraft doors not be left unattended?
To prevent safety hazards such as falls or unauthorized entry.
360
What is the purpose of approved barriers or access stands at open aircraft doors?
To ensure safety by preventing accidental entry or falls.
361
Who has ultimate authority for safety of flight during a diversion?
The Pilot-in-Command.
362
What is the predominant factor in diversion decisions?
Safety of flight.
363
Who should be consulted when time permits for a diversion?
Dispatch.
364
What is a time-critical emergency that may require diversion?
Fire, fuel leak, medical emergency, bomb on-board, etc.
365
Name three factors to consider for time-critical emergency diversions.
Time to diversion airport, weather, runway length/orientation/condition.
366
Why consider approach aids during diversion planning?
To ensure safe landing at the diversion airport.
367
Why are crash/fire/rescue services important at a diversion airport?
To provide immediate emergency response if needed.
368
Why is medical transport/treatment facilities a consideration in a diversion?
For immediate medical care in case of an inflight medical emergency.
369
What is a fuel critical emergency?
When calculated landing fuel is below reserve.
370
What factors are considered in a fuel critical emergency diversion?
Fuel burn to diversion airport, weather, runway, taxi/parking, refueling.
371
Name two considerations for non-time or fuel critical emergencies.
Alternate airport classification, weather conditions.
372
What is a consideration when needing to dump fuel before landing?
Overweight landing considerations.
373
Why coordinate with maintenance availability when diverting?
To ensure aircraft can be serviced or repaired if needed.
374
What is considered for passenger handling during diversion?
Facilities for passengers, customs/immigration, customer service reps.
375
Why consider accommodation and meals during a diversion?
To provide for passengers if extended ground time is expected.
376
What is a non-emergency weather diversion?
Diversion due to poor weather or airport closure.
377
Why consider holding time available during a weather diversion?
To determine if holding or immediate diversion is required.
378
What crew-related factor affects diversion decision?
Crew duty day/fatigue considerations.
379
What are curfew restrictions in diversion planning?
Airport curfews may restrict landing/operations at certain times.
380
What is an in-flight turn-back?
Returning to the departure airport or an alternate, e.g., unable to ETOPS.
381
Why consider overweight landing and inspection after a diversion?
Landing above maximum landing weight may require inspection.
382
Why is brake cooling time important after a diversion?
To prevent brake failure before re-dispatch.
383
What should be done after the decision to divert is made?
Advise ATC, In-Charge FA, passengers, and send an ACARS Diversion message.
384
Why must an ACARS Diversion message be sent even if in voice communication with Dispatch?
It is a procedural requirement for record-keeping and coordination.
385
What info can Dispatch provide during a diversion?
Route, fuel burn, weather, NOTAMs for alternate, and more.
386
What must be maintained after landing at a diversion airport?
Communication with Dispatch via ACARS, AGRIS, SATCOM, or cell phone.
387
Can passengers leave the aircraft immediately after diversion landing?
No, not unless handling arrangements have been made via Dispatch.
388
Can Flight Crew leave the aircraft after diversion?
Only to complete essential tasks, and after consulting local authorities.
389
What inspection must be completed prior to departure after diversion?
A walk-around inspection.
390
Name two additional items Dispatch and SOC may coordinate during a diversion.
Customs, catering, APIS/GENDEC, passenger accommodation/transportation.
