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TPC Questions #2 Flashcards

1
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the rule with landing at airfields considering the runway’s ACN (Aircraft Classification Number) and PCN (Pavement Classification Number)?

A

When the ACN is greater than the PCN, the aircraft should generally not land there.

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2
Q

NFM Ch. 2What does the avionics battery power?

A

Avionics battery bus and avionics DC bus

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3
Q

NFM Ch. 2What happens in NO PRESS?

A

Digital electronic controller depressurizes cabin at the rate set by the AUTO RATE selector. When cabin altitude = aircraft altitude, the outflow and safety valves open.

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4
Q

NFM Ch. 7Flap retraction schedule

A

<100,000 @ Vfuss (135 KIAS)100,000-140,000 Begin at 135 KIAS and end at Vobs+25>140,000 Raise flaps in 10* increments for each 5 knot increase in a/s beginning at Vobs+5 and ending at Vobs+25

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5
Q

FAR/AIMWhat does squawk 7600 indicate?

A

Radio failure

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6
Q

NFM Ch. 2EPOS/VRU

A

Emergency passenger oxygen system/Victim Rescue Unit is a consumable closed circuit rebreather system designed to provide emergency oxygen during decompression or smoke and fumes. Approximately 60 minutes oxygen for sitting individual.

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7
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is the maximum recommended crab angle during a crosswind landing?

A

5 degrees

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8
Q

QRH Ch. 1When will the PROP 1 NO 119% PROTECT ACAWS appear?

A

NP overspeed automatic shutdown protection may not be available. This occurs during ground start if NP is not 0%. This may occur when starting the engine with a windmilling (from the wind) propeller and the FADEC does not perform the check of the independent overspeed protection circuit.Â

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9
Q

NFM Ch. 5Essential crew requirements

A

Aircraft commander, copilot, crewmaster 1/2

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10
Q

CNAFWhat are the Aircraft Commander requirements?

A

Shall:1. Complete the requirements for and possess to an advanced degree the knowledge, skill and capabilities of a T2P.2. Min 700 hours TPT3. Min 100 hours TMS4. Current instrument rating5. Demonstrate positive ability to command and train the officers and enlisted of the flight crew including enforcement f proper discipline6. Demonstrate the qualities of leadership and mature judgement required to conduct advanced base of DET unit ops as OIC

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11
Q

ATP-56CWhat are the altitudes for a HAAR receive-low join?

A

300’ below AR altitude for receiver, 500’ above for tanker

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12
Q

NFM Ch. 4Gross weight limitations

A

TAKEOFFNormal - 164,000Alternate - 175,000LANDINGRecommended - 142,000 / 540Normal - 164,000 / 300Alternate - 175,000 / 300

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13
Q

NFM Ch. 5Crew duty time start/end

A

Crew duty commences 2 hours prior to scheduled takeoff, or whenever first crew member commences crew duties or reports to work. Crew duty terminates 1 hour after engine shutdown, or at the completion of maintenance duties.

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14
Q

GPHolding procedures for leg distance

A

<14,000’ 1 minute>14,000’ 1.5 minutesor published /assigned DME

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15
Q

GPWhen do you reduce airspeed prior to holding?

A

3 minutes prior

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16
Q

NFM Ch. 2What are the normal ground indications for the RADALT?

A

+1 to -3 feet

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17
Q

NFM Ch. 15Aerial refueling manifold

A

3” AR manifold Pressures:120 psi operating, 240 psi proof, 360 psi burst

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18
Q

NFM Ch. 4Windmilling propeller limitation

A

Feathered/NG<7% - Fire Handle IN - 3 minFeathered/NG>7% - Fire Handle IN - 20 minWindmilling - Fire Handle IN - 5 minFeathered - Fire Handle PULLED - 6 hoursWindmilling - Fire Handle PULLED - N/A

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19
Q

NFM Ch. 7When do you place the engine start switch to STOP during a start?

A
  1. No NG within 10 sec2. No oil pressure within 15 sec of NG3. No oil pressure within 15 sec of NP4. ENG FLAMEOUT (C), NO LIGHTOFF (A), STAGNATED START (A)
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20
Q

NFM Ch. 4Maximum MGT during start, reverse, takeoff and max continuous.

A

Start 807Reverse 833ÂTakeoff 852Max Continuous 833

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21
Q

NTTP Ch. 8When will CNI provide CARP XTX, CARP VERT or CARP XTX/VERT error? What will happen? When does this occur?

A

30 sec from CARP: -164 yards L/R ->200’ above planned MSL altitude ->200’ or 10% of AGL below planned MSL altitude You will get a red light

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22
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the normal pressure for the auxiliary hydraulic system?

A

2760 - 3200 psi

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23
Q

NFM Ch. 7Under what conditions should Heavy/High Speed Landing Procedures be accomplished?

A
  1. 100% flap landings above 155,0002. 50% flap landings above 130,0003. All 0% flap landings4. All landings @ elevations greater than 4000’ MSL5. Temperature > ISA +15*, elevation >2000’
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24
Q

NFM Ch. 4What are the fuel pump pressures?

A

Transfer Pumps - 28-40 PSIBoost Pumps - 15-24 PSI (main tanks only)

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25
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20How much does Vmca increase when attempting to maintain wings level with 2-engines out and flaps at 50%?

A

+24 KIAS at light gross weights

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26
Q

NFM Ch. 7What airspeed should be set approximately 100 ft prior to landing during a crisswind landing?

A

Vthrs+5

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27
Q

NFM Ch. 5When does crew duty start and end?

A

Crew duty commences 2 hours prior to scheduled takeoff, or whenever first crew members commences crew duties or reports to work. Crew duty terminates 1 hour after engine shutdown, or at the completion or any maintenance duties.

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28
Q

NFM Ch. 2What does the aux system operate?

A

Cargo ramp, emergency brakes, emergency nose gear extension

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29
Q

NFM Ch. 9How much additional pressure do the suction boost pumps provide to the hydraulic systems?

A

200 psi

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30
Q

NFM Ch. 4Fuel Pump Pressures

A

Transfer Pumps - 28-40 psiBoost Pumps - 15-24 psi

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31
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20One engine inop Minimum Control Speed

A

Max airspeed at which when critical engine is made inop, directional control can be maintained with an angle of bank not to exceed 5.1. ATCS operational2. No 1 engine failed and feathered3. Max takeoff power set4. Max rudder 150lbs5. Zero rudder trim6. Min flying weight7. Bank angle <5 away from failed

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32
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20How much does Vmca increase while maintaining a wings-levelÂattitude while three-engine?

A

Flaps Up… Vmca + 23 KIASFlaps 50%… Vmca + 43 KIAS

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33
Q

NTTP Ch. 5What are the dive rules of recovery?

A
  • Descent angle less than -15* at 1500’ AGL
  • Descent angle less than -10* at 1000’ AGL
  • Descent angle less than -5* at 500’ AGL
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34
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20What is refusal speed?

A

V1 - based on runway available and is defined as the maximum airspeed to which the aircraft can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two engines in symmetrical reverse, one ground idle, one feathered and maximum anti-skid braking.

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35
Q

NFM Ch. 4Auto pilot limitations

A

Do not operate autopilot during:1. takeoff and landing2. > Vh3. ILS below 200’ HAT (I) or 100’ HAT (II) or below MDA on NPA, or over localizer4. IPRA below 200’ HAT5. <500’ AGL for non approach operations6. In RVSM, if unable to hold +- 65’7. Above 164,000 lbs and (a) below 1000’ AGL (b) during configuration changes (c) during approach operations

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36
Q

DIAGRAMSÂWhat does a trouble T indicate?

A

Signifies that the airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums.

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37
Q

QRH Ch. 7Four engine flame out

A

Prop No1/4 autofeather anytime FADEC detects criteria. No 2/3 windmill or autofeather depending on MC logic. Below 15,500’, 3-engine, an IB engine autofeathers after 2sec delay. Above 15,500’ OR 2-engines, an always IB windmills.A. Aircraft pitch to maintain 15-28% NG (PF)B. Power levers…FLT IDLE (PF)C. Crossfeed switches…CLOSED (PM/CM)D. No 2 & No 3 engine start switches…STOP/START/RELEASE (PM/CM)E. No 1 & No 4 engine start switches…STOP/START/RELEASE (PM/CM)STOP 1st to clear fail condition to prevent windmilling prop from autofeathering

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38
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the normal pressure for the utility and boost hydraulic system?

A

2900 - 3200 psi (15-100% flaps)1100 - 1390 psi (0-15%)

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39
Q

CNAFCrew day/crew rest requirements

A

Flight crews shall not be scheduled for continuous flight duty in excess of 18 hours. If it becomes operationally necessary to extend beyond 18 hours, 15 hours off shall be provided. Crew rest can be less than 12-hours IOT maintain a 12-hour on/off cycle but shall always include an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.

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40
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20Ground Minimum Control Airspeed assumptions

A
  1. No 1 engine failed and feathered2. Max takeoff power set3. ATCS operating4. Max rudder 150 lbs5. Flaps 50%6. Minimum takeoff weight7. No nosewheel steering8. Max lateral deviation 30’
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41
Q

T&RWhat must an aircraft commander do in order to sign for a plane at night?Â

A

No pilot shall sign for an aircraft for a night flight without having flown that model within the past 15 days

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42
Q

SOPWhat is the currency to sign as aircraft commander?

A

Minimum 5 hours with 1 takeoff and 1 landing within the previous 30 days in order to sign as aircraft commander. If uncurrent, must fly as T2Ps.

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43
Q

QRH Ch. 7What is the airstart envelope?

A

< 250 KIAS, < 25,000’ for JP 5/8/Jet A < 250 KIAS, < 22,500’ for JP 4

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44
Q

NTTP Ch. 6How do you fly a random high approach?

A

Designed for the aircraft to fly outside the effective range of small arms and descend within the protected airspace of the base defense zone.Above point of intended landing:

  • 4500’ AGL
  • 140 KIAS
  • Gear down, flaps 100%, before landing checklist
  • Commence 20-25* AOB standard rate descending turn at 2200 fpm rate of descent.
  • 3400’ AGL, 2300’ AGL, 1200’ AGL
  • Final: 200-300’ and 1/2 mile
  • Touchdown: 100-300’
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45
Q

GPHolding procedures airspeeds

A

0-6000’ - 200 KIAS6000-14,000’ - 230 KIAS>14,000’ - 265 KIASUSAF - 310 KIASUSN - 230 KIAS

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46
Q

NFM Ch. 4Landing gear extended airspeed

A

168 KIAS

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47
Q

CFRCircling Minimums protected airspace

A

A - 1.3B - 1.5C - 1.7D - 2.3E - 4.5Circling radius is increased depending on MDA. [C]

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48
Q

NFM Ch. 2How is the outflow valve controlled in AUTO, MAN and weight on wheels?

A

AUTO: valve is pneumatically positioned by differential pressureMAN: valve is controlled electrically through the 1553B data buse, MC, ECBU and an electric motor.WOW: valve is electrically driven open to allow avionics cooling discharge.

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49
Q

CNAFWhat are the severe weather watch bulletins filing criteria?

A

Pilots shall not file into or through areas with a WW unless: -Storm has not progressed as forecaster and VFR can be maintained, IFR with installed and operative weather radar, and/or IFR if VMC conditions exist. -Performance characteristics of aircraft permit en route altitude above existing or developing severe storms.

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50
Q

QRH Ch. 5Engine fire shutdown

A

A. Fire handle…Pull (PM)B. Agent…Discharge (if req) (PM)wait 15 seconds before discharging 2nd bottleC. Engine start switch…STOP (PM)Do not attempt restart

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51
Q

NFM Ch. 4What conditions must be met to be 540 sink rate limited?

A

Gross Weight: 142,000lbFuel in No 1 or No 4: 7320lbFuel in all main tanks: 28,000lb

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52
Q

PERFMAN Ch 20Two engine inop minimum control airspeed

A
  1. No 1 engine failed and windmilling, No 2 engine failed or feathered2. Maximum power set on remaining engines3. Max rudder 150lbs4. Flaps 50%5. Min flying weight6. 5* away from failed engines7. Rudder trim required for 3* approach with 3 engines8. Gear down
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53
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the APU duty cycle?

A

Limited to 1 minute on and 4 minutes off. No limit to the number of duty cycles

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54
Q

NTRP Ch. 9Chaff nomenclature

A

RR-170/AL for actualÂRR-188/AL for training

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55
Q

NFM Ch. 7Maximum MGT before conducting a start

A

175 degrees

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56
Q

NFM Ch. 2HowÂdoes the safety valve operate?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically opened for emergency depressurization. Normal closed during pressurized operation. Opens during emergency depressurization, aux vent, or no-pressure operation, or while in AUTO with WOW and bleed air manifold is pressurized.

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57
Q

NFM Ch. 15How long is the warm up period for the ALE 47 CMDS?

A

5 sec

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58
Q

NFM Ch. 4What are the takeoff crosswind limitations?

A

If the aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees, and the wind is greater than 15, but less than 35 knots, the limitations is 2500 HP until indicated airspeed is greater than 35 KIAS.

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59
Q

SOPWhat consideration should be given when selecting an airfield when a land as soon as possible emergency exists?

A

Landing at the nearest suitable military or civilian field which has at least 6000’ of runway.

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60
Q

NFM Ch. 12What conditions are conducive to windshear?

A

Temp change of 10*F pr more across a front or if front is moving at 30 knots or more

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61
Q

CNAFWho must validate an approach in order for military aircraft to fly it?

A
  1. US TERPS2. PANS-OPS3. NATO verified by US govt4. OPNAV validation of Jeppsen
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62
Q

NTTP Ch. 8What is required to conduct parachute ops above 20,000’?

A

All personnel will prebreathe 100% oxygen at or below 16,000’ for 30 minutes.

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63
Q

NFM Ch. 2Which booster system component is on the opposite side?

A

The elevator booster package is swapped in the back of the aircraft.

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64
Q

NFM Ch. 2When will the landing gear warning audio alert sound?

A

When the flaps lever is set at >70% with refueling pods NOT attached, or with the flaps set at >80% WITH refueling pods, and the landing gear is not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps lever is repositioned.

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65
Q

NFM Ch. 2Why do we enter the nose wheel well from the left side only?

A

Because of the possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen from the oxygen converter in the nose wheel well.Â

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66
Q

NFM Ch. 7What are low fuel state ops?

A

Defined as operations that result in the aircraft landing at the final destination with less than 6000lbs. At 8000lbs, main tank fuel quantity should be evenly distributed.

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67
Q

FAR/AIMWhat does squawk 7700 indicate?

A

Emergency aircraft

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68
Q

SOPTakeoff and Landing Weight Permission

A

Requiring OPSO notification: >155,000 during takeoff, >135,000 during landingRequiring CO approval: >164,000 during takeoff, >142,000 during landing

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69
Q

NTTP Ch. 6What are the minimum runway requirements for ALZ operations? Training or Sustainment Training/Operational?

A

TRAINING (initial)Landing: 3000’ or ground roll + 1000’Takeoff: 3000’ or ground run + 1000’, or AMFLMETO + 500’SUSTAINMENT TRAINING/OPERATIONALLanding: Ground roll + 500’Takeoff: Ground run + 500’ or AMFLMETOÂ

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70
Q

ORMWhat are the four principles of ORM?

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh costs2. Accept no unnecessary risk3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning4. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
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71
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is the flight to ground idle transition speed limitation during a high speed landing?

A

145 KTAS

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72
Q

CFRAircraft approach category speeds? What speed is the based on?

A

Speed which aircraft approaches runway to land and to maneuver in event of a circle or missed.A < 90 KIASB 91-120 KIASC 121-140 KIASD 140-165 KIASE >166 KIAS

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73
Q

GPRestricted area - special use airspace

A

Designated airspace within which flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to certain restrictions

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74
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20What is the penalty for conducting crosswind takeoff?

A

200 feet should be subtracted from the runway distance available for computation of refusal speed.

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75
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20What are runway condition readings?

A

RCR is a value which relates the average braking effectiveness of the particular runway surface to the braking capability of aircraft when containment is less than 3mm.Dry - Good - 23Wet - Medium - 12Icy - Poor - 5

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76
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is the standard climb schedule used in the KC-130?

A

180 KIAS to 10,000’170 KIAS to 15,000’160 KIAS to 25,000’

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77
Q

NFM Ch. 2What does the booster hydraulic system operate?

A

50% of flight controls

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78
Q

NFM Ch. 7ÂWhat are some considerations when conducting Heavy/High Speed Landings?

A
  • Refer to PERFMAN to determine Landing Weight Limited by Max Brake Kinetic Energy
  • Use 100% flaps
  • Consider the 139 GS NG tire speed during touch down and 145 KTAS propeller ground range limit.Â
  • Fly an approach at 145 KIAS if above 151,000 lbs.
  • Extend flaps in 10* increments.Â
  • Consider using MAX E approach and landing speeds.Â
  • Monitor stall carat carefully during configuration changes and power-off scenarios.Â
  • Setup proper glidepath to avoid heavy sink rates.Â
  • Should go around at 100’ if displaced +75’ laterally or +/- 1* off glidepath.Â
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79
Q

FAR/AIMWhat is Vy and when is it used?

A

Vy is best rate of climb and used to gain altitude and reach cruising altitude quickly.

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80
Q

NFM Ch. 15How long should the IRCM be allowed to cool in standby?

A

15 minutes. as little as 5 seconds can be used to meet mission requirements.

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81
Q

CNAFOPNAV requirements for unpressurized aircraft with oxygen

A

All occupants shall use supplemental oxygen above 10,000. When oxygen is not available to other occupants, flight between 10,000-13,000’ is limited to 3 hours. Flight above 13,000’ is prohibited. Risk of DCS @ FL220 after 4 hours is 25%

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82
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 22Driftdown

A

If failure of one or two engines should occur during four-engine cruise operation, it may be necessary, due to the loss of power, for the aircraft to descend to a lower altitude. This forced descent is called driftdown.

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83
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does weight affect range?

A

For constant altitude operation, specific range increases with decreasing gross weight. Establish a new HP setting for each 5000 pounds of fuel burned.

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84
Q

QRH Ch. 6Rapid Decompression

A

a. Oxygen … NORMAL 100% ON (All)

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85
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20What is the increase in Vmca with flaps 50% and one boost system inoperative?

A

+20 KIAS

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86
Q

SOPWhat is the minimum LOX requirements?

A

10L when departing home station. Overwater flights shall not depart home station with less than 18L.

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87
Q

QRH Ch. 5Fire/Smoke/Fumes Elimination

A

a. Crew/Pax … notify (PF/PM)b. Oxygen … EMER 100% ON (All)WARNING - If flammable fumes are present or suspected, do not turn on or off electrical equipment not required to carry out the procedure.ÂWARNING - If a fire is near an oxygen component or there is a possibility that the oxygen could increase the fire, consider closing the oxygen manual shutoff valve, provided portable oxygen bottles are adequate.Â

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88
Q

GPClass A airspace

A

Generally, airspace about FL180 to FL600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nm off the coast.

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89
Q

QRH Ch. 3What start malfunctions can be overridden by holding the start switch to START?

A

ENG 1 NO LIGHTOFFENG 1 STAGNATED START

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90
Q

NFM Ch. 4What are the fuel balance limits?

A
  1. 1000 lbs between symmetrical2. 1500 lbs between wings3. One au full and the other aux empty, provided all other tanks are symmetrical.
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91
Q

NFM Ch. 2How does the asymmetrical flap protection work?

A

There are two asymmetrical sensing switches, one at each of the emergency flap brakes. If a torque tube in the system breaks or a coupling comes apart, the switches sense the resulting out-of-phase condition. When this occurs, DC power is routed by the switches to the emergency flap brake valve to lock the flap brakes. No further movement of the flaps is possible until maintenance resets the flap brakes.

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92
Q

NFM Ch. 2At what flap position will chaff dispensers become disabled?

A

> 15%

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93
Q

PERMAN Ch. 22Service ceiling

A

Altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is 100 fpm.

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94
Q

NFM Ch. 7When do you pull the FIRE HANDLE during a start?

A
  1. ENG FIRE (W)2. ENG MGT HI (W)3. START VLV OPEN4. Visible indications of fire5. Visible fluid leakWARNING: If MGT rapidly approachesÂ6o’clock
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95
Q

NFM Ch. 6Constant true airspeed profile

A

To establish TAS, maintain climb power until desired TAS is achieved, then reduce HP for the remainder of the flight to maintain TAS as aircraft becomes lighter .

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96
Q

NFM Ch. 15CMDS Auto

A

Automatically dispenses chaff against radar threat detected by RWR and flares against IR threat detected by MWS.

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97
Q

NFM Ch. 7What do you set in the course while flying a Back Course Localizer?

A

The Localizer Front Course

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98
Q

NFM Ch. 15Counter Measures Dispensing System

A

ALE-47 provides chaff and flares. MWS, LAIRIRCM, IRCM and RWR send dispense commands. Modes: MAN, SEMI, AUTO, Programs 1-4,5,6

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99
Q

NFM Ch. 4Takeoff and Landing Fuel Management

A
  1. Maximum usable fuel weights.2. No 1 and 4 always contain 500 - 1000 lbs more fuel than No 2 and No 3.3. Main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7060 lbs in No 1 and No 4, and not less than 6410 in No 2 and No 3 when external tanks contain usable fuel.4. Fuel unbalance is within limits.
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100
Q

NFM Ch. 2How can you override the ATCS? When would you want to use the override?

A

Three rapid depressions of either switch on the throttles within 2 seconds overrides the ATCS. Want to do if WOW and ATCS is erroneously on.

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101
Q

NFM Ch. 6How do you fly a constant true airspeed profile?

A

Maintain climb power until desired TAS is achieved, then reduce HP for the remainder of the flight to maintain TAS as aircraft becomes lighter.

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102
Q

FAAWhat does it mean when a VOR frequency is underlined on an approach plate?

A

No voice is available, which means flight service would not be able to communicate to you through the VOR.Â

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103
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is the speed margin for maximum effort landing touchdown speed?

A

Within 3 knots

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104
Q

QRH Ch. 5APU Fire

A

A. APU Fire handle…Pull (P/CP/CM)B. Agent…Discharge (if req) (P/CP/CM)wait 15 seconds before discharging 2nd bottle

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105
Q

GPDiverse departure

A

If airport has at least one IAP, but no departure procedures (because no obstacles penetrate the 40:1 obstacle identification surface), then aircraft can ensure obstacle clearance by conducting a diverse departure. Climb at 200’/nm minimum gradient, runway heading. At 400’ AGL, execute assigned heading turn.

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106
Q

NFM Ch. 4What are the hydraulic accumulator preload pressures for the utility, booster, normal brake, emergency brake and aerial refueling systems?

A

Utility: 1500 +/-100 psiBooster: 1500 +/-100 psiNormal Brakes: 1500 +/- 100 psiEmergency Brakes: 1000 +/-100 psiAR: 1350 +/-50 psi

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107
Q

QRH Ch. 5Fire/Smoke/Fumes Elimination

A

A. Crew/Pax…Notify (PF/PM)B. Oxygen…EMER 100% ON (All)

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108
Q

CNAFWhat are the factors to consider when continuing 3-engine?

A

PIC should only proceed to destination after considering:1. Nature of emergency and possible mechanical difficulties if continued2. Altitude, weight and usable fuel at time of engine loss3. Terrain and weather en route and at airfield4. Traffic congestion at airfields5. Pilot familiarity6. Power remaining is sufficient

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109
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does non-standard temp affect range?

A

During long range cruise, +10* above standard temp will results in an increase of 2% in max range. During high speed cruise, +10* above standard temp will results in an increase of 5% in max range.

110
Q

NFM Ch. 4Engine starter limit (duty cycle)

A

70s ON, 60s OFF, x5Then 20 minute cool down

111
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 22Cruise ceiling

A

Altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is 300 fpm.

112
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the maximum allowable error between altimeters?

A

+- 50’

113
Q

NFM Ch. 16What are the critical phases of flight?

A

All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing and 1000’ prior to reaching asssigned altitude during climb/descent.

114
Q

NTRP Ch. 9At what flap position will chaff dispensing be inhibited?

A

Any time flaps are set to greater than 15%.Â

115
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is blade angle scheduling a function of on the ground?

A

Blade angle scheduling at the GND IDLE power lever transition is a function of calibrated airspeed and is designed to make engine out stops easier to control. The benefits of this scheduling are not available if the power levers are brought below FLT IDLE above 115 KIAS.Â

116
Q

NFM Ch. 13What does the Get Home Control System do?

A

allows crew to operate VHF 1 or UHF 1 for emergency operations with 20 preset freqs.

117
Q

FIHWhat are the two-way radio failure procedures?

A

While on IFR flight plan and can remain VMC, continue VMC and land as soon as practicable. If VFR on top only, or IMC conditions, then: ROUTE: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed ALTITUDE: Assigned, Minimum, Expected

118
Q

NFM Ch. 15What do red, yellow and green pod status lights indicate?

A

Red - hydraulic press less than or equal to 1700 PSIYellow - Tanker ready. Hose is at pre-set trail (85’) for 5 secsGreen - fuel flow is greater than or equal to 50 gpm

119
Q

CNAFWhat are takeoff minimums?

A

SPECIAL INSTRUMENT RATING: No ceiling or visibility minimums apply. Must be at flight controls.STANDARD: Published minimums for the available NPA, but not less than 300-1. When PA is available, takeoff mins for runway in use but not less than 200-1/2.

120
Q

NFM Ch. 12When may icing exist?

A

10*C or less and visible moisture

121
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20Critical Field Length

A

CFL is the total runway distance required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed (Vcef), experience an engine failure, then continue or stop within the same distance. Runway available must be greater than or equal to CFL

122
Q

NFM Ch. 5Recommended maximum crew duty time

A

If functional autopilot, crew duty shall not exceed 18 hours if commenced between 0500-1659 local and 15 hours between 1700-0459 local. Night crews can extend to 18 hours at unit commander’s discretion. If no operable autopilot, 12 hour max. For augmented crew with birthing, 24 hours.

123
Q

CNAFWhat are fuel planning requirements?

A

All aircraft shall carry sufficient usable fuel, considering all meteorological factors and mission requirements:NO ALTERNATE REQUIRED: Fly from take off to destination airfield +10%ALTERNATE REQUIRED: Fly from the take off to the IAF at destination, thence to alternate airfield +10% Fuel reserves at destination or alternate shall not be planned to be less than 20 minutes of flight Minimum fuel reserve requirements are defined by NATOPS

124
Q

NFM Ch. 4How many pumps are in each tank?

A

Externals: 2 transfersMains: 1 transfer, 1 boostAuxs: 1 transfer

125
Q

NFM Ch. 2What does the utility battery power?

A

The utility battery bus and isolated DC bus.

126
Q

SOPWhat is the mission of VMGR?

A

To support MAGTF commander by providing aerial refueling, assault support, and close air support, day or night, under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint or combined operations.

127
Q

NFM Ch. 2How does the automatic elevator trim tab system work with flap movement?

A

Any time the flaps are lowered to 75% or more, an automatic elevator trim tab system is armed. When the flaps are raised from this position, the elevator trim tab is actuated to give nose-down trim for 2.8 sec (approximately 7*), or until flap movement stops, or until flaps reach 50-55%, whichever occurs first.

128
Q

CNAFWhat are alternate airfield requirements?

A

An alternate is required when (a) destination lacks approach that can be flown without the use of 2-way communications or (b) destination weather is less than 3000-3 +/- 1 hour from ETA.0-0 to published mins:Â>3000-3Published mins - 3000-3:ÂNPA published mins +300-1, PA published mins+200-1/2>3000-3: No alternate Requirement

129
Q

NFM Ch. 2What are the AC buses?

A
  • Left Hand
  • Main
  • Essential
  • Right Hand
  • Main Avionics
  • Essential Avionics
130
Q

NFM Ch. 4Severe turbulent weather speed

A

180 KIAS

131
Q

NFM Ch. 7Low fuel state ops definition

A

Defined as operations that result in landing at the final destination with less than 6000 lbs.

132
Q

NFM Ch. 4Maximum passengers for extended overwater flights

A

No more than 80 persons on flights greater than 50 nm from shore. If cargo is carried, no more than 35 passengers for each unobstructed overhead exit.

133
Q

NFM Ch. 4Flaps 20% speed

A

210 KIAS

134
Q

NTRPFlare nomenclature

A

MJU-61B overtMJU-64B CovertMJU-57B Kinematic

135
Q

GPWhat is MARSA?

A

Military Assumes Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft (MARSA) may be applied between military aircraft as specified by letter of agreement or other appropriate military and FAA documents. However, MARSA may not be invoked by individual aircraft or between flights of aircraft.

136
Q

NFM Ch. 4Enroute field management

A
  • Maximum usable fuel weights.
  • When the external and/or auxiliary tanks contain usable fuel, tanks No 1 and No 4 are maintained at a maximum fuel level of 8310 and contain 500 - 1000 lbs more fuel per tank than tanks No 2 and No 3.
  • When external and/or auxiliary tanks do NOT contain usable fuel, tanks No 1 and No 4 are maintained at a maximum fuel level of 8310 while No 2 and No 3 are reduced to 1520. Fuel from No 1 and No 4 will then supply the motors until all main tanks reach 1520, then establish tank to engine.
  • Fuel unbalance is within limits.
137
Q

ATP-56CWhat is the recommended cloud clearance for HAAR?

A

1000’ above/below a broken/overcast layer

138
Q

GPWhen should standard position lights be displayed?

A

Standard position lights shall be displayed during the period 30 minutes before official sunset until 30 minutes after official sunrise or at any time when the prevailing visibility as seen from the cockpit is less than 3 statute miles.

139
Q

DIAGRAMSWhat does a brown airport symbol indicate?

A

That no approved instrument approaches exist.

140
Q

QRH Ch. 11Hydraulic System Press LO/LOSS/LEAK

A

A. Engine pump switches (affected system)…OFF (PM)B. Suction boost pump switch… OFF (PM)WARNING - The engine-driven hydraulic pump is geared directly to the GMAD. If the shear neck of the pump drive spline does not separate, the pump can disintegrate internally. The disintegration can generate enough heat to cause a fire hazard. Because of this, pilot discretion should be exercised as to the need of an actual engine shutdown.Â

141
Q

NFM Ch. 4Cabin differential pressure limits

A

-1.6 - 15.2 inHg. Do not exceed 16 inHg.

142
Q

NFM Ch. 2When will the FADEC automatically shut an engine down during a start on the ground? in air?

A

Ground: No light off, flameout, stagnated startAir: No light off, flameout

143
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is the appropriate glideslope during a maximum effort landing?

A

A glideslope of 3 degrees is recommended to a visual aimpoint of 150ft beyond beginning of runway surface. Use 4.5 degrees to aim 100ft down from beginning of runway, if obstacles exists. At 40’, reset glideslope to 3 degrees to change aimpoint to 150ft.

144
Q

QRH Ch. 3Engine failure after refusal speed

A

A. Takeoff…Continue (PF)B. Directional Control…Maintain (PF)C. Aircraft Attitude… Rotate to target pitch (PF)Warning: Rotating at significantly less than 3 degrees per second or rotating to a pitch attitude significantly below the target may delay the liftoff and result in not clearing obstacles.Â

145
Q

NFM Ch. 2What is the continuous breathing pressure of the oxygen system?

A

270 - 340 psi

146
Q

NFM Ch. 4Flaps 100% speed

A

145 KIAS

147
Q

NTTP Ch. 11Holding requirements for fuel planning for overwater 2 log

A

20 mins at Max E at 10,000’.For island destinations, 2 hours at max E at 20,000’.

148
Q

NTTP Ch. 8Maximum jumpers during low level static drop? Max CDS during drop?

A

Personnel LLSL - 64CDS - 16 A-22 / 10 A-21

149
Q

NFM Ch. 5Minimum crew currency requirements

A

Pilot requires 5 hr TPT, 2 takeoff, 2 landings within 45 days

150
Q

NFM Ch. 7What is the maximum crosswind component for landing? Why is 50% flaps preferred?

A

35 knots. With flaps 50%, higher touchdown speed results in lower sideslipÂand better roll control.

151
Q

NFM Ch. 2What happens in EMER DEPRESS?

A

When switch is positioned to DUMP, the outflow and safety valves open to depressurize the cabin at an uncontrolled rate. Both air conditioning flow control valves and the floor heat shutoff valve close.

152
Q

QRH Ch. 1What are the two types of ECBU failures and how are they different?

A

Conventional failure: all ECBs lose power and multiple failures are evident with ACAWs messages.Lost Bus Communication Failure: Most ECBs stay in their last state.

153
Q

NFM Ch. 12What airspeed to fly in extreme rain? Why?

A

180 KIASVisibility through windshields will be reduced by streaking as the wipers are ineffective at speeds above 180 KIAS.Â

154
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20Critical Engine Failure Speed

A

Vcef is based on CFL and is the speed at which the aircraft can accelerate, loose an engine and then stop or continue in the same distance.

155
Q

NFM Ch. 7ÂWhat are the autopilot and altitude limitations for operating in RVSM airspace?

A

Autopilot must maintain +/- 65’ during normal cruise, and P and CP altitude cannot differ more than 200’.

156
Q

GPClass E airspace

A

Airspace not designated as class A, B, C, or D

157
Q

NFM Ch. 7Where is the RVSM critical region on the aircraft?

A

The area encompassing the AOA vanes and pitot static tubes.Â

158
Q

NFM Ch. 2What buses are powered on external power?

A

LH AC, Essential AC, Main AC, RH AC

159
Q

NFM Ch. 4Load factor limitation when above Vh

A

Symmetrical 0 - 2.5 G

160
Q

NFM Ch. 2ÂCONST ALT operation

A

In flight, the electronic controller maintains a constant cabin altitude as selected in the LDG/CONST ALT display. During climb and descent, the cabin altitude rate of change is based on the setting of the AUTO RATE knob (0-3000 fpm).Â

161
Q

NFM Ch. 2What are the two batteries rated at?

A

24 V, 35 Ah

162
Q

NTTP Ch. 11Alternate requirements for fuel planning in overwater 2 log.

A

If alternate is required, use fuel required to proceed to alternate +10%. Determined by: Alternate <200nm, 245 KTAS @ 10,000’ Alternate>200nm, 270 KTAS @ 20,000’

163
Q

PERMAN Ch. 20Airspeed limit for power lever transition from flight range to ground range during aborted takeoff.

A

If power lever is moved from takeoff to GND IDLE above 139 KTAS, prop overspeeds may cause generators to trip offline, which will result in loss of anti-skid braking.

164
Q

SOPWhen can a TPC fly with a T3P?

A

30 hours total PIC time10 aircraft signsTPCs shall fly left seat for flight 5 flights

165
Q

QRH Ch. 9Hose Rapid Trail

A

A. Call…Rapid trail (CM)B. RWND/TRAIL LSK &Verify LSK…Select (PM/CM)C. Report Status (CM)

166
Q

SOPWhen are wing walkers required?

A

When there is 15 - 25 feet of clearance, wing walkers are required unless on the VMGR-352 flight line.

167
Q

NFM Ch. 7Minimum bleed air for start

A

22 psi

168
Q

CNAFWhat are the critical behavior skills of CRM?

A

Decision making, assertiveness, mission analysis, communication, leadership, adaptability/flexibility, situational awareness

169
Q

NFM Ch. 6How do you fly a high speed cruise profile?

A

Fly maximum continuous HP for all gross weights, altitudes and outside air temperatures.

170
Q

NFM Ch. 7When will the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS display during landing?

A

With wing/empennage anti-icing in anti-icemode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure the vertical stablizer is completely anti-iced. This may take as long as 2.5 minutes. Failure to do so with result in the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS to display when the landing gear is lowered, and the side slip warning system will limit crosswind landing capability if ice is detected.Â

171
Q

QRH Ch. 1What do you do if EGI 1 fails? What if EGI 1 and 2 fail?

A

Select Ship Solution 2 in the AMU with EGI 1 failed. With both failed, you must select VOR/TACAN.

172
Q

NFM Ch. 12How far out can theÂLPCR detect windshear?

A

0 to 5 nm

173
Q

GPClass B airspace

A

Generally, the airspace from surface to 10,000 MSL surrounding the busiest airports. Shape is designed to contain all instrument procedures. ATC clearance is requirement. VFR requirement is clear of clouds.

174
Q

QRH Ch. 7What happens if START is selected with NG >29% during a 4-engine flameout?

A

WARNING - If START is selected before NG is below 29% the FADEC does not begin the start sequence. Reselect START after NG is below 29%.Â

175
Q

NFM Ch. 2ÂWhich barometer does the pressurization system use as a reference in CONST ALT?

A

The pilot barometric setting.Â

176
Q

ORMWhat is the 5-step ORM process?

A
  1. Identify hazards2. Assess hazards3. Make risk decisions4. Implement controls5. Supervise
177
Q

CNAFWhat are the weather minimums for a formation flight to conduct an instrument approach?

A

Circling minimums if available, or 1000-3 if not available

178
Q

NFM Ch. 15Infrared countermeasure system

A

ALQ-157. Protects aircraft from IR guided missiles.

179
Q

NFM Ch. 4What are the fuel unbalance limitations?

A
  1. 1000lbs between symmetricals2. 1500 lbs between wings3. One aux full and the other aux empty provided all other tanks are symmetrical
180
Q

NFM Ch. 7What are the dimensions of the landing zone during a maximum effort landing?

A

100-500ft

181
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does partial power cruise affect range?

A

Max range with four engines is achieved only at optimum altitude. For altitudes below optimum, 2/3 engine operations may result in increased range.

182
Q

CNAFWhat are approach criteria for multi-piloted aircraft?

A

When reported weather is at or below published minimums, an approach shall not be commenced unless aircraft has the capacity to proceed to suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach

183
Q

QRH Ch. 3Ground Evacuation

A

Parking Brake…Set (PF)Tower…Notify (CP)Pressurization…EMER DEPRESS (CP)Exits…Open (As req) (CM)Fire Handles for all engines and APU…Pull (CP)Crew/Pax…Notify to evacuate the aircraft (CP)

184
Q

NFM Ch. 6Point of No Return

A

Point along planned route at which the aircraft can return to the departure airfield and land with zero fuel.

185
Q

NFM Ch. 4Main landing gear tire speed

A

174 GS

186
Q

QRH Ch. 5APU Fire

A

A. APU FIRE Handle … Pull (P/CP/CM)B. Agent … Discharge (if req) (P/CP/CM)wait 15 sec before discharging 2nd bottle

187
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20What is the increase in Vmca with flaps up and one boost system inoperative?

A

+36 KIAS

188
Q

NFM Ch. 2What are the RADALT resolutions?

A

50’ when 1000-5000’10’ when 300-1000’1’ when <300’

189
Q

NFM Ch 2What are the prop overspeed limits?

A

104.5% NPÂoil is diverted106% NPÂfuel is diverted119% NP or 109% NGÂengine is shut down

190
Q

SOPWhat can a TPC instruct?

A
  1. 4 engine G/A2. Touch and go from either seat3. Max effort touch and go or full stop4. Stop and go5. Max effort braking
191
Q

NFM Ch. 2When will the landing gear warning light illuminate?

A

When any landing gear is not in the selected position, when an engine power lever is retarded to within 5* of flight idle and the landing gear is not down, or when the gear is not down and the flaps are greater than 70%.

192
Q

NFM Ch. 6How do you fly a long range cruise profile?

A

Set fuel flow and cross check HP from the operating chart for the particular flight gross weight and altitude.

193
Q

QRH Ch. 1What is the best case bleed air leak isolated scenario and why?

A

R XSHIP ISOL is the best luck scenario because only system lost is the cargo compartment air conditioning and underfloor heat.

194
Q

NFM Ch. 2What happens in AUX VENT?

A

Both air conditioning flow control valves and the floor heat shutoff valves are closed. The aux vent valves are opened. Outflow valve opens to depressurize the cabin at 3000 fpm. Once differential pressure is less than 0.5 inHg, the safety valve opens.

195
Q

NFM Ch. 6Factors affecting range

A

FUEL TEMPERATURE - changes in fuel temperate affect fuel density.ÂALTITUDE - higher altitude burns less fuel and increases efficiency.ÂICING - Power loss of 25-30% in severe icing can increase fuel flow up to 15%.ÂTEMPERATURE (NON-STANDARD)LRC - Range will increase 2% for each 10* above StandardHSC - Range will increase 5% for each 10* above StandardHEADWIND - an increase of 5 knot HW component for each 1000’ climbed will result in a reduction of max range.ÂPARITIAL POWER CRUISE - operating in partial power below 25,000’ may increase range.ÂALTERNATE FUEL - fuels have varying densities. JP-8/5 provides more fuel pounds per gallon.ÂWIND - If headwinds more than 70 knots are encountered, increase airspeed by 4knots for each 10 knots above 70.ÂWEIGHT - Reset power setting each 5000 lbs of fuel burned to achieve maximum range.Â

196
Q

NFM Ch. 4APU Duty Cycle

A

1 minute on, 4 minutes off. No limit to number of attempts.

197
Q

CNAFWhat are the crew day and crew rest requirements?

A

Flight crews shall not be scheduled for continuous flight duty in excess of 18 hours. If it becomes operationally necessary to extend beyond 18 hours, 15 hours off shall be provided. Crew rest can be less than 12 hours IOT to maintain a 12-hour on/off cycle, but shall always include an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.

198
Q

CNAFWhat are CNAF requirements for unpressurized aircraft with oxygen?

A

-All occupants shall use supplemental oxygen above 10,000’ -When oxygen is not available to other occupants, flight between 10,000-13,000’ is limited to 3 hours -Flight above 13,000’ is prohibited General rule, risk of DCS @ FL220 after 4 hours is 25%

199
Q

NFM Ch. 6Equal time point

A

ETP is calculated at 10,000’ and 245 KTAS. Defined as the point at which the aircraft will be required to spend the same amount of time continuing to destination or returning to point of departure.

200
Q

T&RWhat are the minimum altitudes for LL NS LAT? HL NS LAT? When can you go lower? T&R

A

500’ AGL HL 1000’ AGL LLDecent below authorized IP inbound during AD or ALZ ops

201
Q

NFM Ch. 15Radar Warning Receiver

A

ALR-56M. Receives and processes radio frequencies to determine threat

202
Q

NFM Ch. 2What are the DC buses?

A
  • Main
  • Essential
  • Isolated
  • Avionics
  • Utility Battery
  • Avionics Battery
203
Q

NFM Ch. 4Nose gear tire speed

A

139 GS

204
Q

NFM Ch. 2Describe the start sequence.Â

A
  • The start light next to the ENGINE START switch illuminates.Â
  • At 14% NG, FADEC arms fuel and ignition control circuits. Four seconds later, ignition is energized and fuel flow begins. NG stablized between 20-25 sec.
  • Starter cutout occurs at 65% NG. Continuous ignition terminates at 65% NG.Â
  • NP comes on speed in approximately 30 sec.Â
  • Normal hydraulic pressure should be indicated 30 sec after NP is on speed.Â
205
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the oil temperature hot limitation?

A

Oil temperature is greater than 93* C or between 83-93* C for 5 minutes.Â

206
Q

NFM Ch. 2What does the utility hydraulic system operate?

A
  1. Wing flaps2. Main Landing gear3. Nose landing gear4. Normal brakes5. Nosewheel steering6. 50% of flight controls
207
Q

NFM Ch. 7Low fuel state ops procedure

A
  • At 8000 lbs, main tank fuel quantity should be evenly distributed.
  • CROSS FEED switches all OPEN
  • CROSS SHIP switch OPEN
    CAUTION - With all main tank boost pumps operating, the fuel tanks may empty one at a time until all fuel is exhausted.Â
208
Q

FAR/AIMWhat does squawk 7500 indicate?

A

Hijacked aircraft

209
Q

PERFMAN Ch 20Brake energy limit speed

A

Defined as the maximum speed at which antiskid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system. Calculated using 2 engines in reverse. If Vcef>brake energy limit speed, reduce gross weight. If Vr>brake energy limit speed, set Vr to brake energy limit speed

210
Q

FARWhat are the FAR 91 airspeed restrictions?

A

<250 KIAS below 10,000’ (military waived)<200 KIAS below 2500’ AGL within 4 nm of airport in class C or D airspace, or airspace underlying class B, or VFR corridor through class B

211
Q

NFM Ch. 4Airspeed limite for Inoperative windshield anti-icing below 10,000

A

187 KIAS

212
Q

NFM Ch. 15When are aural alerts during takeoff inhibited?Â

A

During takeoff between 70-140 knots and 0-400’

213
Q

CNAFHow long is a DD-175-1 valid for?

A

DD-175-1 briefs are only valid for 3.0 hours past briefing/FWB delivery time or ETD plus one-half hour.

214
Q

NFM Ch. 15CMDS Semi

A

Automatically dispenses flares against IR threat detected by MWS and will further dispense flares according to the program set if any crew member presses button, and will dispense chaff against radar threat detected by RWR only if pilot pushes button according to REBEL logic

215
Q

NFM Ch. 15Missile warning system

A

AAR-47 - Electronic warfare system designed to protect aircraft from IR-guided or laser guided surface to air missiles. Provides visual and audio alerts for crew action and commands the ALE-47 CMDS to eject flares.

216
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20Adjusted Minimum Field Length for Max Effort Takeoff

A

AMFLMETO is the distance required to accelerate on all engines, experience an engine failure, then in the same distance, stop or accelerate to liftoff at or above Vmca and 3 engine minimum liftoff speed.

217
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does icing affect range?

A

Power loss occurs when icing systems are used due to draw on bleed air. Severe conditions can result in 25-30% power loss. Maximum anti-icing results in a 15% increase in fuel flow.

218
Q

NFM Ch. 4Differential pressure limit for the outflow and safety valve

A

Outflow valve 14.3 +- 0.2 in HGSafety valve 15.0 +- 0.3 in HG

219
Q

CNAFWhere can military pilots get weather?

A

FWB1-888-PILOT-WXFSSUSAF/USMC wx servicesCivilian sources IAW CNAF only when above are unavailable.

220
Q

NFM Ch. 2How long should the APU be warmed up before applying a load?

A

1 minite

221
Q

QRH Ch. 5Engine Fire Shutdown

A

a. FIRE Handle … pull (PM)b. Agent … discharge (if req) (PM)wait 15 sec before discharging 2nd bottlec. Engine START switch … STOP (PM)Do not attempt a restart

222
Q

ATP-56CWhat is the rendezvous technique for HAAR?

A

At 240 KIAS and 1.2 DME in-trail, reduce power to flight idle and configure the aircraft on speed to flaps 70%. The power reduction to flight idle distance, normally 1.2 DME, will have to be increased approximately 0.1 DME for every 1,000 feet above 2,000 feet MSL due to the air density decreasing.

223
Q

NFM Ch. 6How do winds affect range?

A

The specific range charts are predicated on a zero wind condition, so that long range cruise may be defined as that airspeed that gives 99% of max range in still air. If headwind is greater than 70 knots, increase airspeed by 4 knots for every 10 knots above 70 to maintain maximum nautical miles per pound of fuel burned.

224
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does altitude affect range?

A

Since engine specific fuel consumption improves with altitude increase, max range is obtain from 4 engine cruise-climb operations. Higher altitude results in increased range.

225
Q

NFM Ch. 6How do headwinds affect range?

A

An increase of more than 5 knots of HW for each additional 1000’ altitude climbed will result in a decrease in max range.

226
Q

NFM Ch. 2What does the auxiliary hydraulic system operate?

A

Cargo ramp and door, emergency brakes, emergency nose gear extension, flap tie-in for maintenance

227
Q

SOPWhen must a simulated 3-engine wave off be commenced? (Wing SOP)

A

200’ AGLIf aircraft descends below 100’, use all engines

228
Q

NFM Ch. 2What is the forward push on the control column by the stick pusher?

A

55-60lb and can be overridden by either pilot.

229
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 22ATC Ceiling

A

Altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is 500 fpm.

230
Q

NFM Ch. 4Flaps 70% speed

A

155 KIAS

231
Q

NFM Ch. 2What buses are powered on APU?

A

Essential AC, Main AC

232
Q

T&RLAT Rules

A

500’, AOB <30, FPA >-1, Heading change <60

233
Q

NTTP Ch. 5Describe a zoom climb and when is it most effective?

A

A zoom climb is used to get out of the threat range of small arms, most effective when on the sides (LtCol Pope). Establish 25 - 40* nose up. At 200 KIAS, rolls 60* with bottom rudder, level off and capture 170 KIAS. You should gain 2000 - 2500 ft AGL.

234
Q

NFM Ch. 4Maximum load factor with flaps extended

A

With any flap extension, maximum maneuverable load factor is 2.0g in symmetrical maneuvers and 1.5g in unsymmetrical.

235
Q

NFM Ch. 7What are heavy weight/high speed landing considerations?

A

Special high speed landing procedures accomplish when:1. 100% flaps above 155,0002. 50% flaps above 130,0003. All 0% flap landings4. All landings at elevations greater than 4000’ MSL5. Temperature > ISA+15*C and elevations >2000’ MSL

236
Q

QRH Ch. 7How long does it take for the aux feather pump to feather the propellers?

A

20 seconds

237
Q

NFM Ch. 14TAWS color meanings

A

Red +2000 aboveHD Yellow 1000-2000 aboveLD Yellow 250-1000 aboveHD Green 250-1000 belowLD Green 1000-2000 belowBlack -2000 belowMagenta unknown

238
Q

NFM Ch. 7When does the ACAWS CHECK ALTITUDE alert?

A

When aircraft has deviated more than 200’ from altitude selected.Â

239
Q

CNAFWhat is a standard formation?

A

Defined as a formation within 1 mile and within 100 feet vertically between the flight leader and each wingman.

240
Q

NFM Ch. 6Point of safe return

A

Point along planned route at which the aircraft can return to the departure airfield and arrive with no more or no less than the required fuel.

241
Q

SOPminimum/emergency fuel

A

5000 lbs minimum4000 lbs emergency

242
Q

QRH Ch. 3What are the target pitch attitude and trim setting during takeÂoff based on?

A

The target pitch attitude and the takeoff trim setting were chosen so that if the critical engine failes between refusal speed and rotate speed, the airfract will be approximately in longitudinal trim at obstacle clearance speed passing 50’.

243
Q

NFM Ch. 4Load factor limitation during symmetrical maneuvers

A

Symmetrical -1.0 - 3.0 G

244
Q

NFM Ch. 2What is de-energized when the engine start switch is placed to STOP?

A

Shuts fuel off at engine, turns off respective main tank boost pump, closes the nacelle shutoff valve (in AUTO)

245
Q

NFM Ch. 15Drogue limitations (airspeed and altitude)

A

Airspeed:HSD 185-250 KIASLSD 105-120, 105-130 post-engagementAltitude: HSD - 35,000’ LSD - 10,000’

246
Q

NFM Ch. 6How do you fly a maximum endurance profile?

A

Use power settings to maintain the airspeed from the performance charts for the gross weight and altitude.

247
Q

FAAWhat does brown on approach plates indicate?

A

Terrain within the plan view that is at least 4,000 feet above the airport or terrain that reaches 2,000 feet above the airport and is within six miles of the airport.

248
Q

SOPWhat is minimum and emergency fuel IAW SOP?

A

Minimum: 5000 lbs Emergency: 4000 lbs

249
Q

QRH Ch. 12Windshear/GCAS Pull up/TAWS PULL UP Alert Recovery

A

A. Takeoff power…Set (PF)B. Aircraft attitude…wings level, nose up (PF)pitch immediately to 15* nose up, then maintain 10 knots above stall caratC. Radar altitude, airspeed, and sink rate (as appropriate)…Call out (PM)

250
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does fuel temp affect range?

A

Maximum range is affected by fuel temp variation because of the change in fuel density. Increased fuel temp results in a decrease in range.

251
Q

FAR/AIMWhat is Vx and when is it used?

A

Best climb angle, used to clear obstacles quickly. Gains most altitude in shortest distance. Also Vobs.

252
Q

NFM Ch. 2When is the oil cooler augmentation system operating?

A
  • Oil cooler flap position > 80%
  • Oil temperature > 80*C
  • Airspeed < 50 knots
  • Power levers less than FLT IDLE
  • WOW
253
Q

QRH Ch. 4Abort decision criteria

A

< 70 KIAS - major condition, WARNING/CAUTION, Advisory associated with a malfunction70-V1 - major condition, WARNING/CAUTION threatens continued takeoff, engine failure, fire or serious directional control problem.Â>V1 - Continue unless airworthiness of the aircraft is in serious jeopardy.Â

254
Q

NFM Ch. 15Large Aircraft Infrared Countermeasures

A

AAQ-24V high powered directional infrared jammer designed to defeat IR heat-seeking missiles.Â

255
Q

GPDescribe class D airspace.

A

Generally, airspace from surface to 2500’ AGL surrounding airports that have a control tower. Must establish two-way comms.

256
Q

FAR/AIMMandatory reporting with ATC

A
  1. Altitude change when VFR on top2. Unforecasted wx3. TAS change of 10 knots or 5%4. Time/Altitude when reaching a holding fix5. When leaving a holding fix6. Compulsory reporting points7. Vacating assigned altitude8. Missed approach9. When unable to climb/descend at least 500 fpm10. Loss of navigation11. Safety of flight
257
Q

NFM Ch. 4Flaps 50% speed

A

183 KIAS

258
Q

GPClass C airspace

A

Generally surface to 4000’ AGL out to 5nm, and 1200’-4000’ out to 10nm from an airport with an operational control tower, are services by radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations. Must establish two-way comms.

259
Q

NFM Ch. 4When will secondary fuel management occur?

A

Any fuel management that fails to meet the requirements for takeoff and landing or enroute fuel management. This will occur when there is usable fuel in the externals and main tanks are partly filled to less than 26,940 lbs.

260
Q

NFM Ch. 5How do you clear smoke/fumes from the cockpit?

A

AIR COND CARGO COMPT POWER switch … OFFCROSS FLOW VALVE switches … MAN ON, CLOSEUNDERFLOOR switch … OFFAllow the Air Conditioning to push air into the back of the aircraft to clear smoke/fumes. Can also depressurize aircraft.

261
Q

QRH Ch. 9Broken Hose

A

A. Broken Hose…Announce (CM)B. CNIMU Pod CTRL pg1/2 HYD PWR LSK…(Confirm) OFF (CM)C. CNIMU Pod CTRL pg1/2 MASTER PWR LSK…OFF (CM)

262
Q

NFM Ch. 2All but how much fuel can be dumped? How is this regulated? How can you dump all fuel?

A

All usable fuel except ~1520 lbs in each main tank can be dumped. Location of transfer pump prevents any more than 1520 from being dumped. If crossfeeding, boost pumps can cause the remaining fuel to dump.

263
Q

QRH Ch. 1What ECBU can be used to be reprogrammed? What is lost?

A

ECBU 14. AR capability is lost.

264
Q

NFM Ch. 6How does fuel type affect range?

A

Different fuels have different densities that will affect range.JP-5/8 61,364 lb = 9024 galJP-4 53,567 lb = 9024 gal

265
Q

NFM Ch. 2What is the duty cycle for the pusher test?

A

Five attempts requires a 5 minute cool down.

266
Q

GPMOA - special use airspace

A

Airspace established outside of class A to separate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify to VFR aircraft where these activities are conducted.

267
Q

Where should you takeoff and land when a runway has an arresting gear?

A

If runway length is not a factor for takeoff or landing, use the portion of the runway after the arresting gear to avoid damaging the aircraft from a bouncing arresting gear or from displacing the arresting gear.

268
Q

NFM Ch. 16What is the stablized approach criteria? When is it called? Who calls STABLE? What do you do if not stable?

A
  • Aircraft is in a safe landing configuration, +/-1 dot of glidepath and CDI, no well above/below/right/left calls on PAR or ASR, or 5* for NDB, +/- 10 KIAS, all briefings and checklists complete, no GCAS special alerts.
  • CP
  • 100’ above minimums
  • Go around shall be commenced.
269
Q

GPWhat is a MOCA?

A

MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE - The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigation signal coverage only within 25sm of a VOR.

270
Q

GPWhat is MEA?

A

MINIMUM ENROUTE ALTITUDE - The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

kc-130j (12 decks)

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