Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dermatology 2 > Microbial skin disease 2 > Flashcards

Microbial skin disease 2 Flashcards

Viral and protozoal

1
Q

Outline the importance of lumpy skin disease

A
  • Morbidity variable, mortality usually ow

- Economic importance due to huge production loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the clinical signs of lumpy skin disease

A
  • Pyrexia, inappetance, abortion, reduced lactation
  • Skin lesions: 0.5-5cm cutaneous nodules, 1-2 days after onset of pyrexia esp. on head, neck, perineum, genitalia, and udder
  • Similar lesions in GIT and lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give examples of parapoxviruses and their importance in humans

A
  • Contagious pustular dermatitis (orf), pseduocowpox, bovine papular stomatitis
  • All zoonotic, similar presentation in humans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the clinical signs of orf

A
  • Proliferative ulcerative lesions following trauma to lips/muzzle, coronary band
  • Lesions also on ewe’s teats (pain, mastitis)
  • Clinical disease espically in lambs <2mo as these fail to suckle due to discomfort in mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Outline the importance of orf

A
  • Significant economic losses
  • Serious welfare issue
  • Lesions may lead to secondary bacterial infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe common secondary infections that can occur as a result of orf

A
  • Staph aureus, leading to severe facial dermatitis

- Dermatophilus congolensis, leads to granulomatous masses at coronary band (strawberry footrot in sheep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the treatment for orf

A
  • No effective treatment
  • treat secondary infection, analgesia
  • Vaccine available but only for flocks with existing problem
  • Can be used in response to an outbreak
  • Disinfect building as virus remains infective in environment for many months, and in dried scabs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of teat disease in cattle?

A

Pseudocowpox (udder also affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the appearance of bovine papular stomatitis and outline its importance

A
  • Erythematous raised papules/ulcers on muzzle, lips, oral cavity
  • Usually animals <2yo
  • Mild disease, short immunity
  • Differential for FMDV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical signs of Scrapie?

A
  • Pruritus
  • trembling
  • Nibbling, teeth grinding
  • Nervous, aggressive
  • Loss of condition
  • Ataxia, collapse, death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is Scrapie diagnosed?

A
  • Clinical diagnosis can be reliable

- Also post-mortem histology, demonstration of PrP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Outline the control of Scrapie

A
  • Cull affected sheep and descendants
  • Select for genetically resistant sheep
  • National Scrapie Plan 2001, Compulsory Flocks Scheme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the key small animal viral skin diseases

A
  • Canine papillomas
  • Feline papillomas
  • FeLV/FIV
  • Feline calicivirus
  • Feline herpesvirus
  • Canine distemper virus
  • Cowpox
  • Myxomatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is canine papilloma virus transmitted?

A

Direct and indirect contact, common in groups of dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the appearance of canine papilloma virus lesiosn

A
  • Warts
  • Mouth, lips, eyes: smooth shiny plaques or papillated lesions
  • Footpads: firm, hyperkeratotic, often horn-like lesions
  • Young and adult dogs affected, usually multiple lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Outline the treatment of canine papillomas

A
  • Usually allow to resolve spontaneously, although new ones may develop
  • Surgery if causing problems
  • Topical keratolytic/softening preparations (water and petroleum jelly) can decrease discomfort but will not alter course of infection
  • Imiquimod cream, interferon, azithromycin have anecdotal evidence, but poorly vaidated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

With what other disease may canine papillomas be confused? Why is this important?

A
  • Pigmented viral plaques seen commonly in French Bulldogs and Pugs
  • These pigmented plaques may not resolve and need treatment
  • Immunosuppressives should be avoided as can allow viral proliferation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the clinical signs and clinical significance of canine distemper virus

A
  • Hardpad
  • Naso-digital hyperkeratosis
  • respiratory, GI and neurological symptoms, very sick dogs
  • Rarely seen now due to vaccination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the prevalence and cause of feline papillomas

A
  • Rare

- Associated with immunocompromise e.g. FeLV, FIV and other causes of impaired immune function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What cutaneous presentations may be seen with FeLV/FIV?

A
  • FeLV may cause cutaneous sarcomas

- Chronic or recurrent pyodermas, cutaneous horns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline calicivirus/herpes virus?

A
  • Oral ulceration, can occasionally affect the skin
  • Mild sneezing and conjunctivitis
  • +/- lameness, polyarthritis
  • +/- small ulcers/crusts (can look like cat bites)
  • +/- severe favial dermatitis
  • rare virulent form leads to marked crusting, oedema, systemic disease and death
22
Q

Outline the management for feline calicivirus

A

Vaccination

23
Q

What presenting sign is Calicivirus a key differential for?

A

Head and neck pruritus (plus the other clinical signs of course)

24
Q

Outline the occurrence of cowpox in cats

A
  • Uncommon
  • Cattle rarely the cause, smal wild animals are a natural reservoir
  • Cats infected by wild animals while hunting e.g. voles, woodmouse
25
Q

Explain the transmission of cowpox to cats

A
  • From voles, woodmice etc when hunting
  • Bite, becomes infected, often head, neck, forelimbs, leads to small nodule and viraemia, within 10-14 days secondary lesions over body
26
Q

Describe the clinical signs of cowpox in cats

A
  • +/- mild pyrexia, inappetance, depression (mild viraemia)
  • Papules, nodules, plaques, crusts (secondary lesions all over body)
  • Rarely pruritic, occasionally systemic infection
27
Q

When is cow pox most commonly seen in cats?

A

July to November

28
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for signs that may indicate cowpox in cats?

A
  • Eosinophilic grnauloma
  • Cat bite abscess
  • Dermatophytosis
  • Superficial pyoderma
  • Mycobacterial infection (feline leprosy)
29
Q

Outline the treatment of cowpox in cats

A
  • NOT STEROIDS: will lead to death
  • Often resolves self
  • Broad spec. antibiotics if necessary
30
Q

What is the main protozoal agent that causes cutaneous disease

A

Leishmania

31
Q

Describe the global distribution of Leishmania

A
  • Global
  • Med and Portugal particularly affected, now reports in Northwest Europe
  • Not yet in UK, only if travel abroad
32
Q

How is Leishmaniasis spread?

A

Bloodsucking phlebotomine snadflies

33
Q

Identify reservoirs for Leishmaniasis

A
  • Domestic and wild dogs
  • Rodents
  • Other wild animals
34
Q

What is the importance of the incubation period for Leishmaniasis?

A
  • Incubation can be weeks to years, mainly in dogs <5yo

- Dogs imported from endemic areas e.g. med, may develop disease months or years later

35
Q

What are the 2 possibly lymphocytic responses and outcomes following infection with Leishmania?

A
  • Th1 response: cell mediated immunity and resistance

- Th2 response: humoral response and persistent infection and clinical signs

36
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Leishmaniasis

A
  • Circulating immune complexes lead to renal, joint and ocular lesions
  • Non-suppurative granulomas, hepatic, enteric and osseus disease
  • Slowly progressive, multi-systemic
37
Q

In what proportion of cases do cutaneous signs develop, and identify these

A
  • 80%
  • Exfoliative dermatitis (akak asbestos scales)
  • Nasodigital hyperkeratosis
  • Ulcers (esp. on pressure points, extremities, M-C junctions)
  • Paronychia
  • Alopecia (esp. head, periocular)
  • Sterile pustular dermatitis
  • Diffuse erythema, erythematous plaques
  • Nodules, papules
  • Secondary pyoderma, demodicosis
38
Q

Describe the systemic signs of Leishmaniasis

A
  • Generalised lymphadenopathy
  • Anaemia
  • PUPD/glomerulonephritis, renal failure
  • Hepato/splenomegaly
  • Exercise intolerance, weight loss, pyrexia
  • Ocular lesions, coagulopathies, lameness, meningitis, V, D, URT signs
39
Q

Describe the diagnosis of Leishmaniasis

A
  • Demonstration of organism in macrophages in LN or bone marrow aspirates (indicates active infection)
  • Serology or PCR
  • Skin biopsies suportive
  • Antibodies difficult to identify if active or previous infection
40
Q

Outline the treatment and management for Leishmaniasis

A
  • Meglumine antimonate, sodium stibogluconate, pentamidine, metronidazole, ketoconazole
  • Incurable, relapses after treatment
  • Euthanasia valid option
  • Vaccination available but not 100% effective
  • Prevention key
41
Q

Explain the use of Meglumine antimonate an sodium stibogluconate in the treatment of Leishmaniasis

A

Works by inhibiting DNA replication and transcription

42
Q

What type of drug is pentamidine?

A

Anti-protozoal and anti-fungal

43
Q

Which drugs are licensed in the treatment of Leishmaniasis?

A

None

44
Q

Explain the importance of all vesicular diseases

A
  • Some notifiable
  • Economic losses (slaughter policies, movement restrictions, mortality, production loss, loss of sales/shows, increased labour for nursing)
  • Some are zoonoses
45
Q

List the zoonotic viral and protozoal cutaneous diseases

A
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Bovine herpes mammillitis
  • Cowpox
  • Parapoxviruses
  • Leishmaniasis
46
Q

Outline the environmental management regarding dermatophytosis infection

A
  • Thorough disinfection
  • Use Chlorhexidine
  • Wash bedding twice consecutively at high temperature long washes, or dispose
  • Temporary bedding until end of treatment
  • Do not share brushes etc.
  • Environmental decontamination with 1:10 dilution of bleach
  • Enilconazole soln 0.2% also effective
  • Vacuuming and safe disposal of vacuumed hair
  • Virkon where bleach cannot be used
47
Q

Describe the treatment of animals in contact with an animal diagnosed with dermatophytosis

A
  • Topical minimum, ideally systemic treatment
  • Topical: MIconazole for cats, enilconazole for dogs
  • Systemic: itraconazole licensed for cats, itrafungol also licensed for cats, for dogs use ketoconazole (licensed) or itraconazole (not licensed for dogs, but safer)
48
Q

Describe the treatment of an animal for dermatophytosis using enilconazole

A
  • Not effective alone
  • Need to remove crusts with hard brush soaked in solution
  • Spray whole body at first application
  • Wash 4 times at 3 day intervals
  • Can dip thoroughly in bath containing emulsion
49
Q

What are the side effects of enilconazole?

A
  • Hypersalivation
  • Idiopathic muscle weakness
  • Slightly increased serum ALT concentration
50
Q

Evaluate the use of malaseb shampoo in the control of dermatophytosis

A
  • Contains miconazole and chlorhexidine
  • Licensed for dogs and cats
  • Not very practical if have multiple animals to wash
  • Can be helpful in control
  • Wash twice weekly, minimum contact time 10 mins
51
Q

What information should be given to an owner when treating an animal for dermatophytosis

A
  • Is zoonotic, need to go to doctor
  • Environment needs thorough disinfection
  • IN contact animals are at risk
  • Once treated, short lived immunity
  • Animal is not cured when they look better
  • Clip area if possible rather than shaving to facilitate treatment penetration

Dermatology 2 (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions