7.20 Maintenance Procedures Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
What is the purpose of the Approved Maintenance Programme (AMP)?
A
To ensure the continued airworthiness and safety of all aircraft.
2
Q
Who must approve the AMP?
A
The national authorities of the country of certification (EASA in Europe, FAA in America).
3
Q
What is the AMP also known as?
A
The Maintenance Planning Document (MPD).
4
Q
What is required to obtain a Type Certificate (TC) for an aircraft?
A
An Approved Maintenance Programme (AMP).
5
Q
How do operators typically use the AMP?
A
Operators usually customise the AMP for their own use based on the manufacturer’s programme.
6
Q
What is the Maintenance Review Board Report (MRBR)?
A
A report that suggests and recommends changes to the manufacturer’s maintenance programme.
7
Q
Who reviews the MRBR for acceptance and implementation?
A
Regulatory authorities.
8
Q
What is the role of the Industry Steering Committee (ISC)?
A
To receive and review all information relating to the maintenance of an aircraft.
9
Q
What does the Maintenance Steering Group (MSG) do?
A
It develops and modifies maintenance programmes.
10
Q
What is the current procedure for maintenance programme development?
A
MSG-3R2, established in 1993.
11
Q
What is a Certification Maintenance Requirement (CMR)?
A
A required scheduled maintenance task established during the design certification of the aircraft systems.
12
Q
How are CMR tasks identified?
A
With a hash sign (#) placed under the frequency of the specific task.
13
Q
What are AirWorthiness Limitations (AWL)?
A
Items defined as critical from a fatigue or damage tolerance assessment.
14
Q
What is the purpose of aircraft maintenance checks?
A
To establish or maintain the operational status of an aircraft.
15
Q
What is a transit check?
A
A check performed on the ramp before every flight to ensure continued airworthiness.
16
Q
What is an A-check?
A
A thorough visual inspection and operational check of the airframe and engine systems performed approximately every 500–800 flight hours.
17
Q
What is a C-check?
A
A more extensive check performed approximately every 15–24 months or at a specific amount of flying hours.
18
Q
What is a D-check?
A
The most comprehensive check for an aircraft, occurring after approximately five to six years.
19
Q
What is a modification in aviation?
A
A modification is a change made to an aircraft from its original state or condition, which can involve changes to the structure, systems, or replacement of components.
20
Q
Why must modifications be approved?
A
Any change to the aircraft is an alteration from the original standard, so the modification must be approved to maintain certification.
21
Q
Who can design a modification?
A
An organisation other than the Type Certificate (TC) holder can design a modification if it has design approval under Part-21.
22
Q
What happens if a modification is not approved?
A
Failure to get approval for any change results in the Certificate of Airworthiness becoming invalid.
23
Q
What are the two types of modification classification?
A
The two types are Minor and Major modifications.
24
Q
How does Part-21 define a minor modification?
A
A minor modification is defined as one that has no appreciable effect on mass, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics, noise, fuel venting, exhaust emissions, or other characteristics affecting airworthiness.
25
What is a major modification?
A major modification is any modification that is not classified as minor and can have a larger effect on the overall airworthiness of the aircraft.
26
What is required for minor modifications to EASA controlled aircraft?
Minor modifications are applied using an EASA ‘Application for Approval of Minor Change or Minor Repair Design’ sent directly to EASA.
27
What must be submitted for a major modification approval?
The applicant must submit substantiating data, proof of compliance with certification specifications, and a declaration of compliance with type certification basis.
28
What governs the modification approval process for non-EASA aircraft?
The modification approval process for non-EASA aircraft is covered by national regulations.
29
What form must be completed for major changes in the UK?
CAA Form SRG 1726 must be completed and returned to the CAA Safety Regulation Group.
30
What is required for minor changes in the UK?
The design of a minor change can be undertaken by an approved Design Organisation Approval (DOA).
31
What is the Civil Modification Record (CAP395)?
A detailed record of modifications carried out by an approved organisation must be kept and made available to the CAA for examination.
32
What is an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
An AD is released by EASA when a maintenance action is required to ensure continued airworthiness of a particular aircraft type.
33
What information is contained in an AD?
An AD includes a description of the dangerous condition, a list of affected aircraft, and required actions to maintain airworthiness.
34
What is an Emergency Airworthiness Directive (EAD)?
An EAD is issued when urgent work is required within a short timescale to maintain airworthiness.
35
What is a Service Bulletin (SB)?
A Service Bulletin informs operators of concerns affecting aircraft safety that require immediate modification on an essential part.
36
What must every organisation using a parts store have?
It must have the store approved by the National Aviation Authority (NAA).
37
Who is responsible for ensuring adequate stores procedures?
The chief inspector (Quality Assurance - QA) in the organisation.
38
What specifications must materials and parts meet for aircraft use?
They must be to the correct specification, in the correct condition, and have certificated documents.
39
What must be traceable in the history of important aircraft parts?
The history must trace back to its basic raw materials using documentation.
40
What happens if one part of a batch is defective?
It must be assumed that the others can also be defective.
41
What are the components of a stores system?
A quarantine store and a bonded store.
42
What is the purpose of the quarantine store?
To hold newly received parts/materials until they conform to specifications and have correct certification.
43
What must be verified for items in the quarantine store?
They must conform to specifications, have correct certification documents, and be undamaged in transit.
44
What is recorded in the Goods Received Register (GRR)?
The identity of items can be traced back to the incoming certification.
45
What happens after items are passed to the bonded store?
They are held until required for use.
46
What must be recorded regarding modification states and service life hours?
They must be held on record and passed to the user on issue.
47
What are the main steps in the stores acceptance process?
Items arrive, documentation is verified, physical condition is checked, and entries are made in the stores register.
48
What must be attached to each item in the stores acceptance process?
Completed company Stores Release Notes (SRN).
49
What must be verified by the aircraft engineer when items are issued?
Stores Release Note (SRN), part numbers, serial numbers, description, and physical condition.
50
What must be included in the aircraft documentation after records are completed?
SRN number, component part number, serial numbers, nomenclature, and hours run or flown.
51
What is done with defective items/components?
An unserviceable tag is completed and attached before returning to stores.
52
What must be recorded to indicate which aircraft/components new items are fitted to?
Aircraft registration, type/component nomenclature, part number, and serial number.
53
What are Stores Release Notes (SRN) and Goods Release Notes (GRN)?
Documents attached to items by the Quarantine Stores, individually numbered and recorded.
54
What information must the SRN contain?
Item part number, serial/batch number, stores release note number, previous hours run, and modification state.
55
What must be done with unacceptable certificates?
They must be cancelled and retained by the consignor.
56
What must various certificates satisfy?
They must satisfy the receiving quarantine stores that items are of acceptable quality.
57
What is the EASA Form 1?
A standardised form used as the Certificate of Conformance by EASA approved organisations.
58
What must be included with a new item received and stored?
A copy of the original incoming EASA Form 1.
59
What is the engineer's responsibility regarding consumable items?
To check the Illustrated Parts Catalogue (IPC) and record the batch/part number in aircraft records.
60
What is required to release an aircraft back to service after maintenance?
A signed declaration called a Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) is required.
61
Who can issue/sign the Certificate of Release to Service (CRS)?
Only certifying maintenance personnel can issue/sign the CRS when satisfied that all required maintenance has been successfully carried out.
62
What are certifying maintenance personnel usually designated as?
They are usually designated as Licensed Aircraft Engineers (LAE) with appropriate certifying authorisations.
63
What is the minimum age for a Licensed Aircraft Engineer (LAE) with CRS capabilities?
The minimum age is 21 years.
64
What must LAE be able to produce upon request?
LAE must be able to produce their certificate of authorisation within 24 hours of it being requested by an authorised person.
65
Where can regulations governing an aircraft’s release to service be found?
In the Implementing Rules (IR) of Regulation (EU No 1321/2014, Part-M - Continuing Airworthiness and Part-145 – Approved Maintenance Organisations).
66
Who are the certifying maintenance personnel?
They include appropriate certifying staff (Cat A, B1, B2, B2L, B3, L and/or C) authorised by the maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Annex II (Part 145) and/or Annex Vd (Part CAO).
67
What can the owner do if an aircraft is grounded where no approved maintenance organisation is available?
The owner can authorise any person with proper qualifications and not less than three years of appropriate maintenance experience to perform maintenance and release the aircraft to service.
68
What must the owner do in case of unforeseen maintenance?
The owner must obtain and keep records of all work carried out and the qualifications of the person issuing the certification.
69
What details must a Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) contain?
It must contain basic details of the maintenance carried out, the date of completion, and the identity of the organisation/person issuing the release.
70
What statement must be included in the CRS?
‘Certifies that the work specified, except as otherwise specified, was carried out in accordance with Part-M or Part-145 (as appropriate) and in respect to that work the aircraft/aircraft component is considered ready for release to service.’
71
What should be done if a CRS is issued with incomplete maintenance?
A record must be kept stating what action the engineer, supervisor, and certifying staff must take to inform the relevant aircraft owner or Continuing Airworthiness Management Organisation.
72
What is the role of the Operation Planning and Control department?
The Operation Planning and Control department develops and maintains an operating schedule that shows the availability of flight crew, ground crew, airport infrastructure, and aircraft.
73
How is aircraft maintenance carried out?
Aircraft maintenance is carried out in accordance with the Approved Maintenance Programme (AMP) to ensure continued airworthiness.
74
What is the purpose of the aircraft check cycle?
The aircraft check cycle provides a means to carry out scheduled AMP maintenance, assisting operation planners in ensuring aircraft are in the correct place for maintenance checks.
75
What does Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 cover?
It describes the legal requirements for operator certification, crew licensing, mass and balance, instruments, data, and equipment.
76
What is the aircraft technical logbook?
The aircraft technical logbook is produced by the aircraft operator and approved for use by the National Authority, providing a complete maintenance history of the aircraft.
77
What information does the technical logbook provide to the flight crew?
It informs the flight crew about engineering maintenance performed on the aircraft, including routine checks, special checks, modifications, repairs, and servicing information.
78
What is the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)?
The MMEL is an approved document prepared by the aircraft manufacturer that lists equipment that can be temporarily inoperative while maintaining safety and airworthiness.
79
What is the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
The MEL is an approved document prepared by the aircraft operator that is more restrictive than the MMEL and lists items that may be temporarily inoperative under certain conditions.
80
What is the purpose of the MMEL and MEL?
Their purpose is not to encourage operation with inoperative equipment, but to ensure safety and airworthiness through careful analysis.
81
What are the rectification intervals for inoperative items in Category A?
Items in Category A must be repaired according to the conditions stated in the 'Remarks or Exceptions' column, with no standard interval specified.
82
What is the rectification interval for Category B items?
Items in Category B must be repaired within three consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.
83
What is the rectification interval for Category C items?
Items in Category C must be repaired within ten consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.
84
What is the rectification interval for Category D items?
Items in Category D must be repaired within one hundred and twenty consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.
85
What does the Dispatch Deviation Guide (DDG) contain?
The DDG contains the MEL and Configuration Deviation List (CDL) used to identify external components of an aircraft type that may be missing for dispatch.
86
What is an example of information provided by the CDL?
The CDL provides information on performance corrections for missing components, such as increased drag from a missing wing-to-body fairing.
87
What is the purpose of a competent quality control system in aviation maintenance?
To ensure all processes and procedures are adhered to by all personnel and the aircraft is maintained to the highest standard.
88
What is Quality Control (QC)?
A process that aims to ensure a consistently high standard of product or service is provided.
89
What is Quality Management (QM)?
The act of overseeing all activities and tasks needed to maintain a high level of excellence.
90
What does EASA Part-145 mandate for maintenance organisations?
All maintenance organisations must have a dedicated quality department overseen by the local NAA.
91
What is the role of the quality assurance department?
To ensure compliance with airworthiness regulatory requirements and maintain quality standards.
92
What are the three areas of quality management responsibilities?
Quality Assurance (QA), Quality Control (QC), and Quality Improvement (QI).
93
What are independent audits in a quality system?
Required to monitor compliance with aircraft standards and promote good maintenance practices.
94
What is the objective of maintenance inspection?
To detect conditions that could affect the airworthiness of the aircraft.
95
What is the difference between 'Check' and 'Inspect'?
'Check' ensures a condition conforms to limits, while 'Inspect' requires a degree of judgement.
96
What is a Scheduled Inspection?
Any inspection specified in the Approved Maintenance Programme (AMP) for an aircraft.
97
What is a Non-Scheduled Inspection?
Special checks or additional work requirements not normally repeated to ensure airworthiness.
98
What is a Routine Inspection/Check?
Any inspection specified in the AMP that forms a part of a maintenance check.
99
What is a Transit or Ramp Check?
A routine inspection carried out during turn-around or overnight stop at the airport terminal area.
100
What is a Mandatory Inspection?
Inspections classified by the NAA as essential to airworthiness, which must be carried out by an approved organisation.
101
What is a Supplemental Structural Inspection (SSI)?
A mandatory sampling inspection to determine structural fatigue in high life aircraft.
102
What is a Corrosion Prevention & Control Programme (CPCP) Inspection?
An inspection to detect structural corrosion and determine requirements for the mandatory corrosion control programme.
103
What are additional maintenance procedures?
Additional maintenance procedures are tasks carried out in addition to normal scheduled maintenance, depending on the operation and environment.
104
What triggers additional maintenance?
Additional maintenance occurs due to failures during operation and findings during inspections and checks.
105
What are typical unscheduled maintenance inspections?
Typical unscheduled maintenance inspections include corrosion treatment, adjustment or replacement of components, and repair of structural cracks and skin deformations.
106
What is common for an aircraft in service regarding defects?
It is common for an aircraft in service to operate with minor defects that do not impact safety or airworthiness.
107
What must be followed for additional maintenance items?
Additional maintenance items must be corrected and performed following the procedures of the AMM (Aircraft Maintenance Manual).
108
What documentation is required for maintenance performed on an aircraft?
Maintenance performed must be recorded in the aircraft technical logbook and accompanied by a certificate of release to service signed by certifying maintenance staff.
109
Who can perform pre-flight and transit checks?
Pre-flight and transit checks can be performed by the flight crew without requiring certifying maintenance staff support.
110
What are ETOPS operations requirements for pre-flight checks?
ETOPS operations require that only ETOPS approved certifying staff perform pre-flight checks before departure to an ETOPS sector.
111
What must be entered into the technical logbook?
Any defect identified during operation or maintenance must be entered into the technical logbook.
112
What information is required in the technical logbook after rectification work?
Required information includes type of work, documentation references, deferred work references, date and place of work, and name of responsible staff.
113
Who usually carries out maintenance on defects reported in the technical logbook?
Maintenance on defects reported is usually carried out by line maintenance personnel.
114
What must line maintenance staff regularly check?
Line maintenance staff must regularly check the list of all deferred maintenance items in the technical logbook.
115
What must be done after rectifying an item in the deferred maintenance list?
An entry must be made in the technical logbook confirming completion of corrective action, allowing the item to be removed from the deferred maintenance list.
116
What is the time frame for correcting deferred maintenance actions?
Any deferred maintenance action must be corrected within two weeks after entry into the technical logbook.
117
What are other examples of additional maintenance procedures?
Examples include manual fuelling, manual fuel quantity calculations, de-icing servicing, installation of stretchers, oxygen system servicing, fluid servicing, and cabin reconfiguration.
118
What are examples of abnormal inspections required?
Abnormal inspections may be required after heavy landings, flight into severe turbulence, lightning strikes, or bird strikes.
119
What are life limited parts?
Life limited parts are components that are not damage tolerant, meaning inspections cannot detect impending failures that could compromise aircraft safety.
120
What document tracks life limited parts on an aircraft?
A life limited parts document is maintained to track the hours of all life limited parts and components on the airframe and engine.
121
What must maintenance personnel do with life limited units?
Maintenance personnel must replace life limited units by the latest specified time-in-service hours on the life limits document.
122
What is the Airworthiness Limitations section?
The life limited parts document is part of the Airworthiness Limitations section of the instructions for Continued Airworthiness.
123
What is the significance of the Safe Life Airworthiness Limitation Items list?
The Safe Life Airworthiness Limitation Items list, approved by EASA, specifies items and the time before which they need to be replaced.
124
What happens if compliance with the life limited parts document is not met?
Failure to comply results in the suspension of the validity of the certificate of airworthiness.
125
What records must be kept for life limited parts?
Records must trace the time in service of all life limited parts, including installation and service history, serial number, aircraft identification, and maintenance actions.
126
What additional information must be recorded for life limited parts?
The installation date, part number, part name, and total time on the item and the aircraft must also be recorded.
127
What is the operator's responsibility regarding life limited components?
It is the operator's responsibility to maintain accurate time-in-service records for the airframe, engine, and all life limited components.
128
What is condition monitored maintenance?
Condition monitored maintenance controls aircraft maintenance by collecting and analyzing operational experience information.
129
What are the three types of primary maintenance processes?
The three types of primary maintenance processes are Hard Time, On-Condition, and Condition Monitoring.
130
What is Hard Time maintenance?
Hard Time is a preventative process where known deterioration is limited by maintenance actions carried out at specified time intervals.
131
What actions are included in Hard Time maintenance?
Actions include servicing, overhaul, partial overhaul, and replacement.
132
When is Hard Time maintenance applied?
It is applied when failure adversely affects airworthiness, when hidden functions cannot be checked, or when wear requires a time limit.
133
What is On-Condition maintenance?
On-Condition is a preventative process where items are inspected or tested at specified periods to determine if they can continue in service.
134
What is the philosophy of On-Condition maintenance?
The philosophy is to remove an item before it fails, not to 'fit until failure' or 'fit and forget it.'
135
What is Condition Monitoring?
Condition Monitoring involves collecting, analyzing, and interpreting operational experience information to implement corrective procedures.
136
When is Condition Monitoring applied?
It is applied to items whose failure does not adversely affect operating safety and where no adverse age reliability relationship has been identified.
