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Board Exam Questions 🌸 > Pharmacology I > Flashcards

Pharmacology I Flashcards

1
Q

Branch of medicine concerned with the uses, effects and modes of action of drugs

A

Pharmacology

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2
Q

Branch of pharma concerned with EFFECTS OF DRUGS and MECHANISM of their action

A

Pharmacodynamics

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3
Q

Branch of pharma concerned with MOVEMENT OF DRUGS within the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

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4
Q

Process of pharmacokinetics

A 
ADME
Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion
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5
Q

Study of drug’s harmful effects

A

Toxicology

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6
Q

2 drugs that prevent toxicity

A

Activated charcoal

Syrup of Ipecac

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7
Q

Absorption of drug starts in….

A

Small intestine (jejunum)

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8
Q

Activated charcoal has a property called ____

A

Adsorption - stick to different toxins

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9
Q

Accumulation of drug bec it cannot be excreted by the body

A

Cumulation

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10
Q

Cumulation is associated with (2)

A

Liver damage

Kidney damage

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11
Q

Drugs contraindicated for glaucoma

A

Diazepam

Anticholinergic drugs

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12
Q

Most allergenic drug

A

Penicillins

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13
Q

Study of damage to fetus during development

A

Teratology

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14
Q

Study of drug dosage

A

Posology

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15
Q

Teratogenic drug (2)

A

Tetracyclines

Thalidomide

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16
Q

Process of drug uptake from site of administration towards the bloodstream

A

Absorption

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17
Q

Route of administration during absorption (3)

A

Enteral
Parenteral
Inhalation

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18
Q

Most common site of drug administration

A

Oral

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19
Q

Common site of IV

A

Antecubital region

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20
Q

Most common site for IM

A

Vastus lateralis

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21
Q

*Bypasses membranes (straight to circulatory)

A

IV

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22
Q

Fastest route if target site is BRAIN

A

Inhalation

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23
Q

Type of route with slow and least absorption

A

Intradermal

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24
Q

Weak acids are attracted to ____

Weak bases are attracted to ______

A

Higher pH levels (6 to 7.4)

Lower pH levels (8 to 7.4)

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25
Q

Amount of drug that reaches the circulatory system after administration

A

Bioavailability

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26
Q

Drug solubility

A

Slightly hyrophilic

Largely hydrophobic

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27
Q

Phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the cxn of orally taken drugs is reduced before reaching the systemic circulatory

A

First pass effect

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28
Q

Ability of drug to move from circulatory system into their target sites

A

Distribution

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29
Q

Free floating drugs

A

Free ionized drug

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30
Q

Bounded to plasma proteins

A

Bound drug

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31
Q

Tendency of substance to separate or dissociate from its binding

A

Dissociation constant (Kd)

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32
Q

**Most important microsomal liver enzyme

A

Cytochrome P450

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33
Q

Example of PRODRUGS (3)

A

Aspirin or acetylsalicylic acid (asa) - salicylates

Codeine - morphine

Alcohol - ethanol

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34
Q

Drugs metabolized in liver

A

Amide LA

Most drugs

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35
Q

Drugs metabolized in plasma

A

Ester LA

Succinylcholine

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36
Q

***for laryngospasm

A

Succinylcholine

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37
Q

Drug used if px is allergic to both amide and ester

A

Diphenhydramine HCL

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38
Q

*Plasma enzyme

A

Plasma pseudocholinesterase

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39
Q

Liver enzyme

A

Microsomal enzyme

Non microsomal enzyme

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40
Q

Time required for a drug to reduce half of its initial value

A

Half life (t1/2)

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41
Q

Rate at which the active drug is removed from the body

A

Clearance

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42
Q

Amount of drug eliminated is CONSTANT and is NOT dependent on the cxn of drug in plasma fluid

A

Zero order kinetics

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43
Q

Amount of drug eliminated is DEPENDENT on the cxn of drug in plasma fluid

Most drugs

A

First order kinetics

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44
Q

Drug that has more chances of cumulation
A. Zero order kinetics
B. First order kinetics
C. Same

A

A.

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45
Q

Dosage of drug needed to produce an effect

A

Potency

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46
Q

Refers to the EFFECT OF A DRUG

A

Efficacy

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47
Q

Maximum effect of a drug where no effect is added even though drug dose is increased

A

Maximal effect or ceiling effect

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48
Q

Curve that describes the degree of response of a single biological unit to a given drug dose

A

Graded dose effect curve

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49
Q

Curve that describes the relationship bet increasing drug dosage and % of the population

A

Quantal dose effect curve

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50
Q

Absorption start from what organ

A

Small intestine (jejunum)

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51
Q

What organ convert drugs into water soluble

A

Liver (metabolism)

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52
Q

Safe for pregnancy

A

LA
Analgesics
Sedative hypnotics

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53
Q

Slow and least absorption route

A

Intradermal

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54
Q

IM site

A

Vastus lateralis
Gluteus maximus
Deltoid

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55
Q

Site for gluts

A

Superolateral or outer lateral corner

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56
Q

Organ responsible for first pass effect

A

Liver

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57
Q

Lower Dissociation constant = slower distribution = low or high tendency to separate to drug

Longer or shorter duration
Slow effect or fast
Slow onset or fast

A

Longer
Slow
Slow

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58
Q

Function of liver in drug metabolism

A

Lipid sol to water sol
Converts active to inactive form
Converrs prodrugs to active form

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59
Q

Most common topical anesth

A

Benzocaine

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60
Q

LA metabolized by both liver and plasma

A

Articaine

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61
Q

Major organ for excretion

A

Kidney

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62
Q

Example drug of zero order kinetics (3)

A

Alcohol
Phenytoin
Aspirin

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63
Q

Dose of drug that has therapeutic effect in 50% of population

A

Medial effective dose (ED50)

64
Q

Dose of drug that has lethal effects in 50% of population

A

Medial lethal dose (LD50)

65
Q

*Therapeutic index formula

A

LD50/ED50

TLE

66
Q

Targets of drug action (3)

A

Receptors
Enzymes
Drug acting as physical or chemical agents

67
Q

Ability of drug to bind to its target site

A

Affinity

68
Q

Ability of drug to produce an effect after binding to its target site

A

Intrinsic activity

69
Q

Part of body where drugs interact to produce their effects

A

Receptors

70
Q

Elicits maximal response by activating all or portions of the receptors

A

Full agonists

71
Q

Instrinsic activity of 0

A

Antagonist

72
Q

Competes with receptor sites of agonists

Results in dec potency

A

Competitive antagonists

73
Q

Example of competitive antagonist

A

Belladona alkaloids

74
Q

Belladonna alkaloids (2)

A

Atropine

Scopolamine

75
Q

Competes against cholinergic drugs

A

Belladonna alkaloids

76
Q

Antagonist that has its own receptor and doesnt compete

Result in dec efficacy

A

Non competitive Antagonist

77
Q

Naloxone is an antagonist of what drug

A

Narcotics

78
Q

Flumanezil is an antagonist of what drug

A

Benzodiazepines

79
Q

Produces less maximal response even all receptors are occupied

A

Partial agonist

80
Q

Acts as an agonist and antagonist

A

Partial agonist

81
Q

2 theories of structure action relationships

A

Clarks occupational theory

Paton’s rate theory

82
Q

Theory wherein drug effect is PROPORTIONAL to the number of RECEPTORS OCCUPIED

A

Clark’s occupational theory

83
Q

Drug receptor relationship that has affinity and intrinsic activity

A

Full agonists

84
Q

Drug receptor relationship that has affinity but no intrinsic activity

A

Antagonist

85
Q

Drug receptor relationship that has affinity but lesser intrinsic activity compared to agonist

A

Partial agonist

86
Q

Clark’s occupational theory aka

A

Occupational theory

87
Q

Drug effect is proportional to RATE at which the DRUG and RECEPTOR combine

A

Paton’s Rate theory or rate theory

88
Q

Drug associates quickly and disassociates immediately to the receptor to be able to reassociate again

A

Agonists

89
Q

Drug associates but dissociates much slower therefore reassociation to the receptor is also slower

A

Antagonist

90
Q

Sedative hypnotics are used for (3)

A

Sedation
Hypnosis
Muscle relaxation

91
Q

Types of sedation

A

Minimal
Moderate
Deep

92
Q

Type of sedation wherein px is awake and relaxed

A

Minimal or conscious sedation

93
Q

Type of sedation with feeling asleep but can follow commands

A

Moderate sedation

94
Q

Type of sedation that is asleep but can be awaken

A

Deep sedation

95
Q

Medically induced coma

A

Gen anesthesia

96
Q

Two types of amnesia

A

Anterograde

Retrograde

97
Q

Type of amnesia that doesn’t form new memories

A

Anterograde

98
Q

Type of amnesia wherein old memories are forgotten

A

Retrograde amnesia

99
Q

Classification of sedative hypnotics

A

Barbiturates

Non barbiturates

100
Q

Active ingredient of barbiturates

A

Barbaric acid

101
Q

Classification of barbiturates (4)

A

Ultra short acting
Short acting
Intermediate acting
Long acting

102
Q

Ultra short acting drugs (2)

A

Thiopental
Methohexital

TM - ultrashort ultramura

103
Q

Guedel’s stage of gen. anesthesia (4)

A

Stage 1 - amnesia and analgesia
2 - delirium
3 - surgical anesth
4 - respiratory depression

104
Q

Short acting barbiturates(2)

A

Secobarbital
Pentobarbital

(SSPENT - Short Seco Pento)

105
Q

Intermediate acting barbiturates(2)

A

Amobarbital
Butabarbital

(AmBuy)

106
Q

Long acting barbiturates (3)

A

Phenobarbital
Mephobarbital
Primidone

107
Q

Barbiturates for epileptic seizures

A

Long acting

108
Q

Non barbiturates(4)

A

Chloral hydrate
Flurazepam
Ethanol
Diphenhydramine

109
Q

Non barbi commonly used in Pediatrics

A

Chloral hydrate

110
Q

Specific receptor of narcotics

A

Mu kappa delta

111
Q

Specific receptors of cholinergic (para)

A

Muscarinic receptors

112
Q

Reduce action of cholinesterase to improve muscular contraction

A

Anti cholinesterase

113
Q

*anti cholinesterase drug is used for what dse

A

Myesthenia gravis

114
Q

Drug properties (2)

A

Affinity

Intrinsic Activity

115
Q

Receptor acting drugs

A

Full agonist
Antagonist
Partial agonist

116
Q

Naloxone or Naltrexone is as ANTAGONIST of what drug

A

Narcotics

117
Q

Flumanezil is an ANTAGONIST of what drug

A

Benzodiazepines

118
Q

Used for induction of gen anesth

A

Ultra short acting barbiturates

119
Q

Stage 1 of gen anesth

A

Amnesia and analgesia

120
Q

Unstable stage of gen anesth

A

Stage 2 -delirium

121
Q

Most stable stage of gen anesth

A

Stage 3

Surgical anesth

122
Q

Stage of gen anesth wherein it can happen if px is overdosed

A

Stage 4

Respiratory depression

123
Q

Administration of chloral hydrate

A

Oral

124
Q

Regulate sleep wake cycles

A

Reticular activating System (RAS)

125
Q

Drug for lethal injection (3)

A

Thiopental
Pancuronium bromide
KCl

126
Q

Drug uses (sedative - hypnotic drug)

A

Sedation
Induction of gen anesth
Insomnia
Anti seizure and anti anxiety

127
Q

Adverse drug effects of sedative hypnotic drugs (4)

A

Drug dependence
Stimulates porphyrin production
Respiratory depression
Coma

128
Q

Depressant drugs

A

SNAB KA

SEDATIVE HYPNOTICS
NARCOTICS
ALCOHOL
BENZODIAZEPINES

129
Q

Never combine with other CNS depressant because it has ____ effect

A

Synergistic effect

1+1 = >2

130
Q

Sedative hypnotics produces analgesia

T or F

A

False

131
Q

Sedative hypnotics produces drug dependence

A

True

132
Q

Naloxone and narcotics have ____ effect/drug

A

Antagonist
1+1=0
Demi Lovato

133
Q

Anti convulsant drugs are used (3)

A

Anti epileptic or anti seizure
Antianxiety
Sedation

134
Q

Type of seizures

A

Partial seizure

Generalize seizure

135
Q

Seizure with abnormal activity in just one part of the brain

A

Partial seizure

136
Q

Seizure where abnormal activity in all parts of brain

A

Generalize seizure

137
Q

Seizure with absence of consciousness
Absence of movt for few seconds

AKA

A

Absence seizures

Petit mal seizure

138
Q

Seizure wherein muscle are jerking for few seconds to few mins

A

Myoclonic

139
Q

Seizure wherein there is muscle relaxation for few seconds to few mins

AKA

A

Atonic seizure

Drop seizure

140
Q

Seizure wherein px is unconscious with muscle stiffness and jerking movt’s for few mins

Most common type

A

Tonic clonic seizures

141
Q

Tonic clonic seizure aka

A

Grandmal seizure

Up to 5 mins

142
Q

30 mins seizure aka

A

Status epilepticus

Repeated grandmal

143
Q

DOC for tonic clonic and status epilepticus seizure

A

Diazepam

Phenytoin (if wala sa choice ung isa)

144
Q

Ca channel blocker drugs

A

Nifedipine
Verapamil
Cyclosporine

145
Q

Drug with gingival hyperplasia side effect

A

Phenytoin
Nifedipine
Verapamil
Cyclosporines

146
Q

Doc for tic douloureux

A

Carbamezapine (Tegretol)

147
Q

*Benzodiazepines that induce GA

A

Midazolam
Diazepam
Lorazepam

148
Q

Most common benzodiazepines used for GA

A

Midazolam

149
Q

Least common benzodiazepines used for GA

A

Lorazepam

150
Q

Common drugs for anti seizure (5)

A 
Benzodiazepines
Phenytoin
Carbamezapine
Valproic acid 
Barbiturates
151
Q

Anti anxiety drugs potentiates _____ receptors and ______ neurotransmitters

A

GABA

Inhibitory

152
Q

Main use for phenytoin (2)

A

Anti seizure

Anti arrythmia

153
Q

Active drug of benzodiazepines

A

Dimethyldiazepam

154
Q

Diazepam is slowly and poorly absorbed in what route of administration

A

IM

155
Q

Diazepam is greatly absorbed in (2)

A

Oral

IV

156
Q

Adverse effect of Anti anxiety drugs

A

Severe sedation
Paradoxical excitement

Drug dependence
Respi depression
Drug induced gingival hyperplasia

157
Q

Anti anxiety Drug uses

A

Anti convulsants
Preop sedation
Induction of gen anesth

Insomnia
Mild anticholinergic effect

Board Exam Questions 🌸 (21 decks)

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