700 Flashcards
(424 cards)
0
Q
Who is responsible for assuring that crews are assembled into working engine, ladder, or rescue companies?
A
Incident Commander
1
Q
How will SFRD achieve higher staffing levels for company operations?
A
A. Assure adequate personnel are dispatched
B. Assemble engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies
2
Q
What is the minimum crew staffing for an engine?
A
3 personnel
3
Q
What is the minimum crew staffing for a ladder?
A
2 personnel
4
Q
What is the minimum crew staffing for a rescue?
A
2 personnel
5
Q
What are 5 basic engine company responsibilities?
A
a. fire ground operations
b. medical rescue
c. hazards abatement
d. non-emergency incident abatement
e. equipment and station maintenance
6
Q
Where can you find the methodology for specific tasks performed by engines?
A
Competency Based Driver Operator Performance Objectives
7
Q
What size hose stream should be used on a Defensive Plan?
A
2 1/2” or larger
8
Q
Responses of an ALS engine, for medical purposes, will be dictated by:
A
OPM 705.00 “Response Assignment Strategy”
9
Q
Who initiates ALS treatment on an ALS call?
A
ALS engine paramedic
10
Q
Who will advise dispatch as for the need of transport?
A
ALS engine paramedic
11
Q
When an engine requests a transport unit, the rescue will respond:
A
“Emergency” unless otherwise requested
12
Q
Who is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transport?
A
EMS captain
13
Q
Does the loss of the jump seat firefighter mandate that an engine is out of service?
A
No, the engine will advise dispatch of their reduced staffing and remain in service on a limited call basis
14
Q
Can the engine follow the rescue to the hospital?
A
Requires permission from the shift commander
15
Q
Failure to willingly obey a supervisor represents:
A
insubordination
16
Q
Who is contacted when a member comes in contact with a contagious disease or toxic substance?
A
Their officer
17
Q
While dealing with the public, the greatest degree of:
A
silence compatible with an efficient discharge of duty
18
Q
What are two specific task assigned to aerial companies?
A
a. elevated fire streams
b. laddering a building beyond ground ladders
19
Q
What are some primary aerial company responsibilities? (7)
A
a. victim rescue
b. ventilation
c. laddering
d. forcible entry
e. elevated water streams
f. salvage and overhaul
g. secondary means of egress
20
Q
What are some secondary functions of an aerial device? (3)
A
a. utility control
b. RIT
c. Engine company ops
21
Q
Initial concerns on the fire ground for an aerial company pertain to:
A
a. positioning to perform aerial functions
b. staging out of vehicular travel lanes
22
Q
What are basic rescue company responsibilities? (5)
A
a. BLS and ALS
b. Communicate with hospital
c. Transport to hospital
d. Vehicle extrication
e. Fire ground operations
23
Q
Can a rescue unit establish command?
A
it is not recommended
24
As part of a multi-unit response to a structure fire, a rescue should:
a. prepare to perform engine company functions
| b. report to command for orders
25
Engine companies will deal primarily with what on a HazMat call?
scene safety and product identification
26
When an Engine is responding to a HazMat call, they should check with dispatch for additional information, particularly:
a. material involved
b. size of leak/spill
c. immediate life endangerment
27
An engine should perform immediate rescue at a hazmat scene when the rescuers are:
a. fully aware of risks
b. full PPE and SCBA
c. utilize minimum number of personnel
d. if hazard is unknown, wait for hazmat team
28
What are different ways to identify a hazardous material? (5)
a. consult witnesses or facility personnel
b. DOT ERG
c. type and size of container
d. lettering or markings
e. shipping papers
29
An engine company can mitigate which type of Haz Mat scene?
Minor Category 1
30
What is used to report all hazardous materials incidents to dispatch?
Uniform Classification System for Categorizing Haz Mat Incidents
31
The clean up and recovery of a spill is the responsibility of who?
a. Property/Vehicle owner
| b. SFRD will not take possession
32
To be an assigned diver, one must have:
a. Public safety diver
b. Dive Rescue 1
c. Assigned by the Fire Chief
33
How many members must be on duty for the dive team to be "in service"?
a. at least 2
| b. preferably stationed with the apparatus
34
If a dive member is unable to perform physically, who do they notify?
Station commander who will notify Shift commander
35
What is check out daily on the Dive Truck?
a. mechanical
b. inventory
c. auxiliary equipment
36
Who are the dive checkout sheets forwarded to?
Shift commander
37
What is the recommended number of personnel to have on scene of a dive incident?
a. minimum of 2 divers
| b. minimum of 2 support
38
Where are the dive team guidelines located?
SFRD Special Operation Manual
39
What is the appropriate documentation for a dive recovery?
a. vehicle and owner information
| b. for billing department to recover fees
40
Does the dive team perform dive recovery in other cities?
no, unless extraordinary circumstances
41
Where has the Rapid Entry Dive Gear been assigned?
39, 59, 72, and 83
42
What gear makes up the Rapid Entry Dive Gear? (6)
a. Dive tank (min. 63 cu. ft.)
b. BC with built in weight and knife
c. Divator MKII mask
d. 2nd stage regulator
e. Light
f. Throw bag
43
What gear makes up the throw bags? (4)
a. 3 PFDs
b. Dive rope
c. Center punch
d. Secondary cutting device
44
Where is the Rapid Entry Dive Gear located in the stations?
a. on the suppression unit
| b. gear moved to rescue if personnel is assigned to rescue
45
Which members are allowed to check out the dive gear?
Department divers only
46
What is the minimum pressure for the dive tank?
no less than 2800 psi
47
What is done if a piece of dive equipment is found defective or damage?
a. red tagged
| b. inform station captain along with the shift BC and Logistics division
48
What dive gear is issued to all divers? (5)
a. wet suit
b. fins
c. gloves
d. booties
e. snorkel and mask
49
What is critical during dive incidents?
a. initial size up
| b. information gathering
50
The first arriving officer of a dive incident is responsible for: (4)
a. scene management
b. last seen point
c. witness interview
d. overall safety
51
Where does the search pattern begin?
last seen point
52
How do you prepare a site for dive entry?
roof ladder placed into water
53
What is the bottom time for divers?
5 minutes
54
The Rapid Entry Diver is responsible for: (4)
a. dive decisions
b. dive safety
c. last seen point
d. point of entry
55
What is the diver responsible for during the dive? (4)
a. monitor air pressure and depth
b. underwater survey and victim removal
c. communicate
d. calling off the dive
56
How many divers are standing by when a diver is in the water?
Two
| One fully dressed, one 90% ready
57
A USAR/DMAT activation means:
a. formal request by FEMA to mobilize
58
How long do the USAR/DMAT members have to arrive at the point of departure?
within 6 hours
59
A USAR/DMAT alert means:
a. formal notification by FEMA that an event has occurred and activation is pending
60
Who has the sole discretion of joining the South Florida USAR task force?
sponsoring jurisdiction, which is City of Miami FD
61
In the event of a possible FEMA alert, who is notified?
Shift commander, without delay
62
In the event of FEMA activation, who is notified?
shift commander immediately
63
If a member is on duty and activated by FEMA, what happens?
remain on duty until relieved by the shift commander
64
Who is notified of the hours and overtime hours incurred by FEMA?
Administrative officer
65
What types of incidents are involved in Technical Rescue?
a. Confined space
b. Trench rescue
c. Structural collapse
d. Rope rescue
66
What are the engine and rescue limited to at a Technical Rescue scene?
recognition and support roles
67
How many phases are there in Rope Rescue incidents?
5
68
What is phase 1 in rope rescue incidents?
Scene preparation and reconnaissance
69
What is phase 2 in rope rescue incidents?
Pre-rescue operations
70
What is phase 3 in rope rescue incidents?
Rescue operations
71
What is phase 4 in rope rescue incidents?
Safety considerations
72
What is phase 5 in rope rescue incidents?
Termination
73
How many members go in on a Recon Team?
minimum of two personnel
74
The recon team should have medical equipment with them to begin:
first aid
75
What information will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources? (5)
a. number of victims
b. location and condition of victims
c. angle of terrain
d. distance to victims
e. estimated time of evacuation
76
Rescue operation should be conducted from ____ risk to _____ risk.
Low to high
77
A stokes evolution should be performed with a minimum of _____ personnel
4, facing the direction of travel
78
What are excavations greater than 60 degrees considered?
high angle operations
79
What is the safety factor when dealing with ropes?
a. 15 : 1
| b. double rope technique shall be used when possible
80
What is considered a high risk operation during rope rescue?
helicopter operations
81
Prior to using a helicopter for rope rescue, what should be considered? (4)
a. time of day
b. conditions of victims
c. difficult access to victims
d. qualification of pilot
82
When is CISM considered when dealing with rope rescue incidents?
Phase 4
83
Where is the psychological "debriefing" performed?
On scene or at the station
84
How many phases are there for Structural Collapse incidents?
6
85
What is phase 1 of structural collapse?
scene preparation and reconnaissance
86
What is phase 2 of structural collapse?
exploration and search
87
What is phase 3 of structural collapse?
patient removal
88
What is phase 4 of structural collapse?
general debris removal
89
What is phase 5 of structural collapse?
safety considerations
90
What is phase 6 of structural collapse?
Termination
91
How big is the safety zone at a structural collapse?
two times the height of the building
92
If unable to obtain blueprints, what is appropriate?
have on-site personnel draw a sketch of the site
93
Are hose lines stretched at a collapse?
yes, protect in case of fire or explosion
94
Who is task force 1?
Metro
95
Who is task force 2?
Miami
96
Besides the specialty teams, who else is assigned to the collapse incident?
full structural assignment
97
What type of ventilation is provided at a structural collapse?
a. positive pressure
| b. may be times when PPV will not work
98
Who assigns an access control person?
Battalion Chief, preferably not a team member
99
How do you assess the effectiveness of proper ventilation?
a. atmospheric monitoring
| b. assessment of types of space, voids, and crevices
100
How big is the square box when performing a search of a collapsed building>
2' x 2'
101
What are the marking called in the structural collapse?
Structural/hazard evaluation marking
102
What color spray paint is used for the marking system?
Orange only
103
What does a blank box indicate?
a. structure is accessible and safe for search
| b. damage is minor or completely pancaked with little danger of further collapse
104
What does a box with a single slash indicate?
a. significant damage
| b. areas are relatively safe but others need shoring or bracing
105
What does a box with crossing slash indicate?
a. not safe for search and rescue operations
| b. search may proceed with significant risk
106
What does an arrow located next to a marking box indicate?
the safe entrance if the marking is away from the entrance
107
What is equipped with the entry team?
a. portable radio (one member)
b. explosion-proof lighting or cylume
c. atmospheric monitor (personal unit preferred)
d. PPE
108
What is the size of the X that is drawn for a search?
2' x 2'
109
The X is constructed in two operations:
a. single slash upon entry into structure, indicates search is underway
b. crossing slash upon exit of structure, indicates search is complete
110
Inside the X, what is written in the left quadrant?
Team completing search
111
Inside the X, what is written on the top quadrant?
Time and date team left the structure
112
Inside the X, what is written on the right quadrant?
Personal hazards (rats, etc.)
113
Inside the X, what is written on the bottom quadrant?
Number of live and dead victims removed
114
Entry points shall be made based on: (4)
a. known location of victim
b. safety of the opening
c. atmospheric readings
d. ease of recovery
115
If the victims location is known or suspected, what should be done with the entry point?
attempt two separate points of entry
116
Before deciding which victim should be rescued first, what should be considered?
Victims condition, position, and difficulty extricating
117
What is done when a buried victim is found alive in a collapse after hours of work?
Do not remove unless secondary collapse, fire, electrocution, or drowning
118
What percentage of people are found on top of debris or lightly buried?
50%
119
How does the "hailing system" work at a collapse?
a. rescuers placed in listening positions
| b. "round the clock" call outs to get a "fix" on any sound
120
Air horn signal for All Quiet/ Cease operations at a collapse?
1 long blast (3 seconds)
121
Air horn signal for evacuation at a collapse?
3 short blasts (1 second)
122
Air horn signal for resume operations?
1 long and 1 short
123
What should be utilized when forcing blindly through walls and roof/floors?
inspection holes
124
Where are reinforced concrete columns or filled cells found?
at corners or adjacent to window and door openings
125
The size of shores and type of shoring system will be dependent on what?
weight to be supported and condition of the element
126
What is the weight of concrete/masonry?
125-150 lbs per cubic ft
127
What is the weight of normal concrete floor?
100-150 lbs square ft
128
What should shoring systems act like?
double funnel
129
What are shores installed to do?
Support the structure
130
What is the maximum length of a shore?
50 times its width
131
You can build your crib box _____ times as high as the box is wide.
3 times
132
4x4 crib capacity (2 layer):
24,000 lbs
133
4x4 crib capacity (3 layer)
48,000 lbs
134
6x6 crib capacity (2 layer)
60,000 lbs
135
6x6 crib capacity (3 layer)
135,000 lbs
136
What is the safety factor for cribbing?
2 to 1
137
What are the two types of wood used for cribbing?
Douglas fir and southern pine
138
If there is only one opening while pulling a patient out of the hole, what is considered?
a. be on the egress side, avoid being blocked in by the patient
b. move moves quickly and smoothly
139
When is a CISM performed during a structural collapse?
Phase 5
140
To become a team member of the specialty team, all personnel must: (4)
a. complete a recognized course
b. request in writing for admittance to team
c. appointment by chief
d. remain in good standing
141
Who has the overall responsibility on Technical Rescue Operations?
Battalion Chief
142
Define High-rise:
a. attack lines cannot reach the fire via normal pre-connected lines or hoisting
b. where standpipes are used
c. all buildings with internal hallways over two stories
143
What is secondary in urgency when dealing with high rise fires?
establishing command outside the structure
144
What might be the most prudent command option when dealing with a high rise fire?
passing of command by first arriving officer
145
How big is the hazard zone on a high rise fire?
200 feet
146
How many feet should personnel stay away from hose lines supplying the Siamese?
50 feet
147
Who should be assigned to the firefighting level on a confirmed fire in a high rise?
a. Chief Officer
b. Equipped with bunker gear and SCBA
c. Known as Division XX
148
What is command concerned with on confirmed high rise fires? (7)
a. additional resources
b. life safety
c. lobby control
d. water supply
e. conditions in stairwells, floor above the fire and top floor
f. RIT
g. support systems (staging, rehab)
149
Who establishes lobby control?
Driver of first arriving engine
150
What does the lobby control bring with him?
a. full PPE and SCBA
b. portable radio
c. knox box key
151
Who do personnel check in with prior to reporting to any other division or group on a high rise fire?
lobby control
152
The national elevator code calls for elevators to:
automatically return to the building lobby
153
What floor should the elevator be stopped when using an elevator to access the upper floors of a high rise fire?
2 floors below
154
Who performs the initial fire attack at a high rise fire?
at least two companies (engine and rescue)
155
Where do the initial companies set up for operations on a high rise fire?
floor below the incident
156
Where are hose lines connected to standpipes when operating at a high rise?
a. not on the same floor or above
| b. exception: where a true smoke tower, can connect on same floor
157
How many GPM should pump operators deliver to the attack line at a high rise fire?
150 gpm
158
When fighting fire in a high rise, if the fire has already extended into the hallway:
The officer should seriously consider deploying a backup line
159
In a high rise, fire attack must wait for verification that:
a sustained water supply is available
160
Which hose shall not be used to supply standpipe/sprinkler systems?
Large diameter hose (4 and 5)
161
How many GPM is delivered to all 1 3/4" fog nozzles?
150 GPM
162
D/O conducting pumping operations within ____ feet of a building must wear _____ at all times.
a. 100 feet
| b. bunker coat and helmet
163
What should the ladder company do at a high rise fire?
ascend to the top of the stairwell looking for and opening roof hatches
164
What is the spacing of the stairwell support group?
every other floor
165
A base staging area may be required on operations:
above a third floor
166
Where is base staging established?
two floors below the fire floor
167
Where is the RIT staging at?
The stairwell of the floor immediately below the fire
168
Who normally assumes the role of RIT on a high rise fire?
Third arriving engine
169
What is the mission of the first arriving engine and rescue at a high rise fire?
Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for attack
170
Equipment for high rise fires: First arriving engine and rescue:
```
Off: hand light, elevator key, utility line
D/O: lobby control
FF: high rise kit
FF (res): extend-a-bag, hand light
FF (res): rabbit tool and irons
```
171
Equipment for high rise fires: First arriving ladder
Off: hand light, elevator keys, irons
D/O: pike pole, utility line
FF: rabbit tool, 2 spare scba bottles
172
What is the mission of the second arriving engine and rescue on a high rise fire?
Report to floor below fire and prepare to support attack crew
173
Equipment for high rise fires: second arriving engine and rescue:
```
Off: hand light, elevator key, spare scba bottle
D/O: support standpipe
FF: high rise kit
FF (res): extend-a-bag, hand light
FF (res): 2 spare scba bottles
```
174
What is the mission of the third arriving engine on a high rise fire?
Report to command, obtain the TIC, prepare to serve as RIT, floor below fire
175
Equipment for high rise fires: Third arriving engine?
Off: hand light, elevator key, TIC, search rope
D/O: spare scba pack, spare scba bottle
FF: irons and space scba bottle
176
Where is the high rise kit repacked?
Return to station and utilize dry hose
177
What size hose and length is our high rise kit?
a. 100ft of 1 3/4" with gated wye attached
| b. 1 TFT breakaway nozzle
178
What size hose and length is our extend-a-bag?
50ft of 2 1/2"
179
On a heightened state of alert, what is done with doors and trucks?
a. trucks not to be left outside
b. doors to be closed at all times unless actively operating in the bay
c. perimeter doors shall be regularly checked
180
Rescue has ____ WMD kits, Engine has ____ WMD kits
a. Rescue 2 WMD
| b. Engine 3 WMD
181
Each WMD kit contains the following:
a. 1 Scott cartridge adapter
b. 1 NBC air purifying cartridge
c. 1 pair of silvershield gloves
d. 1 hooded Saranex splash coverall
182
What boots are used with the WMD kits?
structural firefighting boots
183
What level of protection does the WMD suit provide?
Level C
184
What level of protection does the WMD suit and SCBA provide?
Level B
185
The WMD kits are designed to protect workers who operate in:
The warm zone
186
The WMD kits were not designed for the Hot Zone without stringent:
Monitoring and identification of substance
187
The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against:
residual contamination from decon, triage, or treating
188
Are these suits used outdoors or indoors?
open air environments unless cleared by HazMat techs
189
The NBC cartridge is very effective against:
Nuclear and Biological
190
The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of:
99.997%
191
The NBC cartridge can filter out particles greater than:
0.3 microns
192
What is the micron range for Anthrax?
3 to 10 microns
193
The NBC cartridge is effective against a variety of:
Organic and inorganic chemical compounds
194
The NBC cartridge for Ammonia:
500 ppm
195
The NBC cartridge for Nerve gas (sarin, tabun, vx):
1000 ppm
196
The NBC cartridge for Hydrogen Cyanide:
4000 ppm
197
The NBC cartridge for Benzene:
50 ppm
198
The NBC cartridge for Chlorine:
5000 ppm
199
The NBC cartridge for Hydrogen Chloride:
1000 ppm
200
The NBC cartridge for Sulfur Dioxide:
300 ppm
201
The NBC cartridge for Phosgene:
2000 mg/m3
202
The NBC cartridge for Hydrogen Sulfide:
5000 ppm
203
The NBC cartridge for Chloropicrin:
5000 ppm
204
Are the NBC cartridges effective against tear gas?
Yes
205
What is the duration of effectiveness for the NBC cartridge?
a. Several days for particulates
| b. Varies for chemicals, expect minimum of 6-8 hours
206
What effects the useful life of the cartridge?
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Concentration of the chemical
207
What type of gloves are used during decon?
Butyl
208
If agent is an oily liquid, how is decon performed?
must wipe skin
209
What bleach solution is used on skin?
a. 1 part bleach to 9 parts water = 0.5%
210
What bleach solution is used for cloths and equipment?
Full strength household bleach = 5%
211
What is the "dry chlorine" granule mixtures?
a. 1 oz. of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 0.5%
| b. 10 oz. of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 5%
212
What is the chemical name for "dry chlorine"?
Calcium Hypochlorite
213
What is the water temperature for decon?
60 - 70 F
214
What are the 5 types of decon?
a. passive (remove cloths)
b. dry
c. wet
d. cross ventilation
e. combination of the above
215
During decon, which unit will perform which function?
a. engine = water supply
b. truck = cross ventilation
c. police = security and control
216
What are the rotation intervals for decon crews?
no more than 1 hour
217
What is critical to the success of the decontamination operation?
speed and thoroughness
218
During a heightened state of alert, all units will have which book on board?
Jane's Bio/Chem Handbook
219
What is the number to the County Warning Point?
954-765-5100
220
What is the aerial platform known as?
a. "Platform"
| b. Unit 387
221
Who is allowed to operate the platform?
Only those who have been trained in "advanced platform operations"
222
When are firefighters allowed to operate the bucket?
When supervised by trained operator at the pedestal
223
Who is allowed to operate the turntable controls?
Only trained driver's and officers
224
Who is allowed to operate the basket controls?
Firefighters under the supervision of a trained driver/officer
225
Can the basket controls be operated on a call or training when no one is at the turn table controls?
No
226
When operating or climbing the aerial, what must be worn?
Minimum helmet and gloves
227
Anyone climbing or operating in the bucket must wear?
Safety belt
228
What is activated when personnel are climbing the aerial or transferring in or out of the bucket?
Emergency stop button
229
Under normal conditions, how close can the aerial be operated to power lines?
No closer than 25 feet
230
In exigent circumstances, the aerial may operate within _____ feet but no closer than _____ feet to power lines.
25 but no closer than 10
231
Whenever an aerial is operated within 25 feet of power lines:
A safety officer shall be near the apparatus
232
Where are the wheels chocked when the aerial is in-service?
Front wheels (front and rear of wheel)
233
When is the "50 hour inspection" done on the platform?
First Sunday of the month
234
Where is the "50 hour inspection" found?
Pierce Platform Operator's Manual
235
The basket may not be operated within _____ feet of a structure without an operator/spotter in the basket.
4 feet
236
The ladder can extend, rotate, and elevate. How many of those functions can be performed at the same time?
only one function should be performed at a time, except in emergency situations
237
When is the platform intercom system checked?
a. during daily check out
| b. initial stages of placing the platform into operation
238
If the intercom system fails:
The use of portable radios is acceptable
239
The use of forced entry into a structure or vehicle should only occur if:
Exigent circumstances exist
240
What is an exigent circumstance?
Emergency situation requiring swift action to prevent imminent danger to life or serious damage to propery
241
Is PD notified to assist with forcible entry?
Not unless a potential scene safety hazard is present
242
What causes a poor public perception?
Excessive damage
243
For situations where a patient cannot be seen, reasonable suspicion does not exist, and neighbors aren't available, who makes the decision to force entry?
Company Officer
244
If forced entry occurs and no patients or dangerous situation is found, who is called?
Police for assessment and a report
245
If forced entry occurs and no hazardous situation is present, who is called?
Dispatch center is notified
246
Who responds to a confirmed false alarm?
the responding engine or ladder may be canceled should dispatch receive confirmation that the alarm is false and no assistance is needed
247
Who has the responsibility of maintenance for fire alarm/suppression systems?
The owner
248
Who has the responsibility of resetting the fire alarm/suppression system?
The owner
249
Who is responsible for the proper function of the alarm/suppression system?
Building management
250
Who is permitted to make repairs to a fire alarm system? (4)
a. specialty electrical contractor
b. electrical contractor
c. fire sprinkler contractor
d. individual properly certified
251
Failure to achieve a reset of a trouble mode:
a. does not require immediate repair
| b. unless in a multi-family dwelling, then a fire watch is needed
252
Failure to achieve a reset of a multi-family dwelling, prior to going off duty, the incident commander shall contact whom?
Fire Life Safety and advised the Fire Marshal
253
Who is contacted if a building party is unable to be contacted and the system is not able to be reset?
Fire Marshal who may use overtime personnel for a fire watch
254
If a system is malfunctioning in a building that is not normally occupied, what is done? (office building)
a. no fire watch is needed
b. IC will place a note on the main entrance
c. advise FLS of the situation
255
What has proven imperative in gaining early control of structure fires and reducing property damage?
Supplement private protection systems with FD engine operations
256
Who has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinkler system?
Second-arriving engine
257
Hydrant to engine connections should be made with what size hose?
LDH
258
Connections to the FDC should be made with what size hose?
dual 2 1/2"
259
What is the intent of pre-fire planning?
to gather information and formulate tactical considerations
260
What is the pre-fire plan meant to do?
a. reduce the loss of life and property
| b. increase firefighter safety
261
Who assigns pre-fire plans?
Fire Marshal's office
262
The structures and/or properties for pre-fire planning shall be those which, in the event of a fire: (5)
a. present large loss of life
b. present large dollar loss
c. present unusual hazards
d. contain complex layouts
e. require special tactical approaches
263
Fire operations are influenced by factors such as:
a. Occupancy
b. Building construction
c. Location and size of the fire
264
What is consistent with almost every fire?
Benchmarks and tasks
265
All functions of basic fire attack are directed toward:
Saving lives and property conservation
266
If the initial arriving unit has determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, the second arriving unit (eng, lad, res) will:
assume RIT
267
If a structure is fully involved and primary search would not be practical, what is said?
Command will advise dispatch that search will be delayed
268
What should be a part of the initial entry crews equipment? (3)
a. forcible entry tools
b. hand lights
c. rope
269
When is a secondary means of egress required?
fires involving multi-story structures
270
When is an aerial device used for secondary means of egress?
When ground ladders are unable to reach due to height or obstacles
271
What are considered secondary action opposed to basic fire attack? (5)
a. utilities
b. water supply
c. ventilation
d. secondary search
e. salvage/overhaul
272
Who empowered individuals to properly handle controlled substances?
The Fire Chief, through the office of the Medical Director
273
The framework for the controlled substance policy was developed by:
Ft. Lauderdale FR
274
Who maintains accurate records of controlled substances?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee
275
What are the controlled substances carried in SFRD?
a. Morphine Sulfate (MS)
b. Diazepam (Valium)
c. Midazolam (Versed)
Nitrous Oxide 50% (Nitronox)
276
What is a vial?
glass bottle
277
What is a pre-filled syringe?
glass/plastic container
278
What is a container?
hard plastic tube with a plug cap
279
What is a seal?
numbered plastic fastener
280
What is a controlled substance log?
Form for tracking and replacing controlled substances
281
What is a controlled substance box?
Plastic box for storage
282
Who does the department obtain controlled substances through?
Medical Director
283
Controlled substance records shall be maintained for:
a. at least 2 years
| b. located at the main location where department maintains controlled substances
284
What are schedule II?
Morphine Sulfate
285
What are schedule III and IV?
Valium, Versed, Nitrous
286
Which controlled substance records must be kept separate from the others?
Schedule II must be kept separate from schedule III and IV
287
Who will maintain complete, accurate, and up-to-date records for each controlled substance that is received, delivered, or disposed?
Support Services Division
288
Who is the medical director registered with?
US Dept of Justice (DEA)
289
Where are controlled substances stored?
a. PSC
b. ALS units
c. Medical supply kits
290
Controlled substances are stored with the appropriate:
Sanitation, Temperature, and Ventilation
291
Who is approved to handle controlled substances?
a. On-duty paramedics
| b. Approved by the Fire Chief or Medical Director
292
In the event a controlled substance is administered to a patient, become damaged, or has expired, what is the procedure?
Controlled substance log completed
293
For damaged or expired controlled substances:
a. Vial removed and placed in clear bio-hazard bag with seal and security container
b. Return to EMS Shift Supervisor
294
What seal is different color than other controlled substances?
Nitrous Oxide units
295
Who has access to the written drug log on the unit?
Captains or Rescue Lieutenants
296
Can inventory of controlled substances be delegated to an EMT?
No
297
If any confirmed problems are found with the controlled substance log, what is the procedure?
a. immediately notify EMS Shift Supervisor via chain of command
b. EMS Shift Supervisor notifies BC and Administrative Deputy Chief
298
Controlled substance custody change/inspection takes place at:
Shift change
299
When is controlled substance inventory done each day?
0805, face to face
300
The controlled substance logs shall be reviewed for:
a. Accuracy
b. Completion
c. Legibility
301
When is the weekly controlled substance log review?
Reviewed every Sunday
302
Who reviews the log during the weekly controlled substance log review?
a. Rescue lieutenant then,
b. Station captain then,
c. EMS Shift Supervisor
303
Completed controlled substance logs are forwarded to whom?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee
304
Any unused/not administered medication must be disposed of in the presence of:
a. at least two personnel
| b. one of which is the officer in charge of the rescue truck
305
Who authorizes the changes in amounts of controlled substances?
a. EMS Medical Director
| b. Fire Chief
306
If a controlled substance is sued, what is the procedure?
a. the vial, seal, and container in a clear bio-hazard bag
| b. return to EMS Shift Supervisor
307
If any unexplained discrepancy in count of controlled substance or a condition unacceptable to the paramedic is found, what is the procedure?
a. Notify the BC and EMS Shift Supervisor immediately
| b. EMS Shift Supervisor shall respond to the location and notify Battalion and Administrative Deputy Chief immediately
308
Whenever a missing or tampered controlled substance is found, what is the procedure?
a. Station captain or Rescue Lieutenant shall:
1. do not touch anything in vehicle
2. Notify BC and EMS Shift Supervisor
3. If tampering is suspected, chief officer calls PD
309
A copy of the Investigation Chief Officer's or EMS Shift Supervisor report shall be forwarded to:
a. Administrative Deputy Chief
| b. Fire Chief
310
Who orders controlled substances?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee
311
Where are the quantities of controlled substances found for each unit?
a. On the vehicle check out sheets
| b. Sheets are approved by the medical director
312
What responses require the BC to respond and why?
a. Mutual Aid, except medical calls
| b. Monitor the safety of SFRD personnel
313
Who is notified when the BC is out of the city on mutual aid?
Duty chief and will take over the BC duties
314
In the event of a recall to report back to shift, the Shift Battalions are expected to:
Telephone dispatch and report their availability and receive information
315
What are the EMS Captain's responsibilities on Medical responses? (3)
a. Oversee BLS/ALS care
b. Assume command until BC relieves
c. Assume Medical Branch on MCI
316
What are primary duties of the EMS Captain on Fire responses? (6)
a. IC aide
b. Accountability officer
c. RIT member
d. Liaison to other agency
e. Division or Group leader
f. Join up with other personnel to form additional fire company
317
What calls may warrant a staff back up? (7)
a. Major structure fire
b. Significant rescue responses
c. MCI
d. Special operations
e. Situation that warrants administrative duties (PIO)
f. While shift commander is committed
g. Discretion of the shift commander
318
Where does the Duty Chief report to when called in?
The Communications Center to assist dispatch
319
If the duty chief needs to leave the communication center, what happens?
The next duty chief will be contacted to report for duty
320
Staff Officer recall:
a. if availability is impractical, contact with dispatch in not anticipated
b. if a natural disaster occurs, staff officers must contact headquarters and return to duty if recalled
321
What is the response to the mall for a confirmed false alarm?
1E - Single engine response
322
What is the response to the mall for a fire alarm?
1A - first alarm assignment
323
What is the response to the mall for a small of smoke?
1A - first alarm assignment
324
What is the response to the mall for smoke or fire showing?
1A - first alarm assignment, plus notification of Duty Chief
325
What is the response to the mall for working fire?
1A - first alarm assignment, plus 2A - Two alarm fire
326
What are the Fire Scenario Objectives at the mall? (3)
a. Minimize life endangerment
b. Locate, confine, extinguish
c. Keep property damage to a minimum
327
What is the mission of the first arriving engine to the mall?
Determine the extent of emergency and initiate actions
328
What is the mission of the first arriving rescue to the mall?
Joins first arriving engine and assist
329
What equipment will the engine use at the mall? (4)
a. PPE and SCBA
b. Forcible entry tools
c. High-rise kit
d. Hand light
330
What is done with command at the mall?
Transfer command as early as possible
331
What is command transferred as soon as possible at the mall?
limitations of radio communications in the mall and limitations of the command mode
332
What equipment will the rescue use at the mall? (4)
a. PPE and SCBA
b. 100' of 2 1/2"
c. Hand light
d. rope
333
What is the function of the second arriving engine crew at the mall?
RIT
334
What is the mission of the first arriving ladder to the mall?
a. Forcible entry
| b. Search and rescue
335
Fire stream operations from the ladder during the initial stages of the fire are most directed at:
retarding flame spread
336
Who on the ladder will become the RIT team?
Officer and driver
337
What is the mission for the Rescue Lieutenant at the mall?
Incident commander aide
338
What are the primary responsibilities as IC aide?
a. passport accountability
b. mall liaison
c. tactical worksheet monitor
339
What is a function that the BC should perform at the mall?
Request dispatch to contact water department and increase water pressure on the mall distribution system
340
Who can be used to assist with mall evacuation?
mall security
341
Primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims:
secondary to fire control
342
All tactics at the mall are based on:
Preventing loss of life
343
The first-arriving engine and rescue companies should direct their efforts to:
locating and confining the fire
344
What radio channel may be needed when operating in the mall?
Non-repeated radio channel 4
345
Why should mall security be contacted at the mall? (4)
a. Control HVAC
b. Use cameras to evaluate interior conditions
c. Obtain keys for doors and gates
d. Obtain dollies and carts
346
In all cases, the patient _____ by SFRD.
shall be transported
347
Who can grant medical clearance?
Florida licensed physician
348
If a police officer request medical clearance, what is the procedure?
Results in the patient being transported to closest appropriate hospital
349
Who can baker act?
Law enforcement and physicians
350
What does OC spray stand for?
Oleoriesin Capsicum
351
What is OC spray?
a. Lachrymatory agent
| b. a chemical compound that stimulates the corneal nerves in the eyes to cause tears, pain and temporary blindness
352
What does pepper spray cause? (4)
a. Inflammation of mucous membranes
b. Closing of the eyes
c. Difficulty breathing
d. Runny nose and coughing
353
How long does pepper spray last?
a. 30-45 minutes
| b. Diminished effects lasting hours
354
What does CN gas stand for?
Chloracetophenone
355
What is CN gas?
Non-lethal irritant agent containing purified tear gas
356
How does CN gas work? (3)
a. Eye and skin irritations
b. Burning sensation to area affected
c. Suffocation if inhaled
357
How long does CN gas last?
30 minutes up to 2 hours
358
What can diminish the effects of CN gas?
Alcohol or drug use
359
Define tear gas:
A chemical that is used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of the eyes and/or respiratory system
360
What are popular tear gas names? (4)
CS
CN
CR
OC pepper spray
361
What does ECD stand for?
a. Electronic Control Devices
| b. Loss of neuromuscular control
362
What is excited delirium?
State in which a person is in a psychotic and extremely agitated state
363
What are some causes of excited delirium? (5)
a. Overdose on stimulant or hallucinogenic
b. Drug withdrawal
c. Non-medicated psychiatric
d. Head trauma
e. Diabetic emergency
364
What are some symptoms of excited delirium? (6)
a. Bizarre/aggressive behavior
b. Dilated pupils
c. High body temp, shivering, sweating
d. Incoherent speech
e. Inconsistent breathing
f. Fear and panic
365
What will help with the effects of pepper spray?
Copious amounts of water
366
All companies will turnout within _____ after dispatched.
a. 60 seconds
| b. "Roll-called" if not en-route
367
After the primary company goes responding, what does dispatch do?
a. Repeat the address and zone number
| b. Add additional information
368
Who is responsible for securing the station and ensuring all doors are closed?
Station commander or designee
369
If the company officer fails to acknowledge the call, what does dispatch do? (4)
a. Immediately repeat the dispatch assignment
b. If still no response, request next closest company
c. Try to make phone contact at the station
d. Notify Shift Commander of the situation
370
How many engines respond to a residential structure fire?
a. 2 engines
| b. an additional engine if a confirmed fire
371
How many engines respond to a vehicle fire?
a. 1 engine and 1 rescue
| b. an additional engine if a confirmed fire
372
How many engines respond to a commercial structure fire?
a. 3 engines
| b. an additional engine if a confirmed fire
373
How many engines on a boat fire?
a. 1 engine
| b. an additional engine if confirmed fire
374
A fire alarm at a Healthcare Facility will be treated as what?
Commercial structure fire response
375
What does GPSN1 stand for?
a. Global Page for Sunrise Fire Rescue Staff Members
| b. Dispatch automatically alerts Duty Chief
376
What does the Incident Commander on a GPSN1 incident do?
a. Just confirm that the duty chief was called
| b. May need to request a page to staff if incident didn't originate as a GPSN1
377
What incidents should the BC consider responding to?
a. multiple companies
| b. Implementation of IMS
378
What incidents should the EMS Captain consider responding to?
a. multiple companies
b. implementation of IMS
c. medical supervision incidents
d. expedite pre-hospital care
379
If an aerial device is not available to respond to an incident what happens?
an additional engine shall be added
380
If the initial arriving company sizes up a scene as "nothing showing" what does the response do?
slow to code 1
381
When should a code 1 response upgrade to a code 3 response?
a. smoke/fire showing
| b. RIT, rehab, or other IMS
382
What additional incident should alert the Duty Chief?
a. Large loss of life
b. Resident/occupant displacement
c. Media concern
383
Who are the details coordinated through?
Assigned Detail Officer
384
What are some of the types of details? (5)
a. Fire watch
b. Medical stand-by
c. Fire prevention
d. Public relations and demonstrations
e. Other special details
385
What can special details consist of?
Fire and/or EMS
386
What personnel are eligible for Special Details?
a. All personnel except
1. exempt staff
2. probationary employees
3. restricted by Fire Chief
4. medical leave
5. light duty
6. on administrative suspension
387
What time does detail sign up start and end?
0930 - 1130 at PSC
388
Details that occur after detail sign up will be filled through:
a. Station Call
b. If greater than 72 hours, calls will be made station by station, shift by shift, starting with the shift that was on duty during sign up
389
What is the process if you find a replacement for your detail spot?
a. Equally qualified
| b. Finalized by notifying Detail Officer and receiving approval
390
If an employee signed up for a detail and now is sick, what is the procedure?
a. Notify Detail Officer, Rescue Lt., or BC
| b. Via direct person to person a minimum of 4 hours prior to start time
391
What is the first offense for missing a detail?
6 month suspension
392
What is the second offense for missing a detail?
1 year suspension
393
If notice was received by the Rescue Lt. or BC of the inability of a person to fulfill their detail obligation, they will secure a replacement by:
Calling from the call list provided by the detail officer
394
What type of system is used for payment on details?
a. Voucher system
| b. Handled by Detail Officer and coordinated with City Finance/Payroll
395
Can food be purchased from the caterer?
For Panthers Home Games only
396
Who is responsible for insuring that all personnel arrive on time to details?
Rescue Lt. or BC if Rescue Lt. is unavailable
397
What is the uniform for a detail?
Class B uniform
398
If a personal vehicle is used to go to a detail if a reserve vehicle is unavailable, what is the compensation?
No monetary compensation
399
Who is notified of any broken or defective detail equipment?
Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief
400
When is a patient transported in the detail rescue?
extreme circumstances
401
Who is notified of the completion of the detail?
a. Rescue Lt. or BC
| b. Along with any paperwork
402
Where is the detail unit parked?
Returned to a fire station or inside the PSC rear compound
403
Who can request a medical standby?
Outside organizations or Fire Chief
404
What is the staffing for an EMS standby?
Minimum of two personnel, discretion of the Fire Chief
405
Who determines the need for a fire watch detail?
Fire Chief or designee
406
If any member of the FD receives a complaint about a fire or life hazard, after the normal hours of the Fire Marshal's office, what is done?
a. Obtain all possible information
| b. Immediately notify the Shift Commander
407
What will the Shift Commander do when notified by an employee that there is a fire or life hazard violation?
Investigate and try to gain compliance
408
If the shift commander believes the appropriate party will not resolve the violation nor cause compliance to remain in effect:
The on-call inspector will be requested to respond
409
If the on-call inspector feels the need for a fire watch, who is notified?
Fire Chief or designee
410
If the Fire Chief and on-call inspector agree for the need for a fire watch detail, who performs the fire watch?
The on-call inspector while the shift commander arranges for relief
411
Can the procedure for the occupancy in question be handwritten during a fire watch?
yes and should be individualized
412
When relief arrives, what does the on-call inspector do with the fire watch detail employee?
Orally and physically review the written procedure
413
Should an incident occur during a fire watch, what is the procedure? (3)
a. activate the building alarm
b. simultaneously notify dispatch with a brief description
c. offensive fire attack to aid occupants if necessary
414
How many fire inspectors are assigned to a fire watch?
Not more than one unless unusual circumstance
415
Who determines which inspector is in charge if multiple inspectors are needed on the fire watch detail?
Fire Marshal, regardless of rank
416
When a fire inspector is needed on a multi-person detail, he shall act as supervisor for what?
Code related matters, regardless of other ranks involved
417
Who performs a one-person fire watch?
Line personnel unless special circumstance
418
When will a supervisor be assigned to a fire watch?
Fire watch details requiring more than three personnel
419
In all cases where the detail is required by code, the detail shall be under the direct control of:
Fire Marshal
420
What kit will be onsite for all fire watches?
BLS kit
421
How is a fire watch detail terminated?
All paperwork completed and reviewed by Shift Commander if the FLS is not on site
422
What is the MERC?
a. Mobile Emergency Response Cart
| b. Staffed with minimum 2 personnel
423
What is the BERT?
a. Bicycle Emergency Response Team
b. Staffed with minimum of 2 personnel
c. Trained through the training division
