Ocular Disease: anterior Flashcards

1
Q

Which is associated with vitritis, choroiditis or retinitis

A

Retinitis

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2
Q

All posterior uveitis presents with vitritis, T or F?

A

F

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3
Q

Inflammation of the retina

A

Breakdown of blood retinal barrier, resulting in WBCs in the vitreous. Patients may complain of floaters and/or decreased vision

Vitritis

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4
Q

Inflammation of the choroid

A

Does NOT affect the blood retinal barrier and will NOT present with vitritis

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5
Q

Most common cause of posterior uveitits

A

Toxoplasmosis

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6
Q

Pathophysiology of toxoplasmosis

A

Parasitic infection caused by toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular parasite. May be congenital or acquired

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7
Q

Which is the most common form of toxoplasmosis

A

Congenital

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8
Q

In what ways can congenital toxoplasmosis occur

A

Only if the mother contracts it during pregnancy. If she has it before pregnancy, it will not transfer to the fetus

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9
Q

Of congential toxoplasmosis, what are the possible outcomes

A

90%-baby will be fine, recurrence in early adulthood with chorioretinal scar at birth

10% mentally handicapped: triad of convulsions, CEREBRAL CALCIFICAITON, and retinochoroiditis

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10
Q

How do you get acquired toxoplasmosis

A

Inhalation of the parasite in cat feces and/or through eating undercooked meat

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11
Q

Typical characteristics of toxoplasmosis

A
  • young health patient with redness, photophobia, floaters, uveitits, vitritis, and decreased vision
  • focal, fluffy, yellow-white retinal lesion adjacent to an old inactive scar with an overlying vitritis (Headlights in the fog)
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12
Q

Headlights in the fog appearance

A

Toxoplasmosis

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13
Q

Difference between toxoplasmosis and histoplasmosis

A

Histoplasmosis: FUNGAL infection that causes CHOROIDITIS that does NOT lead to vitritis. Results in multifocal “punched out” lesions in the periphery with associated peripapilllary atrophy and maculopathy, including CNVM

Toxo: retinovitritis, parasite, univocal, young and healthy, vitritis

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14
Q

Less common causes of posterior uveitits

A

Sarcoidosis
Syphilis
CMV

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15
Q

Posterior uveitis in sarcoidosis

A
Granulomatous panuveitis 
Retinal vitritis (cotton ball opacities)
Retinal vasculitis (candle wax drippings)
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16
Q

Ocular findings in sarcoidosis

A
  • Chronic dacryoadenitis
  • dry eye disease
  • chronic, bialteral, anterior granulomatous uveitits
  • CN VII palsy
  • retinal vasculitis
  • vitritis
  • optic nerve disease (unilateral optic disc edema, papilledema)
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17
Q

CMV: posterior uveitis

A
  • most common ocular infection and cause of blindness in AIDS
  • white patches of necrotic retina with hemorrhagic retinitis and vascualr sheathing
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18
Q

When does someone get CMV retinitis in AIDS

A

CD 4 counts less than 50

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19
Q

Difference between CMV retinitis and toxoplasmosis

A

CMV has more intravitreal hemorrhages and less vitritis than toxo

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20
Q

Difference between PORN and CMV

A

PORN has minimal amounts of vitritis (similar to CMV) and hemorrhages (less than CMV)

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21
Q

Causes of iris coloboma

A

Incomplete closure of the embryonic fissure

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22
Q

Most common place of iris coloboma

A

Inferior nasal

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23
Q

Iris coloboma associations

A

Coloboma of

  • CB
  • zonules
  • choroidal
  • retinal
  • ON
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24
Q

What layer are iris melanomas found

A

Stroma

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25
Q

Iris melanoma is an abnormal proliferation of

A

Melanocytes in the iris stroma

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26
Q

Signs of iris melanoma

A
Pigmented or amelanotic
Iris stromal tissue 
Inferior quadrant 
Feathery margins
>3mm in diameter
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27
Q

Iris lesions in younger patients (<40)

A

Any iris lesion found in younger patients (<40 years of age) with high risk characteristics, including associated hyphema, ectropion uvea, angle involvement, inferior iris location, and diffuse feathery edges, should be evaluated for potential iris melanoma

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28
Q

Dellen

A

◦ An area of the cornea that wets poorly, leading to stromal dehydration and corneal thinning, with resulting pooling of NaFL within the affected area; seen adjacent to areas of elevation such as pterygia, filtering blebs, tumors, and poor fitting RGP lenses
◦ Patients may be asymptomatic or complain of an occasional FB sensation and other dry eye symptoms

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29
Q

Exposure keratopathy

A

Due to abnormal CN 7 or orbicularis oculi function

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30
Q

CN 7 issues and exposure keratopathy

A

Bell’s Palsy (idiopathic CN 7 palsy), cerebrovascular accident, aneurysm, MS, HSV, HZV

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31
Q

Orbicularis oculi issues and exposure keratopty

A

eyelid surgery causing ectropion, thyroid eye disease, nocturnal lagophthalmos, floppy eyelid sybdrome

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32
Q

Number one cause of exposure keratopathy

A

Lag ophthalmos

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33
Q

Symptoms of exposure K

A

redness, FB sensation and burning; symptoms are typically worse in the AM

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34
Q

Signs of exposure K

A

vary from mild SPK (commonly in the inferior 1/3 or intrapalpebral region of the cornea) to corneal ulceration. Decreased corneal sensitivity is common

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35
Q

When is exposure K worse for the pt

A

AM

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36
Q

Most common cause of filamentary keratitis

A

Keratoconjunctivits sicca

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37
Q

What are the filaments composed of in filamentary keratopathy

A

Degenerated epithelial cells and mucous

Stain with NaFL

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38
Q

What generally causes filamentary keratitis

A

Chronic inflamamtion and friction

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39
Q

Early sign of filamentary keratitis

A

Coma shaped SPK

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40
Q

Treatment for filamentary keratitis

A

Acetylcistein (mucomyst)

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41
Q

Histroy of thygesons

A

Most common in the 2nd-3rd decade. Patients often have a history of recurrent episodes with similar symptoms. There is no sex predilection

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42
Q

Pathophysiology/Dx of Thygesons

A

unknown etiology although may be viral or AI. The condition has no known associations with ocular or systemic diseases

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43
Q

Symptoms of Thygesons

A

FB sensation, photophobia, tearing, and occasional blurred vision. Overal lthe eye is relatively quiet with no anteiror chamber reaction or conjunctival injections. Symptoms are typically chronic and almost always bilateral

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44
Q

Signs of Thygesons

A

bilateral (90%), small, multiple, asymmetric gray-white clusters of superficial intraepithelial raised corneal lesions (avg 15-20). The condition is characterized by periods of exacerbation of remissions without serious sequelae over a period of 10-20 years before It permanently resolves.
‣ Acute attacks (exacerbation)-last 1-2 months (if untreated) before resolving; lesions will stain lightly with NaFL. Exacerbations often recur within 6-8 weeks
‣ Remissions: periods of inactive disease in between acute attacks; lesions do not stain with NaFL during remission

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45
Q

Where are the corneal lesions in Thygesons

A

Intraepithelial

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46
Q

Pathophysiology of neurotrophic keratopathy

A

trigeminal nerve neuropathy (CN V1) that results from damage to sensor nerve supply anywhere from the trigeminal nucleus to the corneal nerve endings. This condition results in decreased corneal sensitivity and a subsequent decline in corneal regeneration and wound healing

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47
Q

Common causes of neurotrophic keratopathy

A

‣ Common causes that directly affect CN V1 include herpes simplex, herpes zoster, diabetes, LASIK, CL wear, conditions that cause chronic corneal epithelial injury, surgeries, and medications

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48
Q

Damage to CN 7 and neurotrophic keratopathy

A

‣ Damage to CN 7 can also results in neurotrophic keratitis due to impaired reflex tearing. Tumors, CVA, Bell’s palsy, surgeries or other conditions that damage CN 7 prevent reflex tearing, which results in chronic damage to the ocular surface and disruption of CN V1

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49
Q

Neurotrophic is damage to which nerve

A

Nasocilairy branch of V1

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50
Q

Symptoms of neurotrophic keratopathy

A

redness, tearing, decreased vision, FB sensation, and swollen eyelids. Corneal findgins are often worse than what the symptoms indicate

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51
Q

Signs of neurotrophic keratopthy

A

decreased corneal sensitivity (hallmark of the condition). Early signs include SPK with associated perilimbal injection. Late signs include a sterile inferior oval ulcer (often with an associated iritis) without signs of significant inflammation
‣ This condition is characterized by non-healing epithelial defects; if not treated appropriately, the corneal defects will ulcerate, which may lead to corneal perforation

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52
Q

Big ulcer, little pain

A

Neurotrophic keratopathy

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53
Q

When does RCE occur

A

In the morning upon awakening

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54
Q

Causes of RCE

A

Corneal abrasion (any trauma, especially from organic matter like wood or fingernails)

Corneal dystrophies, most commonly EBMD

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55
Q

Symptoms of RCE

A

recurrent episodes of acute pain that most often occur in the morning upon awakening. Additional symptoms include lacrimation, photophobia, and blurred vision.

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56
Q

What wavelengths cause thermal/UV keratitis

A

Below 300

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57
Q

What parts of the cornea absorb UV light below 300

A

Epithelium and bowmans

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58
Q

Pathophysiology of UV keratitis

A

recall that the epithelial and bowmans membrane absorb wavelengths below 300nm; excessive absorption of this short wavelength light can result in hyperactivation of K+ channels, with resulting loss of intracellular K+ and cell death

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59
Q

Symptoms of UV keratitis

A

ocular pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. Symptoms are typically worse 6-12 hours after the incident

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60
Q

When is UV keratitis the worst for the patient

A

6-12 hours after the incident

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61
Q

Signs of UV keratitis

A

SPK within the intrapalpebral region of the cornea that stains with NaFL

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62
Q

DEW dry eye def

A

according to the international Dry Eye Workshop (DEWS), dry eye is a “multifactorial disease of the tears and ocualr surface that results in symptoms of discomfort, visual disturbance, and tear film instability with potential damage to the ocular surface.”

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63
Q

Who gets dry eye the most

A

Post menopausal women

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64
Q

Medications associated with dry eye

A
  • Atropine, scopolamine, homatropine, cyclopentolate, tropicamide (STopACH)
  • ANTIhistamines: diphenhydramine, brompheniramine, chlorpheniramine, promethazine
  • ANTIpsychotics: chlorpromazine, thioridazine
  • ANTIdepressants: TCAs (amitriptyline, imipramine), MAOI (phenelzine), SSRIs (fluoxetine, excitalopram)
  • ANTIanxiety: diazepam
  • Muscle relaxant: cyclobenzaprine
  • Ipratropium (via muscarinic blockade)
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65
Q

When are dry eye symptoms typically worse

A

End of the day

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66
Q

TBUT and dry eye

A

<10s

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67
Q

Is tear osmolarity increased or decreased in dry eye

A

Increased

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68
Q

Aqueous deficient dry eye signs

A

thin tear meniscus (<0.2mm in height is abnormal), decreased Schrimer findings, and decreased phenol red thread test

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69
Q

Evaporative dry eye signs

A

‣ Decreased TBUT (<10s)

‣ Poor expression of the meibomian glands or toothpaste consistency of meibum, meibomian gland atrophy on meibography

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70
Q

Schirmer I testing

A

Performed without anesthetic. Measures the basal, emotional, and reflex tearing

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71
Q

Normal on Schirmer I

A

> 10mm wetting in 5m

Borderline: 5-10mm wetting in 5m
Abnormal: <5mm wetting in 5m

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72
Q

Schirmer II testing

A

Performed with anesthetic. Measures only basal tearing

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73
Q

Normal Schirmer II

A

> 5mm wetting in 5m

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74
Q

Normal phenol red thread

A

> 10mm of wetting after 15s

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75
Q

What do rose bengal and lissmine green stain

A

Dead and devitalized conjunctival and corneal cells, as well as cells that have lost their mucous covering.

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76
Q

Two mechanisms behind dry eye disease

A

Increased Tear osmolarity

Tear film instability

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77
Q

Increased tear osmolarity and dry eye

A

results in inflammatory cascade that damages the ocualr surface and releases inflammtory mediators into the tears. Aqueous deficient dry eye and evaporative dry eye can cause tear hyperosmolarity

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78
Q

TearLab

A

TearLab technology measures tear osmolarity and may become a new gold standard in the dx of dry eye syndrome because of its high level of sensitivity and specificity. A tear osmolarity >308 mOsm/L or >8mOsm/L difference between the eyes is considered diagnostic for dry eye disease

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79
Q

Tear film instability and dry eye

A

can arise secondary to tear hyperosmolarity, or can be the initiating event in the disease process (reduces lipid layer in meibomian gland disease)

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80
Q

How does aqueous tear deficient dry eye result in increased tear osmolarity

A

• Aqueous tear deficient dry eye results in increased tear osmolarity- even though water evaporates form the ocular surface at a normal rate, there is a reduces aqueous layer of the tears

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81
Q

What are the two main categories of dry eye

A

Aqueous deficient

Evaporative

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82
Q

What are the categories of aqueous deficient dry eye

A

Sjogrens

  • primary: dry eye and dry mouth
  • secondary: dry eye, dry mouth, and autoimmune disease (usually RA)

Nonsjogrens

  • primary lacrimal gland deficiency (age related)
  • secondary lacrimal gland deficiency (inflammatory disease, surgery, CL)
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83
Q

Types of evaporative dry eye

A

Intrinsic
-MGD, lid position disroders, low blink rate

Extrinsic
-ocular surface disease (vit A), CL wear,

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84
Q

Difference between MGD and posterior blepharitis

A

• Posterior blepharitis and meibomian gland dysfunction (MGD) are often used interchangeably in medical practice, but this is an incorrect use of clinical terminology. Posterior blepharitis is a general term that refers to inflammatory conditions of the eyelid and may be caused by several conditions. In the latera stages of MGD, if inflammatory signs are present, an MGD-related posterior blepharitis is the appropriate diagnosis.

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85
Q

Low blink rate and evaporative dry eye

A

A low blink rate resutls in poor expression of meibum from the meibomian glands. The terminal meibomian gland ducts hyperkeratinize=obstruction of the ducts=intraductal HTN due to build up of meibum=dilation of the ducts=meibomian gland atrophy

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86
Q

Vitamin A and dry eye

A

Vitamin A is essential for goblet cell and glycocalyx development. Vit A deficiency can also result in aqueous tear deficient dry eye as a result of lacrimal gland acinar damage. It is associated with Bitots spots on the conjunctiva.

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87
Q

What staining is used in dry eye

A

Lissamine green

-inferior and 3 and 9 o’clock

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88
Q

When does keratoconnus start

A

Puberty

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89
Q

Inheritance of keratoconnus

A

Sporadic but can be AD

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90
Q

Pathophysiology of keratoconnus

A

non-inflammatory progressive and degenerative disease of unknown etiology that initally damages bowmans membrane. The condition results from the following
‣ Stromal collagen fibril displacement due to a loss of adhesion between fibrils, which resutls in corneal thinning and protrusion due to degradation of the fibrils by MMPs

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91
Q

What is keratoconnus associated with

A

Eye rubbing
Atopy
CL wear
Ocular and systemic diseases

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92
Q

Ocular conditions that may be assoacited with keratoconnus due to eye rubbing

A

Allergic causes
-VKC, AKC, floppy eyelid syndrome
CT abnormalities
-fuches ED, PPMD, granular dystrophy, lattice dystrophy
Hereditary causes (poor vision causing eye rubbing)
-aniridia, RP, Lebers, ROP, cone dystrophy

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93
Q

Systemic conditions associated with keratonncus

A

T-DOME

  • Turners
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Osteogensis imperfecta
  • Marfans
  • Ehlers-Danlo’s

Also atopic dermatitis and mitral valve prolapse

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94
Q

Which corneal Ectasias can have hydrops

A

All three of them

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95
Q

Signs of keratoconnus

A

classical clinical signs include inferior, central, or paracentral stromal thinning that is typically bilateral, asymmetric, and progressive. As the condition progresses, irregular astigmatism occurs and is poorly corrected with glasses or SCL

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96
Q

Early signs of keratoconnus

A

Fleischer’s ring (iron deposits at the base of the cone that is best seen with a cobalt blue filter (appears dark)), scissors reflex on retinoscopy, irregualr mires on keratometry, and inferior steepening on topography

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97
Q

Late signs of keratoconus

A

Vogt’s striae (vertical lines in deep stroma), Munson’s sign (lower lid protrusion on downgaze), RIzzuti’s sign (conical reflection on the nasal cornea when a light is shown from the temporal side), and hydrops (tears in descemets membrane that result in edema and rupture of the epithelium). 53% of patients with moderate to severe keratoconnus develop corneal scarring in one or both eyes

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98
Q

Mild keratoconus

A

Less than 48D

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99
Q

Moderate keratoconus

A

48-54D

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100
Q

Severe keratoconnus

A

> 54D

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101
Q

When does PMD present

A

Early adulthood

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102
Q

Pathophysiology of PMD

A

unknown; researches believe collagen abnormalities result in a thin, weakened area of the cornea in a crescent shaped distribution inferiorly. IOP causes the cornea to protrude right above the area of thinning (not WITHIN the area of thinning, as with keratoconnus)

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103
Q

Signs and symptoms of PMD

A

patients typically do not experience pain. Characterized by bilateral, inferior corneal thinning (4-8 o’clock) 1-2mm from the limbus that leads to high amounts of ATR astigmatism. Classic corneal topography findings include “kissing doves” or “Crab claws”

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104
Q

Difference between PMD and keratoconnus

A

PMD vs Keratoconnus: unlike keratoconnus, there is no cone, no Flieshcers ring, not Vogt’s striae found in PMD. However, patients in PMD can develop sudden vision loss from hydrops (although it is less common than keratoconnus). Corneal scarring is also more common in keratoconnus

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105
Q

When does keratoglobbus present

A

Birth

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106
Q

Pathophysiology of keratoglobus

A

associated with Ehlers-Danlo’s syndrome, blue sclera, and Leber’s congenital amaurosis

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107
Q

Signs of keratoglobus

A

diffuse corneal thinning most concentrated in the periphery, resulting in a globular appearance. Can result in acute corneal edema due to rupture of Descemet’s membrane; corneal perforation can occur with only minor trauma

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108
Q

What are the anterior corneal dystrophies

A

EBMD
Meesmans
Reis-Bucklers

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109
Q

Pathophysiology of EBMD

A

Excess basement membrane

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110
Q

Inheritance of all EBMD

A

AD

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111
Q

Signs of EBMD

A

characterized by negative staining of map-lines, dots, and/or finger prints of the corneal epithelium (best seen with retro)

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112
Q

EBMD and RCE

A

10% of patients with EBMD develop RCE. 50% of patients with RCE will have EBMD

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113
Q

Signs of Meesmans dystrophy

A

Anteiror corneal dystrophy
characterized by extensive (100s), bilateral, clear intraepithelial cysts that are diffusely spread across the entire cornea (most dominant in the intrapalpebral region)

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114
Q

Reis Buckler Syndrome

A

Anteiror corneal dystrophy

Reports pain early in life
Bowmans replaced with collagen
RCE that decreases with age

Signs: bialteral, symmetric, sub-epithelial Gray reticular opacities that are most concentrated in the central cornea and spare the peripheral cornea; these opacities typically get worse with age

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115
Q

What is the most severe stromal dystrophy

A

Macular dystrophy

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116
Q

Which stromal dystrophy is AR

A

Macular dystrophy

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117
Q

Symptoms of macualr dystrophy

A

Stromal dystrophy
progressive vision loss and episodes of irritation and photophobia (secondary to RCE); severe vision loss occurs by the age of 20-30

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118
Q

Signs of macular dystrophy

A

characterized by diffuse, superficial, central haze between 3 and 9 years of age. Progression results in diffuse stromal opacification (cloudy cornea), stromal thinning, and multiple gray-white opacities (mucopolysaccharide deposits) with irregular borders that are present in all layers of the cornea and extend to the limbus

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119
Q

What accumulates in macular dystrophy

A

Mucopolysaccharides

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120
Q

What accumulates in granular dystrophy

A

Hyaline

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121
Q

Signs/symptoms of granular dystrophy

A

small, snowflake granules (hyaline deposits) in the central stroma. The deposits eventually spread towards the epithelium and deep stroma, becoming confluent and resulting in decreased visual acuity. RCE are rare

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122
Q

Rare variant of granular dystrophy that is characterized by granular and lattice deposits within the central stroma

A

Avellino dystrophy

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123
Q

What accumualtes in lattice dystrophy

A

Amyloid

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124
Q

Signs and symptoms of lattice dystrophy

A

anterior stromal haze with branching, refractile, lattice-like lines (amyloid deposits). Patients typically report decreased acuity (in 3rd decade) resulting from significant corneal scarring and haze. RCE common

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125
Q

What are granular, lattice, and avellino dystrophies assocaited with

A

mutation in the transforming growth factor beta 1 (TGFB1) gene

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126
Q

What accumualtes in schnyders dystrophy

A

Cholesterol

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127
Q

Pathophysiology of schnyders dystrophy

A

the condition has a strong association with hyperlipidemia, xanthelasma, and corneal arcus, and is typically non-progressive

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128
Q

How to remember the types of deposit in the corneal stromal dystrophies

A

Marilyn Monroe Got Hers in LA

  • Macular=Mucopolysaccharides
  • Granular=hyaline
  • Lattice=amyloid

-Schnyders=cholesterol

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129
Q

What are the posterior corneal dystrophies

A

Fuchs

PPMD

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130
Q

Epidemiology of Fuchs

A

AD inherited condition. Female predilection, mroe common in patients over 60 years old (post menopausal women). 30% of patients have a positive family histroy of the condition

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131
Q

Pathophysiology of Fuchs endothelial Dystophy

A

recall that descemets membrane consists of an anterior lamina (produced in the embryo) and a posterior lamina (secreted by the endothelium throughout life). In Fuch’s dystrophy, the posterior lamina is produced in excess and is seen as clumps (guttata) of BM on Descemet’s membrane with an assoacited decrease in endothelial cell density (hallmark of Fuch’s)

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132
Q

Symptoms of Fuchs endothelial dystrophy

A

most patients remain asymptomatic until later in life; progression resutls in blurred, hazy vision that is worse in the AM with pain and glare

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133
Q

Signs of Fuchs endothelial dystrophy

A

often apparent early in life. Characterized by decreased endothelial cell density associatd with pleomorphism (shape) and polymegathism (size), endothelial guttata that have a “beaten metal” appearance, and thick pachymetry findings

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134
Q

Primary concern in Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy

A

The primary concern in this condition is stromal edema, which develops when the endothelial cell pumps are no longer able to maintain the proper osmotic balance. Stromal edema most commonly occurs when endothelial cell counts are less than 500 cells/mm2. As the condition progresses, stromal edema can spill over into the epithelium, leading to painful bullae (within the epithelial layer of the cornea) and scarring

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135
Q

What kind of pumps does the endothelial have that get lost in Fuchs endothelial dystrophy

A

NAK

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136
Q

Cataract surgery and Fuchs endothelial dystrophy

A

Cataract surgery can increased endothelial cell loss and accelerate the condition, especially in cell counts <1000 cell/mm2.

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137
Q

Kids endothelial cell count

A

3000-4000 cells/mm2

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138
Q

Endothelial cell count age 80

A

1000 cells/mm2

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139
Q

What is the minus number of endothelial cells needed to prevent corneal edema

A

Between 400-700 cells/mm2

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140
Q

Epidemiology of PPMD

A

AD inherited condition that occurs within the 2-3rd decade of life, although it may manifest as a cloudy cornea at birth.

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141
Q

Symptoms of PPMD

A

typically slowly progressive or non-progressive and most patients are asymptomatic; thus most patients with PPD are not identified with the condition until 30-50 years of age. Decreased vision secondary to cornea edema is the most common symptom in patients with PPD

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142
Q

Signs of PPMD

A

characterized by bilateral, but often asymmetric, findings that occur at the level of Descemet’s membrane and the endothelium. Findings include subtle patches of vesicle (hallmark), band lesions (linear “Tran track lesions”) and diffuse opacities. In severe cases, corneal edema and bullae lead to painful vision loss

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143
Q

What is the main concern in PPMD

A

PPD results in metaplasia of endothelial cells and an epithelial like endothelium. These endothelial cells have the potential to spread over the iris and angle architecture, resulting in angle closure glaucoma from PAS formation. ALWAYS DO GONIO FOR PPD

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144
Q

What layer of the cornea is being effected in PPMD

A

Descemets (and endothelial)

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145
Q

Megalocornea

A
Males 
Bilateral 
Diameter >13mm
Highly myopic 
Glaucoma
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146
Q

Microcornea

A

Unilateral or bilateral
Diameter <10mm
Hyperopic
Risk of angle closure

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147
Q

Cornea plana

A
  • cornea and sclera equal curvature (pathognomonic)
  • assocaited with sclerocornea and microcornea
  • bilateral flat corneas (<38D)
  • hyperopia, shallow angles, increased risk of angle closure glaucoma
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148
Q

Aniridia

A

Bialteral
Partial or complete
Associated with corneal lesions, lenticular changes, post seg abnormalities

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149
Q

Haab’s striae

A
  • congenital glaucoma

- horizontal cracks in descemets (forceps trauma are vertical)

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150
Q

Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome

A

Condition characterized by a continuum of disorders, including posterior embryotoxon, axenfeld anomaly, Rieger anomaly, and Rieger syndrome. They suffer from anterior segment developmental abnormalities that affect the AC angle. Appx 50% of patients with axenfeld-Rieger syndrome develop glaucoma

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151
Q

Posterior embryotoxon (PE)

A

anteriorly displaced Schwalbes line. Hallmark of Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome

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152
Q

Axenfeld anomaly

A

PE + angle anomalies + increased glaucoma risk
‣ Angle anomalies include prominent iris processes that travel to the level of the PE, often obscuring the scleral spur

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153
Q

Rieger anomaly

A

PE + angle anomalies + increased glaucoma risk + iris stromal abnormalities
‣ Iris stromal abnormalities include a displaced pupil (corectopia) and iris hypoplasia with resulting holes within the iris tissue (polycoria)

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154
Q

Rieger syndrome

A

PE + angle abnormalities + increased glaucoma risk + iris stromal abnormalities + systemic abnormalities
‣ Systemic abnormalities include mental retardation, dental, craniofacial, genitourinary, and skeletal abnormalities

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155
Q

Peters anomaly

A
  • Rare condition in which patients are born with central white corneal opacities (leukoma) with iris adhesions. 80% of cases are bialteral
  • Although some consider the condition to be part of axenfeld-Riger syndrome continuum, peters anomaly rarely occurs in conjunction with these disorders; it is best to consider the condition separately. 50-70% develop secondary glaucoma. Patients may also develop corneal edema and cataracts
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156
Q

Limbal dermoid

A

Normal dense CT with hair follicles and sebaceous glands that is displaced to an abnormal location; most commonly located at the inferotemporal limbus

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157
Q

Sclerotic scatter

A

Corneal clarity

Naked eye

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158
Q

Optic section

A

Angle depth

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159
Q

Conical beam

A

Dark adapted

Cells and flare

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160
Q

Specular reflection

A

Endothelium

Angles of incidence

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161
Q

Indirect illumination

A

Adjacent

EBDM

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162
Q

Cobal blue filter + NaFL

A

Better visualization of corneal and tears film integrity. Use the filter without NaFL to see iron rings appear black (Fleischer rings in Kones)

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163
Q

Which is worse, red or white eye with chemical Brian

A

White

Limbal blanching not good

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164
Q

Which is worse, alkali or acidic burns

A

Alkaline

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165
Q

Alkali burns

A

Alkali injuries are more dangerous than acidic injuries; calcium hydroxide is they most common cause of alkali burns. Remember, limbal blanching is an indicator of inschemia and is most common in alkali burns

Basic Burns Bad
Penetrate faster and deeper to cell membrane
White chemical burn us bad=ischemia
Hydroxide=base

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166
Q

Why do we use doxycycline when there is injury to the cornea

A

Decrease MMPs=increased healing

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167
Q

What can a patient get once they have a healed injury on their cornea

A

RCE

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168
Q

Signs of ruptured globe

A

full thickness laceration, severe conjunctival hemorrhage, EOM restriction, leakage of intraocular contents, low IOP, positive Seidel’s sign, hyphema, commotio retinae, choroidal rupture, and tractional retinal detachmen

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169
Q

Siedels test

A

◦ Siedel’s test is used to determine if a wound leak exists. If a leak exists (a positive seidels sign), the NaFL dye will appear as a black stream (diluted by the aqueous) within the green dye of the tears; cobalt blue filter should be used

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170
Q

Pathophysiology of hyphema

A

condition typically results from trauma to the iris and/or CB

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171
Q

What should you not do to someone with a hyphema

A

DO NOT perform gonioscopy or scleral depression on these patients until 1 month post injury to avoid rebleeding. Rebleeds tend to be worse than the principal presentation.

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172
Q

Microhyphema

A

RBCs suspended in the AC that can only be viewed with a slit lamp

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173
Q

Signs of hyphema

A

Additional signs include iris sphincter tears, iridodialysis, cataract, lens subluxation, pigment ring (Vossius ring) on the anterior lens capsule, commotio retinae, and angle recession

Iridodialysis: truama, iris root (thin) is pulled from CB
Vossius Ring: trauma, back of iris hits the lens, pigment on the front surface of the lens
Trauma is the number one cause of subluxatio

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174
Q

Number one cause of lens subluxation

A

Trauma

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175
Q

Idiopathic hyphema

A

In idiopathic hyphema, always inquire about the use of blood thinners (aspirin, reversible NSAIDs, warfarin, clopidogrel) and consider ordering a CBC, PT/PTT, and sickle cell screen. Sickle cell and/or clotting diseases should be considered in these cases, especially in AA and Mediterranean patients.

Idiopathic-think sickle cell and NSAIDs

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176
Q

IOP and hyphema

A

Increases bc TM getting blocked by RBCs and debris

Patients should elevate their head (30 degrees), allowing RBCs to settle inferiorly

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177
Q

FBs that cause significant inflammation

A

iron, steel, copper, or vegetable matter

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178
Q

FBs that do not cause a lot of inflammation

A

Glass, stone, precious metals, and plastic are inert materials and may stay in the eye for prolonged periods of time without causing inflammation

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179
Q

Most common site of orbital fracture

A

Orbital floor

Maxillary bone is the weakest (posterior medial)

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180
Q

Things to look for in orbital fracture

A

In orbital wall fractures, look for a trapped inferior rectus or inferior oblique (limiting upgaze, downgaze, or both), damage to the infraorbital nerve (causing hypoesthesia of the cheek), positive forced ductions, and peripheral crepitus

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181
Q

What not to do after orbital fracture

A

Do not perform gonio or scleral depression until 4 weeks after the trauma, patients should not blow their nose within 48 hours of trauma in order to limit the risk of an orbital infection

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182
Q

Forced duction test and orbital fracture

A

Orbital floor fractures are associated with a positive forced duction test. Remember that during forced duction testing, the clinical attempts to move the anesthetize eye in the direction of gaze of the affected EOM by using forceps to grasp the conj
‣ Positive: eye cannot be physically moved. EOM restriction
‣ Negative: can be physically moved. Cranial nerve muscle palsy

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183
Q

Pathophysiology of commotio retina

A

trauam causes disruption of the RPE and PR outer segments. Although the condition usually resolves without sequelae within 3-6 weeks, permanent vision, VF loss may occur
◦ Vitreous smacks into the PR outer segments. Gone in 72 hours

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184
Q

Symptoms of commotio retina

A

Usually asymptomatic

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185
Q

Berlins edema

A

Macular edema in commotio retinae

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186
Q

• disinsertion of the iris root from the CB ; appears as a peripheral iris hole that’s is best seen with retroillumination

A

Iridodialysis

Carefully monitor for angle recession glaucoma

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187
Q

Vossius ring

A

• a pigment ring on the anterior lens surface that retuslt from contact with the posterior pigmented iris epithelium during trauma

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188
Q

Associated with acute chest compressing truama and acute pancreatitis

A

Purtchers retinopathy

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189
Q

Chorodial rupture

A
  • occurs in 5-10% of cases of blunt ocular trauma. Most commonly appears as a single area or multiple areas of subretinal hemorrhage, usually with the temporal posterior pole, with crescent shaped tears concentric to the optic nerve head. Choroidal rupture is assocairted with a long term risk of development of CNVM at the margins of the tear, occurring in an estimated 5-10% of patients
  • Rupture always between the disc and the macula
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190
Q

What should be performed when there is a conjunctival or corneal laceration

A

Siedels test

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191
Q

ONH and trauma

A

Optic neuropathies can also resutls from trauma, disc pallor often takes weeks to appear

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192
Q

Pathophysiology of preseptal cellulitis

A
Infection anterior to the orbital septum 
Most commonly from 
-ocular infection (horeodlum)
-systemic infection
-skin trauma
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193
Q

Signs of preseptal cellulitis

A

eyelid edema, erythema, ptosis, warmth, no pain to mild tenderness, hard bump on eyelid. WILL NOT see signs of orbital congestion, as in orbital cellulitis

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194
Q

One of the leading causes of exophthalmos in kids

A

Orbital cellulitis

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195
Q

What to ask about when a kid has orbital cellultiis

A

Fever, recent dental infections or recent trauma

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196
Q

Pathophysiology of orbital cellultiis

A

an infection posterior to the orbital septum. Most commonly results from the following
◦ 1. Sinus infection-specially ethmoid sinusitis (the infection can easily spread through the very thin lamina papyracea)
◦ 2. Orbital infection - dacryoadenitis, dacryocystitis, progression of preseptal cellulitis
◦ 3. Orbital fracture
◦ 4. Dental infection

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197
Q

Most common bacterial culprits of orbital cellultiis

A

Staphylococcus aureus=adults

haemophilis influenzae=kids

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198
Q

Symptoms of orbital cellulitis

A

red eye, pain, decreased vision, HA, fever, general malaise, reduced color vision, an afferent pupillary defect (APD), proptosis, and diplopia with pain on eye movement due to EOM restrictions

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199
Q

Prognosis of orbital cellulitis

A

◦ Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that can results in a cavernous sinus thrombosis, brain abscess, and/or meningitis if not caught early and managed appropriately
◦ Diabetics and immunocompromised patients with orbital cellulitis can develop mucormycosis, an aggressive fungal infection that can be life threatening; these patients have a characteristic “black eschar” (black necrotic tissue) in their mouth and nose

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200
Q

Preseptal vs orbital cellulitis

A

◦ Preseptal vs orbital cellulitis: patients with preseptal cellulitis will NOT have decreased vision, proptosis, fever, pain on EOM, or EOM restrictions, all of which are common in orbital cellulitis

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201
Q

What is something that can occur with TED

A

MG

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202
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for the development of TED

A

Cigarette smoking (2-9x greater)

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203
Q

Pathophysiology of TED

A

autoimmune disorder characterized by thyroid stimulating (TSH) receptor ABs directed against the EOMs and orbital tissue, causing fibroblast proliferation and significant inflammation and thickening of the EOMs that results in ON compression in the last stage of the disease
◦ Abs may also affect the thyroid gland, most commonly causing hyperthyroidism. TED occurs in 30-70% of patients with Graves’ thyroid disease

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204
Q

Symptoms of TED

A

prominent eyes, chemosis, FB sensation, tearing, photophobia, pain, diplopia, decreased vision, and color vision loss (non exhaustive list)

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205
Q

Signs of TED

A

unilateral or bilateral (often asymmetric) proptosis, upper lid retraction, Elemis erythema and edema, conjunctival/ caruncle injection and edema, decreased color vision, EOM restrictions, and an APD. IOP may be elevated in primary and upgaze

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206
Q

Most common cause of unilateral OR bialteral proptosis in middle aged patients

A

TED

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207
Q

NOSPECS grading system for TED

A

◦ N: no signs or symptom
◦ O: only signs but no symptoms. Examples include upper lid retraction (stare appearance); this is referred to as Dalrymple’s signs
◦ S: soft tissue involvement such as lid edema and conjunctival chemosis
◦ P: proptosis
◦ E: EOM involvement, resulting in diplopia; inferior rectus is typically affected first, followed by the medial, superior, and lateral recti (IMSLOW)
◦ C: corneal involvement (SPK, SLK, ulceration)
◦ S: sight loss due to ON compression

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208
Q

What is the greates threat to vision in TED

A

Compression of the ON
◦ Enlarged EOMs and inflamed orbital fat at the orbital apex can compress the ON, causing optic disc edema, and APD, reduced color vision, and visual field loss. ON compression is the greatest threat to vision due to thyroid eye disease, and occurs in 5% of patients

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209
Q

Von graefes sign

A

Upper eyelid lag during downgaze

TED

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210
Q

Kochers sign

A

Globe lag compared to lid movement when looking up

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211
Q

Dalrymple’s sign

A

Lid retraction resulting in stare appearance

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212
Q

Dx for TED

A

◦ forced duction to detect EOM restrictions
◦ CT/MRI to detect enlargement of the EOMs (tendons will be spared)
◦ Exophthalmometry to measure proptosis
◦ VF to detect ON compression
◦ Blood work (T3/T4/TSH) to measure thyroid function

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213
Q

Normal exophthalmometry

A

‣ 12-22mm for caucasians
‣ 12-18mm for Asians
‣ 12-24mm for AA
‣ Abnormal titer if higher OR presence of >3mm asymmetry. Make sure to record the base

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214
Q

Carotid Cavernous Fistuals result from

A

Abnormally communication between the AV systems

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215
Q

Most common cause of cavernous sinus fistula

A

◦ Most commonly results from closed head trauma (77% of cases). CFFs may also develop spontaneously (classically from a ruptured ICA aneurysm) or from cavernous sinus pathology

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216
Q

Signs of cavernous sinus fistula

A

◦ High pressure blood from the carotid artery builds up in the cavernous sinus and impedes the return of venous blood back to the cancerous sinus; this leads to a build up of pressure posterior to the globe and the unique classic triad of chemosis, pulsatile proptosis, and an ocular bruit.
◦ Additional signs include episcleral venous congestion, periorbital tissue swelling, elevated IOP, diplopia secondary to CN 3,4, or 6 palsies, and loss of lid /face sensation on the affected side due to a CN 5 palsy

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217
Q

Most common benign orbital tumor in children. Almost all cases are diagnosed by 6m of ge

A

Cap hemangioma

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218
Q

What can cap hemangioma cause

A

proptosis and deprivation amblyopia if the visual axis is blocked. Characterized bu rapid growth and spontaneous involution (70-75% of lesions gradually involuted by age 7)

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219
Q

Most common benign tumor in adults

A

Cavernous hemangioma

40-60 year old females

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220
Q

Signs of cavernous hemangioma

A

progressive, painless, unilateral proptosis as the tumor most commonly arises posterior to the globe within the muscle cone

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221
Q

Dermoid cyst

A

commonly located within the superior/temporal quadrant.l often congential and diagnosed in early childhood as a result of noticeable proptosis. A CT scan will show a well defined mass

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222
Q

Neurofibroma

A

a benign, yellow-white tumor of astrocytes that is most common in young to middle aged adults. A CT scan shows a well defined mass that is usually located int he superior orbit it can be isolated, multiple, unilateral, or bilateral. May be associated with NF

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223
Q

Neurolemmoma (scwhannoma)

A

a benign tumor of the Schwann cells that is mot common in young to middle aged adults. Typically located in the superior orbit, as the tumor develops within the first division of CN 5. Patients report a gradual onset of painless, progressive proptosis

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224
Q

Most common intrinsic tumor of the optic nerve

A

Optic nerve glioma

Usually in the first decade of life. Associated with NF1

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225
Q

Most common benign brain tumor

A

Meningiomas

Sphenoid meningiomas are the most common intracranial tumor to invade the orbit

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226
Q

Malignant orbital tumors

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma
neuroblastoma
Lymphoma

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227
Q

Most common primary pediatric orbital malignancy

A

Rhabdomyosarcmoa

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228
Q

Rapid bone destructing tumor thar causes progressive unilateral proptosis with an average age of 7

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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229
Q

Most common secondary pediatric orbital malignancy

A

Neuroblastoma

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230
Q

Where does a neuroblastoma arise from

A

The abdomen, they may have horners

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231
Q

Orbital lymphoma

A

most common in patients 50-70 yo. Characteristic signs include an APD and insidious progressive proptosis and vision loss. 30-50% of patients have orbital disease develop systemic involvement, of which 60% have a 5 year survival rate

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232
Q

Most common problems that result from orbital tumors

A

Progressive vision loss
Proptosis
Diplopia
APD

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233
Q

Who gets orbital pseudotumor

A

Young to middle aged patients

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234
Q

Pathophysiology of orbital pseudotumor

A

Idiopathic inflammatory process that can impact any soft tissue component of the orbit

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235
Q

Symptoms of orbital pseudotumor

A

Acute onset of unilateral pain, red eye, diplopia, and or decreased vision. Bilateral involvement may occur in kids. 50% of kids will have additional symptoms of fever, nausea, vomitting

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236
Q

Signs of orbital pseudotumor

A
‣ Lid ptosis 
‣ Periorbital swelling 
‣ Lacrimal gland enlargement 
‣ Conjunctival chemosis 
‣ Reduced corneal sensation (due to CN V1 involvement)
‣ Increased IPO on the involved side 
‣ ON swelling (if posterior) 
‣ EOM restrictions (causing external ophthalmoplegia) and proptosis due to inflammation of the orbital contents
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237
Q

If someone has chemosis unilaterally and not associated with allergies

A

Be certain to include idiopathic orbital inflammation in the list of differentials

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238
Q

Difference between TED and orbital pseudotumor

A

TED will not have EOM tendon inflammation and orbital pseudotumor will

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239
Q

Rare type of idiopathic orbital inflammation that can affect the cavernous sinus and the superior orbital fissure

A

Tolosa hunt syndrome

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240
Q

Patient presentation of tolosa hunt syndrome

A

Acute and painful exophthalmoplegia and diplopia due to ipsilateral palsies of CN 3,4,6,V1,V2

Loss of sensory innervation to V1 and V2 areas as well

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241
Q

What nerves pass though the cavernous sinus

A

3,4,6,V1,V2

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242
Q

Bilateral orbital pseudotumor in adults

A

Raise suspicions for systemic vasculitis (wagners, polyartertitis nodosa) or lymphoma

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243
Q

shrinkage and atrophy of the globe as a result of trauma, infection ,surgery, and advanced disease. Typically associated with inflammation, hypotony, and a blind eye

A

Phthisis Bulbi

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244
Q

absence of ocular tissue within the globe; primary cases are very rare

A

Anophthalmos

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245
Q

small globe, congential in nature

A

Microphthalmos

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246
Q

retraction of the globe within the orbit; often results from ocular trauma

A

Enophthalmos

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247
Q

Removal of the globe

A

Enucleation

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248
Q

Removal of inner contents of the eye; scleral and other orbital contents remain

A

Evisceration

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249
Q

Exteneration

A

Removal of all contents of the orbit, including EOMs and orbital fat

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250
Q

Who gets ocular rosacea

A

most common in middle aged adults of norther European ancestry. Women are affected more than men, but men often have more severe disease. Affects appx 10% of the population, including an estimated 50% with acne rosacea

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251
Q

Pathophysiology of ocular rosacea

A

condition affects the sebaceous glands (including meibomian glands of the eyelids), resulting in chronic ocular surface disease

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252
Q

Symptoms of ocular rosacea

A

redness, burning, FB sensation, ocular irritation

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253
Q

Signs of ocular rosacea

A

characterized by papules on cheek and forehead with telangiectasia, rhinophyma, and facial flushing
‣ Facial flushing with rosacea is associated with triggers such as alcoholic beverages, exertion, spicy food, caffeine, and increased sun exposure

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254
Q

What can ocular rosacea lead to

A

lid diseases (inspissated meibomian glands, blepharitis, hordeola, chalazion), which results in ocualr surface disease (phlyctenules, staph marginal keratitis, SPK, corneal neo (greatest inferiorly), and dry eye syndrome

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255
Q

What type of HS reaction is contact dermatitis

A

Type 4 HS reaction

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256
Q

What causes contact dermatitis

A

‣ Cosmetics: makeup, shampoo, soaps, hairspray, fingernail polish, perfumes, jewelry, poison ivy, CL solutions
‣ Medications: aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramicin), trifluridine, cycloplegic/mydriatics, glaucoma meds, preservatives

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257
Q

Symptoms of contact dermatitis

A

acute periorbital swelling redness, itching, tearing

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258
Q

Signs of contact dermatitis

A

unilateral or bilateral erythema and crusting of the lid and periorbital tissues and significant conjunctival chemosis.

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259
Q

Who gets ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

A

rare condition that affects females more than males. The average age of Dx is 65y; a significant number of these pateitns develop bilateral blindness an estimated 10-30 years after dx

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260
Q

Pathophysiology of ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

A

chronic AI idiopathic mucous membrane disorder that most commonly affects the oral and ocular mucous membranes (conjunctiva, mouth, esophagus, and less commonly the vagina and skin). Recent research suggests OCP is caused by a type II HS reaction involving auto Abs directed against the conjunctival BM. OCP can also be drug induced from timolol, epinephrine, and pilocarpine.

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261
Q

What type of HS reaction is ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

A

Type II HS

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262
Q

What is a common drug that can cause ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

A

Timolol

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263
Q

Symptoms of ocular cicatrial pemphigoid

A

sub-acute onset of nonspecific symptoms including redness, dryness, FB sensation, and/or decreased vision

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264
Q

Signs of ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

A

conjunctival fibrosis and scarring (seen as a fine white striate), bilateral symblepharon, ankyloblepharon, and stretched inferior fornices due to shortening of the conjunctival tissue.

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265
Q

Prognosis of ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

A

progression of the diseases results in the destruction of the goblet cells, meibomian glands, and the glands of krausse and wolfring, and the ducts of the main lacrimal gland, resulting in severe ocular surface disease. Additional late stage findings include entropion and trichiasis, with resulting corneal ulceration, neo, and keratinization

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266
Q

Pathophysiology of SJS

A

SJS is a severe progression of a type 3 or type 3 HS reaction that affects mucous membranes (typically oral and ocualr mucous membranes). It is most commonly drug induced (sulfonamide) or from an infectious agent

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267
Q

Acute signs and symptoms of SJS

A

systemic prodrome of fever, malaise, HA, nausea, vomitting. The prodrome is followed by the development of skin lesions ( diffuse erythema, classic target or bulls eye lesions, and papules on the palms of the hand and soles of the feet). Ocular lesions also occur in this phase and include
‣ Severe, bilateral, diffuse conjunctivitis associated with pseudomembranes
‣ Bacterial conjunctivitis can progress to endophthalmitis in severe cases

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268
Q

Chronic signs and symptoms of SJS

A

‣ Eyelid pathology: entropion, ectropion, trichiasis, meibomian gland damage
‣ Conjunctival pathology: symblepharon, foreshortening of the fornices, conjunctival keratinization, and limbal stem cell damage, which leads to subsequent corneal pathology
‣ Corneal pathology: ulcers, neo, scars, and in some cases, perforation

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269
Q
  • common condition in the elderly. It is characterized by redundant upper eyelid skin that results from a weakened orbital septum, often causing eyelid ptosis, pseudoptosis, and a loss of typical distinct eyelid creases.
  • Advanced cases may cause an apparent superior VF loss
A

Dermatochalasis

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270
Q

Two types of blepharitis

A

Staph and seborrheic

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271
Q

Symptoms of blepharitis

A

• Patients are often asymptomatic, but may report vision loss that clears after blinking, burning, itching, FB sensation, tearing, crusting (especially in the AM), and mild discharge.

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272
Q

Seborrheic bleph is assoacited with

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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273
Q

Seborrheic blepharitis

A

◦ Seborrheic blepharitis is assocaited with less lid inflammation, more oily, gresasy scales with flaking, and more eyelash loss (madarosis) and/or misdirected growth compared to staph blepharitis

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274
Q

Anterior and posterior lids are separated by

A

The gray line (muscle of riolan)

275
Q

Who gets chalazion

A

often have a history of similar recurrent lesions. Ask about acne rosacea and seborrheic dermatitis

276
Q

Pathophysiology of chalazion

A

chronic, localized, sterile inflammation of a meibomian gland due to retention of normal secretions. 25% of chalazion resolve spontaneously without treatment

277
Q

Signs and symptoms of chalazion

A

characterized by a hard, painless, immobile nodule without redness that is most commonly located on the upper eyelid. Patients are typically asymptomatic

278
Q

Recurrent chalazia

A

warrant an evaluation for possible malignancies (sebaceous gland carcinoma

279
Q

Difference between hordeolum and chalazion

A

◦ Both chalazia and internal hordeola affect the meibomian glands. Internal hordeola are caused by infection, and chalazia are caused by non-infectious inflammation

280
Q

Who gets hordeolum

A

often have a history of similar recurrent infections (similar to chalazia) that are successfully self treated. As with chalazia, ask about acne rosacea and seborrheic dermatitis

281
Q

Pathophysiology of hordeolum

A

An acute staph infection of the eyelid glands

282
Q

Internal hordeola

A

Meibomian glands

283
Q

External hordeolum

A

Affects the glands of zeiss and moll. Also known as a stye

284
Q

Signs and symptoms of hordoelum

A

Tender, red, warm area of focal swelling on the lid

285
Q

• benign lesions that develop from the epithelium of the epidermis and dermal tissues and are often associated with the meibomian, sebaceous, and sweat glands of the eyelids

A

Eyelid cysts
• Does not affect VA or cause pain, unless rupture of the cyst leads to an inflammatory reaction. The most common patient complaint is poor cosmesis

286
Q

Decreased vitamin A

A

Bitot spots

287
Q

Decreased B1

A

Thiamine

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

288
Q

a congenital or acquired lesion (secondary to trauma or surgery) found on the lid and surrounding adnexal tissue that often appears white due to the accumulation of kertinous debris

A

Inclusion cyst

289
Q

acquired lesion found on the lid and the surrounding adnexal tissue that may appear white and is due to occlusion of sweat pores or pilosebaceous follicles

A

Milia

290
Q

a congenital lesion that is firm and immobile and usually located on the superior temporal or superior nasal eyelid

A

Dermoid cyst

291
Q

characterized by retention of fluid int he glands of zeiss or retention of debris in the meibomian glands. They are usually solitary, smooth lesions that are yellow or opaque

A

Sebaceous cyst

292
Q

eversion of the Lid away from the globe of the eye. The most common cause is age related (involutional) loss of muscle tone of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Other causes include mechanical, cicatricial, paralytic, and congential.
• Signs/symptoms: exposure keratopathy, epiphora, brow ptosis

A

Ectropion

293
Q

inversion of the eyelid against the globe, causes include age related (involutional) (most common), cicatricial (trachoma), and congenital. Can result in pseudotrichiasis

A

Entropion

294
Q

eyelashes grow posteriorly from their site of origin

A

Trichiasis

295
Q

a second row of eyelashes arises from the meibomian gland openings

A

Distichiasis

296
Q

Signs of entropion

A

range from mild punctate keratitis to corneal ulceration and pannus (in chronic and severe cases)

297
Q

Blindness due to trachoma are due to

A

corneal ulceration secondary to entropion and trichiasis

298
Q

Who gets floppy eyelid syndrome

A

most common in obese men with obstructive sleep apnea

299
Q

Pathophysiology of floppy eyelid syndrome

A

associated with significant reduction in elastin within the tarsal plate; this occurs predominantly in face down sleeping and is thought to result from mechanical trauma to the tarsal plate from chronic lid to pillow contact
◦ During sleep, spontaneous lid eversion exposes the superior tarsal subconjunctival to the bedding, causing a papillary conjunctivitis due to friction
◦ Systemic disease associations include obstructive sleep apnea, diabetes melliutus, hyperthyroidism, and HTN

300
Q

Symptoms of floppy eyelid sybdrome

A

chronic, bilateral red eyes in the morning upon wakening, often with mild mucus discharge

301
Q

Signs of floppy eyelid sybdrome

A

chronic papillary conjunctivitis with loose upper eyelids that every easily; punctate epithelial keratopathy (50%) and keratoconnus are noteworthy corneal associations

302
Q

Ocular conditions that most often cause red eye in the AM

A

floppy eyelid syndrome, RCE, and exposure keratopathy

303
Q

Who gets BEB

A

most common in ages 50-70, with a mean age of onset of 56 years. Women are affected 2x more commonly than men

304
Q

Symptoms of BEB

A

involuntary, sustained, repetitive bilateral twitching and/or forceful closing of the eyelids that is less common during sleep

305
Q

Signs of BEB

A

spasm of the orbicularis oculi, procerus, and corrugator musculature

306
Q

Pathophysiology of BEB

A

most commonly idiopathic, although can be a result of corneal or conjunctival irritation. 78% of patients with BEB initially Jane random episodes of increased blinking that last seconds to minutes, with eventual progression to involuntary spasms with eyelid closure
◦ Over 50% of patients have an ocular surface disorder (most commonly dry eye) that may be exacerbating the spasms

307
Q

Meige’s syndrome

A

characterized by BEB AND lower facial abnormalities (difficulty chewing, and opening the mouth, jaw spasms, jaw pain, etc) appx 50% of patients with BEB have Meige’s syndrome

308
Q

Overview of BEB

A
Bilateral 
Idiopathic 
3 muscles involved 
-orbicularis 
-procerus 
-corrugator
309
Q

Myokimia

A
  • characterized by unilateral twitching (NOT eyelid closure) of the orbicularis oculi; does not affect the procerus or corrurgator muscles
  • Commonly caused by sleep deprivation, too much caffeine, or stress
310
Q

Overview of myokimia

A

One eye
One muscle (orbicularis)
Triggers

311
Q

List of malignant eyelid tumors from most deadly to least concerning

A

Melanoma
SGC
SCC
BCC

This is also the order from rarest to most common

312
Q

BCC epidemiology

A

the most common skin cancer in the US. Affects males more than females. BCC is the most common eyelid cancer, accounting for over 90% of all eyelid malignancies. It is asooiciated with fair skin and UV exposure, especially in the UV-B range. Patients often report a chronic lesion that occasionally bleeds and will not heal

313
Q

Pathophysiology of BCC

A

malignancy of the basal cell layer of the epidermis. Increases sun exposure in childhood and adolescent years is a critical risk factor for the development of BCC later in life
‣ BCC is minimally invasive; the incidence of metastasis is less than 0.1%

314
Q

Signs of BCC

A

varies in appearance. Most commonly presents as a shiny, firm pearly nodule with superficial telangiectasia. If not recognized and treated at an early stage, progression occurs and central ulceration develops (“rodent ulcer”). Most commonly located on the lower eyelid (50-66%) and the medial canthus

315
Q

Shortened version of BCC

A

Telangiectasia
Early pearly
Late=rodent ulcer

316
Q

Epidemiology of SCC

A

more common in males. SCC is the second most common eyelid cancer, but it is 40-50x less common than BCC

317
Q

Pathophysiology of SCC

A

malignancy of the stratus spinosum layer of the epidermis. Associated with UV exposure (especially in the UV-B range of 290-320nm), actinic keratosis, fair skin, prior radiation, burn scars, chemical exposure (smoking), and other forms of chronic irritation

318
Q

Main differnece between SCC and BCC

A

SCC has NO telangiectasia

319
Q

Most common precancerous skin lesions and is a precursor to SCC

A

Actinic keratosis
-It is an elevated, commonly pink or red, scaly lesion on sun exposed skin that does not heal. 25% of cases of actinic keratosis develop into squamous cell carcinoma

320
Q

Signs of SCC

A

variable presentation; often appears similar to BCC but WITHOUT surface telangiectasia. Classically described as an erythematous plaque that appears rough, scaly, and/or ulcerated, and may be flat or elevated. Most commonly located on the lower eyelid or lid margin

321
Q

What range of UV light causes malignant eyelid tumors

A

UV-B

322
Q

SCC and BCC

A

‣ SCC and BCC are both associated with chronic exposure to sun light; they can appear very similar, but SCC rarely contains surface vascularization

323
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

usually found in sun-exposed areas and has an early appearance (often a central plaque or ulcer) that is similar to BCCs and SCCs. Keratoacanthoma tumors grow very quickly to a large size (1-2 cm) before they slowly shrink and often sponataneously resolve

324
Q

Who gets SGC

A

rare, with a similar incidence to SCC. More common in elderly females. Patients may have a History of chronic unilateral blepharitis or recurrent chalazia

325
Q

Pathophysiology of SGC

A

neoplasm of the sebaceous glands of the eyelids (meibomian glands and glands of zeiss) that may be assocaited with prior radiation therapy. Sebaceous gland carcinoma has a poor prognosis; if the lid lesion is greater than 2cm, the mortality rate is 60%. If symptoms have been present longer than 6 months, the mortality rate is 38%. The overall mortality rate is 10%

326
Q

Signs of SGC

A

varies. The tumor is often hard and yellow. It is associated with madarosis, thickened and red lid margins (most common on the upper eyelid), and lymphadenopathy

327
Q

Epidemiology of malignant melanoma

A

rare (<1% of all eyelid malignancies) but most lethal primary skin cance r

328
Q

Pathophysiology of malignant melanoma malignancy of melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment within the skin. Risk factors include age, skin color, family Hx, repeated irritation, and sun exposure

A

malignancy of melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment within the skin. Risk factors include age, skin color, family Hx, repeated irritation, and sun exposure

329
Q

Signs of malignant melanoma

A
characteristics that increase suspicion for a malignant melanoma include the following: 
		‣ A: asymmetry 
		‣ B: border irregularity 
		‣ C: color differences (uneven)
		‣ D: large diameter 
		‣ E: elnalrgement of the lesion
330
Q

Most important prognostic factors for malignant melanoma

A

Depth of invasion and size of the lesion

331
Q

Who gets dacryoadenitis

A

more common in children and young adults. Ask if acute or chronic symptoms and if there is any history of a recent fever or systemic infection

332
Q

Pathophysiology of dacryoadenitis

A

inflammation of the lacrimal gland that can be acute or chronic in nature
‣ Acute infections: most commonly a result of an infection by bacteria (staphylococcus aureus, neisseria gonorrheae, streptococci) or viruses (mumps, mono, influenza, HSZ)
‣ Chronic infections: more common than acute infections. Results from inflammatory disroders including sarcoidosis, TB, graves, and idiopathic orbital inflammation; 25% of patients with idiopathic orbital inflammation will have lacrimal gland involvement

333
Q

Signs and symptoms of dacryoadenitis

A

swelling of the outer 1/3rd of the temporal upper eyelid region (near the lacrimal gland). Signs may vary in acute and chronic presentations
‣ Acute: classically presents with a S shaped ptosis, temporal upper eyelid pain, redness, and swelling, preauricular lymphadenopathy, an occasional fever, and an elevated WBC count
‣ Chronic: presents as temporal upper eyelid welling with less redness, swelling, and pain. May have inferonasal globe displacement

334
Q

Pathophysiology of canaliculitis

A

inflammation of the canaliculi that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. The most common culprit is actinomyces israelii (streptothrix), which is characterized by yellow sulfur granules after expression of the canaliculi
‣ Other culprits include staphylococcus aureus, Candida albicans, aspergillus, nocardia asteroides, HSV, HZV
‣ Canaliculitis May also occur after surgery, trauma, and secondary to neoplastic disorders

335
Q

Most common cause of canaliculitis (bacteria)

A

Actinomyces Israelis

336
Q

Symptoms of canaliculitis

A

smoldering, unilateral red eye that is often unresponsive to abx treatment; often misdiagnosed as recurrent conjunctivitis

337
Q

Signs of canaliculitis

A

tenderness over the nasal portion of the upper or lower eyelid, a swollen puncta (pouting puncta), dacryoliths, and mucopurulent discharge that occurs with palpation over the lacrimal sac region

338
Q

Epidemiology of dacryocystitis

A

ask about concomitant ear, nose, or throat infections

339
Q

Pathophysiology of dacryocystitis

A

lacrimal sac infection that occurs when the lacrimal drainage system is obstructed (NLDO) resulting in a back flow of bacteria from the nasolacrimal duct into the lacrimal sac
‣ Common causative agents include staph aureus, staph epidermidis, pseudomonas, and H. Influenzae in kids
‣ Characterized by swelling below the medial canthal tendon: note that swelling ABOVE the medial canthal tendon should raise suspicion for a lacrimal sac tumor

340
Q

Chronic cases of dacryocystitis

A

should raise suspicion for epithelial carcinomas and malignant lymphomas, unfortunate pathology that are often overlooked; carcinomas can express blood into tear film with palpation of the lacrimal sac

341
Q

Symptoms of dacryocystitis

A

pain, often with crusting and tearing, occasional fever

342
Q

Signs of dacryocystitis

A

prominent edema and tenderness over the lacrimal sac area

343
Q

Differnece between dacryocystitis and canaliculitis

A

Dacryocystitis has more swelling, tenderness, and pain

344
Q

Treating dacryocystitis

A

‣ DO NOT refer for surgery or attempt to irrigate the lacrimal system during an acute dacryocystitis infection. Treatment should be initiated first

345
Q

Punctal stenosis

A

◦ Acquired punctal stenosis is defined as a narrowing or occlusion of the puncta of the upper or lower eyelids. It is commonly associated with older age, where progressive narrowing and occlusion of the puncta occur

346
Q

Symptoms of punctal stenois

A

◦ The most common symptom is epiphora, although patients may also report nonspecific complaints of ocular irritation

347
Q

NLDO

A

Congenital or acquired, more common in females

348
Q

Older patients; NLDO

A

Involutional stenosis most commo ncause

349
Q

Young patients: NLDO

A

Most commonly caused by membranous blockage of the valve of hasner, occurs in 5-30% of newborns. Spontaneous opening occurs 1-2 months after birth. Gentle massage

350
Q

Symptoms of NLDO

A

unilateral tearing, discharge, crusting, and recurrent conjunctivitis

351
Q

Signs of NLDO

A

epiphora, mucus reflex from the puncta after compression of the lacrimal sac, medial lower eyelid erythema, and mild to no redness to tenderness around the puncta

352
Q

Secondary dacryocystitis in cases of congenital NLDO

A

‣ A secondary dacryocystitis is not uncommon in cases of congenital NLDO due to the stagnant tears in the lacrimal sac

353
Q

Tests to evaluate the ability of the tears to pass through the lacrimal drainage system

A

Jones I and II

354
Q

Jones I

A

Tests the patency of the system

  • NaFL in 5minues
  • positive=patent. Confirmed by the presence of NaFL in the back of the patient’s throat or by having them blow theirn nose and seeing NaFL on the tissue
355
Q

Jones II

A

Irrigation with saline following a negative jones I
◦ Reflex of fluid through the same punctum indicates an obstruction within the upper and lower canaliculus (proximal to the common canaliculus)
◦ Retrograde flow though the opposite canaliculus and punctum indicates nasolacrimal blockage (obstruction distal to the common canaliculus)
◦ If the patient tastes the saline, performs a gag reflex, or if the fluid is recovered from the nose, the obstruction has been cleared
◦ If the Jones II test fails to open the nasolacrimal drainage system, a DCR is the best treatment option

356
Q

A common benign, fluid filled (typically clear) sac on the conjunctiva that may cause irritation. Also referred to as an inclusion or retention cyst

A

Conjunctival cyst

357
Q

Superficial, white yellow deposits of mucous secretions and epithelial cells in the palpebral conjunctiva. Conjunctival concretions are also known as ocular lithiasis
◦ Patients are typically asymptomatic, but may experience a FB sensation

A

Conjunctival concretions

358
Q

Conjunctival nevus

A

◦ Rare benign proliferation of melanocytes that presents around puberty or early adulthood (within the first two decades of life). During puberty it is not uncommon for the size and darkness of the nevi to increase
◦ Conjunctival nevi are typically unilateral, solitary, flat, freely mobile, and are occasionally non-pigmented. Inclusion cysts within the lesion ar diagnostic for a conjunctival nevus
◦ The most common location for a conjunctival Venus is the juxtalimbal area, followed by the plica and caruncle

359
Q

PAM is a precursor for

A

Malignant malanoma of the conjunctiva

360
Q

PAM

A

◦ Unilateral acquired pigmentation with indistinct margins that is more common in elderly white patients
◦ The patches, which can be located anywhere on the conjunctiva, are usually flat with indistinct margins. Although PAM can be benign, it also has premalignant potential; 30% of cases progress to malignant melanoma. Nodular lesions with increase vascualrity and/or increased growth are suspect for possible malignancy. A biopsy is warranted to determine whether the lesion is malignant.

361
Q

Conjunctival melanoma

A

◦ Secondary to the uncontrolled proliferation of melanocytes. They are found almost exclusively in whites and usually develop around age 50
◦ Malignant melanomas of the conjunctiva can be pigmented or non pigmented and most commonly arse from PAM (50-75% of cases), less commonly from a pre-existing nevus (33% of cases), and rarely be novo
◦ The most important prognostic indicator for progression to malignancy is the thickness of the lesion. The most common site of metastasis is the liver.

362
Q

Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a precursor for

A

SSC

363
Q

CIN

A

◦ Although rare, CIN is the most common conjunctival neoplasia in the US. It is also known has Bowen’s disease or conjunctival squamous dysplasia
◦ CIN is a unilateral, premalignant condition that can progress to SSC (although the risk is low as the BM most often remains intact). Risk factors for development include UV-B exposure, smoking, exposure to petroleum derivatives, fair skin, xeroderma pigmentosa, HIV, and HPV.
◦ Presentation can vary, but the most common appearance is an elevated, gelatinous mass with neovascularization; appx 10% of cases exhibit leukoplakia (keratinization) 95% of cases are found at the limbus within the interpalpebral fissure. CIN can progress onto the cornea.
◦ Studies have suggested that toluidine blue 0.05% staining may be used as a diagnostic tool for benign vs malignant or premalignant lesions, although the PPV is only 41% and the NPV is 88%. It does not distinguish between premalignant and malignant conjunctival lesions.

364
Q

◦ A pedunculated, benign, red, vascular lesion of the palpebral conjunctiva that results from trauma, surgery, a chalazion, or other sources of chronic irritation.

A

Pyogenic granuloma

365
Q
Inflamed area (white, yellow, translucent, brown) located within the conjunctival stromal tissue that results from retained FB, surgery, trauma, infections, or associated systemic conditions
Patients may be asymptomatic or complain of ocular irritation and FB sensation
A

Conjunctival granuloma

366
Q

Simple bacterial conjunctivitis culprits

A
  • kids

- H influenza most common in kids, S epi and S aureus most common in adults

367
Q

Symptoms of simple bacterial conjunctivitis

A

acute onset of redness that usually begins in one eye and becomes bialteral. Additional symptoms include FB sensation and eyelid stuck together upon wakening. Symptoms typically subside in 10-14 days, even without treatment

368
Q

Signs of simple bacterial conjunctivitis

A

variable discharge (typically moderate to severe) that is often initially serous before becoming mucopurulent (most common) or purulent. Corneal signs and preauricular lymphadenopathy are rare.

369
Q

What is the most commonly isolated organism in simple bacterial conjunctivitis

A

S aureus

370
Q

Pathophysiology of gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common causative agent. The Thayer Martin agar (chocolate agar) is used for diagnosis. Gram stain for N. Gonorrhea will show gram negative intracellular diplococci

371
Q

Thayer martin (Chocolate agar)

A

Neisseria gonorrhea and Haemophilus influenzae

Hershey’s and Nestles CHOCOLATE

372
Q

Symptoms of gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

characterized by hyperacute onset of severe purulent discharge. Aspirational symptoms include redness, FB sensation, and eyelids that are stuck together upon awakening; condition usually begins in one eye and becomes bilateral over time

373
Q

Signs of gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

severe purulent discharge, conjunctival chemosis (often with pseudomembranes), a severe papillary reaction, marked preauricular lymphadenopathy, and tender, swollen eyelids. remember that N. gonorrhea can invade an intact corneal epithelium and may result in peripheral corneal ulceration in severe cases.

374
Q

Systemic complications and gonococcal conjunctivis

A
  • Men: purulent urethral discharge that occurs after 3-5 day incubation period
    * Women: discharge is less common; appx 50% of patients are asymptomatic
375
Q

All patients with a gonococcal conjunctivitis should be tested for

A

Chlamydia

376
Q

What kind of bacterial conjunctivitis causes preauricular lyhmpadenopathy and pseudomembranes

A

N gonorrhea

377
Q

Hallmark of adenoviral conjunctivitis

A

Follicles

378
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of adenoviral conjunctivitis

A

most adenoviral infections result from upper respiratory tract or mucosal infections. Appx 1/3 of serotypes are associated with ocular infections. Transmission occurs from direct contact (e.g. respiratory or ocular secretions, contaminated towels, equipment) and is highly contagious for 12-14 days. Classic adenovirus syndromes include acute nonspecific follicular conjunctivitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever (PCF), and epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC

379
Q

What are adenoviral syndromes assocaited with

A

follicles, pseudomembranes, and diffuse conjunctival hyperemia and will follow from a systemic viral infection

380
Q

Acute nonspecific follicular conjunctivitis

A

results from serotypes 1-11 and 19 and is the most common type of adenoviral infection
• Presents with a diffuse red eye, conjunctival follicles in the inferior fornices, tearing, and mild discomfort; corneal involvement is rare

No lymphadenopathy

381
Q

PCF

A

results from serotypes 3-5 and 7. It is also referred to as “swimming pool conjunctivitis.” PCF more commonly affects chidlren and is highly contagious
• Diagnosis of PCF is based on a triad of acute follicular conjunctivitis (occasionally hemorrhagic), mild, low grade fevere, and pharyngitis. Corneal involvement is not common

Fever, follicles, pharyngitis

382
Q

EKC

A

most serious form of adenoviral conjunctivitis and results from serotypes 8, 19, and 37. This condition is well known for pain and corneal involvement (80% of cases)
• Clinical symptoms classically occur 8 days after initial exposure to the virus. Superficial keratitis is common during the acute phase (1-2 weeks), while subepithelial infiltrates (SEIs) commonly occur after the 3rd week, after the active portion of the disease has subsided (patient no longer contagious)
• Preauricular lymphadenopathy is almost always present in EKC patients. They may also have pseudomembranes.

Lymphadenopathy, pain, corneal invovlemt

383
Q

Rules of 8 for EKC

A

caused by serotypes 8, symptoms occur 8 days after exposure, and SEIs occur 8 days after the onset of symptoms.

384
Q

Symptoms of adenoviral conjuncgitis

A

rapid onset of redness, tearing, mild discomfort, and preauricular lymphadenopathy. The condition typically starts in one eye before spreading to the other

385
Q

Signs of adenoviral conjunctivitis

A

acute follicular conjunctivitis (follicles are most common in the inferior fornices), marked conjunctival injection, pseudomembrane formation, preauricular lymphadenopathy (classic for EKC), and diffuse keratitis (particularly in EKC)

386
Q

What is virtually always pathognomonic for EKC

A

Palpable node in a patient with suspected adenoviral infections

387
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A
  • areas of poor hygiene
  • chronic infectious skin condition caused bu the DNA pox virus that is spread through direct contact. If multiple molluscum nodules RA present, consider HIV or other immunodeficiency conditions
  • characterized by single or multiple dome-shaped, umbilicated, waxy nodules located on the loud or lid margin. Patients are usually asymptomatic but may complain of a mild mucus discharge. Rupture of the molluscum nodules may lead to an associated chronic follicular conjunctivitis and superficial pannus.
388
Q

Viral conjunctivitis with unilateral follicular conjunctivitis with a watery discharge

A

Herpes simplex

389
Q

Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis is a _____ hypresentivity reaction

A

1

390
Q

Signs and symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis

A

conjunctival chemosis, papillae, itching, tearing, watery discharge

391
Q

VKC

A
  • very rare condition. Classically affects young males under the age of 10 that live in hot, dry climates. The condition occurs for 2-10 years before resolving around puberty
  • VKC occurs in patients predisposed with atopic systemic conditions; 40-75% of patients with VKC have eczema or asthma, and 40-60% of patients have a family history of atopy. Seasonal outbreaks during the warm months are common, although patients may have symptoms year round.
  • intense itching and photophobia (most common complaints), ptosis, thick mucus discharge. The initial outbreak is the most severe; symptoms decrease in intensity over time
  • the classic sign is bilateral prominent papillae, either on the limbus (horners trantas dots) or the upper palpebral conjunctiva (cobblestone papillae). Can also have corneal involvement that begins with punctate keratitis that eventually coalesces into larger erosions, leading to plaque formation and localized ulceration (shield ulcer)
392
Q

Classic signs of VKC

A

Cobble stone papillae
Shield ulcer
Horner trantas dots

393
Q

VKC signs are predominantly in the

A

Conjunctiva and cornea

The eyelid margin and skin of the outer eyelids is rarely affected

394
Q

AKC

A
  • no asthma, not seasonal, chronic eczema on face, rubbing lids=Dennie’s lines, small papillae inferiorly
  • atopic dermatitis
  • type 1 and 4 HS
  • bilateral itching of the eyelids (the main symptom). Other common associated symptoms include watery discharge, redness, photophobia, and pain
395
Q

Signs of AKC

A

‣ Prominent outer eyelid (scaly, thickened, swollen) and periorbital involvement, including Dennie’s lines (an extra crease under the lower lid due to periorbital edema), and “atopy shiners” (bags under the eyes from constant eye rubbing)
‣ Papillae are classically more prominent inferiorly (as compared to superior papillae in VKC and GPC), although signs may be very mild, causing the inferior conjunctival to appear featureless
‣ Corneal neo, cataracts, and keratoconnus common
‣ Symblepharon formation of the inferior fornices may occur in severe cases and mimic ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

396
Q

Atopic dermatitis

A

type of chronic eczema that starts in early infancy (within the first two years of life). 60% of patients are diagnosed within the first year of life. Hallmark signs include pruritis and a rash. An estimated 25-42% of patients with atopic dermatitis have ocular involvement. 10% of patients with severe AD develop a cataract between the ages of 15 and 30

397
Q

Toxicity to topica;l medication or CL solutions can easily result in an ______ that is characterized by _____

A

Allergic conjunctivis

Follicular reactions

398
Q

What conditions get follicles

A
CHAT
Chlamydia 
Herpes
Adenovirus 
Toxic (molluscum)
399
Q

Conditions that get papillae

A

pABillae

  • allergies
  • bacterial
  • non specific inflammation (friction)
400
Q

GPC

A

can results from silicone hydrogel CL, exposed sutures, glaucoma filtering blebs, scleral buckles, and ocular prosthetics. Environmental factors are the second most common cause of GPC (severe allergies). Although GPC can occur with any type of CL, it is most commonly associated with extended wear SCL.
‣ Obtain a detailed CL histroy (replacement schedule, cleaning system, recent switch to silicone hydrogel lens?). Risk factors for hydrogel lenses include extended wear, high watyer0ionic lenses, higher modulus of elasticity, and poor replacement compliance.
‣ The average length of time with soft lenses before development of GPC is 8 months, although it may develop as early as 3 weeks depending on the type of lens wearing schedule, etc,

401
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of GPC

A

Friction causing inflammation

402
Q

Symptoms of GPC

A

itching, scant mucus discharge (early), ropy mucus discharge (late), decreased Cl wearing time, photophobia. Symptoms are often more severe after removing CL

403
Q

Signs of GPC

A

mild to severe papillae of the upper (tarsal) conjunctiva and eyelid, ptosis, and mucous throughout the eye and/or on the CL
‣ GPC is characterized by papillae > 0.3mm in diameter. Giant papillae (>1mm) form when neighboring papillae break down septa’s and coalesce together after prolonged inflammation

404
Q

CL solutions hypersensitivity/toxicity

A

patients may have very subtle complaints and no signs to very obvious signs and symptom that most commonly occur after a recent switch to a new CL cleaning system. Severe reactions are most often in reasons to solutions containing chlorhexidine or thimerosol, although newer solutions may also cause reactions
• Symptoms: redness and burning upon CL insertion after cleaning, solution change weeks to months prior with chronic redness and discomfort, reduced CL wear time due to dryness or discomfort
• Signs: follicular conjunctivitis, diffuse conjunctival injection, and diffuse SPK

405
Q

If a previously asymptotic patients complains of increased dryness throughout the day, and no signs or symptoms of dryness are present without the CL,

A

Remember to ask about a recent change in CL solution

406
Q

Corneal neo and CL

A

results from chronic hypoxia; watch for superior pannus. According to the FDA, corneal neo larger than 1.5mm is abnormal and or course; stromal scarring and hemorrhage are uncommon but can occur

407
Q

Corneal warpage

A

alteration in corneal shape due to the CL material that is classically seen in long term PMMA wearers o GP wearers with poor fitting CL; in rare cases it can be seen with SCL
‣ Initially, patients often report that vision is clear in CL but blur in classes. They also note ghost images and diplopia
‣ Irregular astigmatism, which can mimic keratoconnus, is evident on topography. A high riding CL classically causes inferior steepening of the cornea over time.

408
Q

Corneal warpage vs keratoconnus

A

corneal warpage will not have other corneal findings consistent with keratoconnus and will improve with discontinuing/refitting of the CL

409
Q

SLK due to CL

A

CL hypersensitivity or a poor CL fit
‣ Signs include: superior bulbar and upper tarsal conjunctival injection. Papillae reaction and corneal filaments are uncommon, unlike SLK in thyroid disease

410
Q

Causes of SLK

A

CL
Thyroid
Dry eye

411
Q

Contact lens deposits

A

common in CL abusers who are not replacing lenses on schedule or who are not cleaning their lenses properly.
‣ If deposits are located on ONLY the back surface of the CL, the patient may be digitally cleaning the lenses incorrectly. Re-instruct the patient to use the finger and palm of the hand for digital cleaning
‣ A stronger cleaner or a weekly enzyme cleaner should be considered for diffuse deposits on GP contact lenses

412
Q

Deposits on HP will be ______ deposits on SCL will be ______

A

Plaques

Jelly bumps

413
Q

Tight lens syndrome

A

occurs when a CL is fitting too tight, resulting in poor movement with the blink (appears stuck on to the cornea)
‣ More common in high myopes (>-8D), CL that are fit too steep, or an abnormally small (<13mm) or large (>15mm) OAD. It is less commonly seen in hyperopes and aphakes
‣ symptoms: redness that worsens after the CL is removed, hazy vision, halos, dryness
‣ Signs: injection or indentation around the limbus and distorted keratometry mires that clear with blinking
• Severe cases may result in mild to severe corneal edema or corneal blebs and an AC reaction
• A corneal abrasion may occur when the CL is removed from the eye

414
Q

3 and 9 staining with CL

A

the most common implication associatd with GP CL wear
‣ Classically due to low riding GPCLs that do not adequately cover the cornea, resulting in poor spreading of the tears across he exposed corneaal surfaces
‣ Patients may be asymptomatic or complain of horizontal redness
‣ Chronic 3 and 9 staining may lead to dellen formation, pseudopterygia, and corneal vascularization

415
Q

Classic complication of a CLthat ride too high is ____ and too low ____

A

Corneal warpage

3 and 9 staining

416
Q

SEAL

A

characterized by an arcuate shape of superior corneal staining within 1mm of the limbus
‣ SEAL most often occurs secondary to tight extended wear hydrogel CL. Loose CL that chafe or contact lenses with poor wettability may also cause SEAL
‣ An estimated 30% of cases are symptomatic. Symptoms include FB sensation, irritation, and corneal subepithelial infiltrates

417
Q

Dimple veiling

A

characterized bu small depression within the cornea that pool NaFL. Caused by small gas bubbles that become trapped underneath a CL (most often GCL

418
Q

Chlamydia-adult inclusion conjunctivitis pathophysiolgoy

A

adult inclusion conjunctivitis is the ocular manifestation of urogenital disease and is caused by chlamydia serotypes D-K. It is most commonly spread via direct inoculation, although there have been reported cases of tranmission through contaminated swimming pool water or shared cosmetics; ocular manifestation begin appx 5-14 days after inoculation. 54% of men and 74% of women will have an active genital infection

419
Q

Symptoms of chlamydia conjunctivitis

A

acute follicular + papillary conjunctivitis that becomes chronic (this prompt patients to seek medical attention); most infections begin unilaterally, but bilateral involvement often develops. The infection can persist for 3-12 months if not treated

420
Q

Signs of chlamydia conjunctivitis

A

follicles (limbal or palpebral) AND papillae that are most concentrated in the inferior palpebral conjunctiva and fornices, preauricular lymphadenopathy, scant mucopurulent discharge, and matting of the lids. Corneal involvement occurs in 30-85% of patients and includes punctate keratitis, superior pannus, and subepithelial infiltrates (more peripheral in location compared to EKC)

421
Q

Leading cause of ophthalmia naonatorum in US

A

Chlamydia

422
Q

Trachoma epidemiology

A

most prevalent between the ages of 1 and 5. Trachoma is the leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide (3rd most common cause of blindness worldwide after cataract and glaucoma). The primary risk factor is living in a community with poor hygiene. Most infections spread directly from eye to eye, but fomites, flies, and shared cosmetics are other routes of transmission

423
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of trachoma

A

caused by chlamydia serotypes A-C. Presentation begins in early childhood with a follicular and papillary conjunctivitis of the superior tarsal conjunctiva that ultimately spreads throughout the entire conjunctiva. It is almost always bialteral

424
Q

Signs and symptoms of trachoma

A

‣ Early: follicular conjunctivitis predominantly on the superior tarsal conjunctiva, mucopurulent discharge, lymphadenopathy, and mild superior pannus
‣ Late: Artl’s Lines (white scarring of the superior tarsal conjunctiva) and Herbert’s Pits (depression on the limbal conjunctiva after resolution of limbal follicles); progressive tarsal conjunctival scarring can lead to distortion of the eyelids and subsequent corneal ulceration from trichiasis

425
Q

Things that cause preauricular lymphadenopathy

A
Gonorrhea 
Chlamydia
EKC
Parinauds 
Phthisis palpebrum
426
Q

SLK epidemiology

A

uncommon condition that most often affects females with a mean age dx of 50. History likely to include recurrent episodes

427
Q

Pathophysiology of SLK

A

chronic inflammatory reaction most commonly associated with keratoconjunctivitis sicca, thyroid disease, and CL wear. The exact etiology is unknown. SLK is characterized by flare ups and remissions that eventually cease over time

428
Q

Causes of SLK

A

‣ Keratoconjunctivitis sicca-drying effect between the upper eyelid and bulbar conjunctiva enhances friction and creates an environment where natural turnover and replacement of mature superior bulbar conjunction cells does not occur
‣ Thyroid disease-may results from continual friction of the superior palpebral conjunctiva against the superior bulbar conjunctiva as a result of tight apposition from exophthalmos
‣ CL wearers and those with tight upper eyelids also have increased friction and thus have an increased risk of SLK

429
Q

Symptoms of SLK

A

redness, FB sensation, frequent blinking, no discharge. Symptoms are often worse than the signs; in these cases, instillation of a vital dye (NaFL, rose bengal, lissmine) can reveal prominent staining and pathology that is otherwise difficult to visualize on clinical examination

430
Q

SLK is best seen with

A

Lissamine green

431
Q

Signs of SLK

A

characterized by thickened, red, superior bulbar conjunctiva that is most prominent at the limbus and is often bilateral, with adjacent SPK and inflamamtory keratitis. The upper tarsal conjunctiva can have a velvety appearance as a result of diffuse papillary hypertrophy

432
Q

Friction on the cornea leads to

A

Papillae and filaments

433
Q

Number one cause of phlyctenules

A

Staph

434
Q

Epidemiology of phlyctenules

A

most common in teenage years with a higher occurrence in females. Ask if the patient has had simialr eye infections in the past and whether he/she has a histroy of TB

435
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of phylectenules

A

most commonly a result of type 4 HS reaction to staphylococcus (blepharitis is the most common culprit), tubuerculoprotein, and acne rosacea

436
Q

Symptoms of phlyctenules

A

tearing, FB sensation, and itching associated with conjunctival and corneal phylctenulea; significant photophobia is common with corneal phlyctenules

437
Q

Signs of phlyctenules

A

phlyctenules can be located on the conjunctiva or cornea
‣ Conjunctival phlyctenules most commonly occur at the limbus and classically appear as pink, fleshy nodules with conjunctival injection
‣ Corneal phlyctenules most commonly occur near the limbus as a small, white (lymphocytic) nodule with adjacent conjunctival injection

438
Q

When should a PPD test be read

A

48-72 hours

439
Q

Ligneous conjucntiis

A

◦ Epidemiology/Hx: rare, starts during childhood
◦ Pathophysiology/Dx: ocualr manifestations of a systemic disorder; is associated with systemic plasminogen deficiency. May affect mucous membranes throughout the body
◦ Signs: thick, white, “woody” membranous plaques of the superior tarsal conjunctivitis
◦ Symptoms: chronic tearing, FB sensation, photophobia; constant discomfort and cosmetic concerns are typical in advanced disease

440
Q

Plasmin

A

derived from plasminogen) catalyze the breakdown of fibrin, which drops unwanted clot formation within healthy vessels throughout the body

441
Q

Parinaud’s oculoglandular syndrome

A

◦ Epidemiology/Hx: rare, ask about contact exposure to cats, dogs, rabbits, squirrels, and ticks
◦ Pathophysiology/Dx: common cause include the following
‣ Cat scratch fever (most common cause)-caused by bartonella henselae, which can be transmitted by a cat scratch to the eye or through cat flea bites to the eyes
‣ Tularemia-typically transmitted via ticks, rabbits, and squirrels
‣ TB and syphilis-other noteworthy causes
◦ Symptoms: red eye, FB sensation, mucopurulent discharge
◦ Signs: unilateral, granulomatous, follicular, palpebral conjunctivitis, visibly swollen preauricular/submandibular lymphadenopathy. May also have a fever and rash

Unilateral
Granulomatous
Swollen nodes

442
Q

Phthiriasis palpebrum

A

◦ Pathophysiology/Hx: results from phthisis pubis, know as the crab louse, found in the hair follicles of the genital area. Infection of the eyelashes, eyebrows, and facial hair may occur trough direct contact with infected individuals or infected clothing or linen. May be unilateral or bilateral
‣ Differs from demodicosis, a common parasitic mite hair follicle infectio nassociated with blepharitis that classically causes sleeving of the base of the eyelashes
◦ Symptoms: range from mild itching of the eyelids to marked inflammation with resultant burning, itching, tearing, and blurred vision
◦ Signs: transparent lice and white nits (egg sacs) attached to the eyelashes, blood tinged debris on lids and lashes, mild to severe chronic follicular conjunctivitis, and preauricular lymphadenopathy

443
Q

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

◦ Blood underneath the conjunctiva that typically results from valsalva, medications, hypertension, or a blood clotting disorder
◦ Remember to consider ordering a CBC, PT/PTT, and sickledex for idiopathic and recurrent cases, especially in patients of African or Mediterranean descent

444
Q

Pterygium/pingeucula

A

◦ Epidemiology/Hx: associated with environmental exposure and UV radiation; common in individuals who work outdoors
◦ Pathophysiology/Dx: UV exposure (leading cause) and chronic dryness are believed to cause degeneration of collagen fibrils within the conjunctival stroma
◦ Symptoms: range from asymptomatic to irritation, redness, and decreased vision (depending on the location of the pterygium)
◦ Signs: both conditions are typically located at 3 and 9 o’clock
‣ Pingueculum: yellow-white (typically raised) deposit adjacent to the limbus (but not on the cornea)
‣ Pterygium-triangular fibrovascular growth of bulbar conjunctiva that extends onto the cornea, destroying Bowman’s membrane and often leading to WTR astigmatism due to flattening of the horizontal meridian. Stocker’s line (iron deposits) can be present at the anterior (leading edge) of the pterygium

445
Q

Most common cause of pterygia/pingeula

A

UV radiation

446
Q

Pterygium affects what layer

A

Bowmans

447
Q

Sign of pterygium

A

Stockers line

448
Q

Epicleritis

A

• epidemiology/Hx: most common in young adults (2nd-4th decade). History of frequent recurrences (60-67%) is common
• pathophysiology/dx: benign, self limiting inflammation of the episclera; often idiopathic, but can be associated with systemic diseases, including the following
◦ Collagen vascular/inflammatory diseases-RA, ulcerative colitis, crohn’s disease, reactive arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis
◦ Spirochetes- syphillis, Lyme
◦ Viruses- herpes zoster, herpes simplex, mumps
◦ Metabolic diseases- temporal arteritis, Wegner’s granulomatosis, Behcet’s diseases, polyarteritis nodosa
◦ Dermatological diseases- acne rosacea
• Symptoms: acute unilateral red eye, occasional mild pain
• Signs: injection that is typically sectoral (70%). The condition can be simple (80%) or nodular (20%); the nodule can be moves slightly with a cotton tip applicator (unlike scleritis)

449
Q

What vessels are affected in episcleritis

A

ACA

450
Q

Types of scleritis

A

Necrotizing

Nonnecrotizing

451
Q

Necrotizing scleritis types

A
Inflammatory (worst kind)
Non inflammtory (scleromalacia perforans)
452
Q

Types of nonnecrotizing scleritis

A

Diffuse (#1) and nodular

453
Q

Who gets scleritis

A

female predilection (peak incidence in the 4th-6th decades). Scleritis is much less common than episcleritis. Anterior scleritis occurs in 98% of cases (2% of cases are posterior). Anterior scleritis can be divided into non-necrotizing and necrotizing scleritis

454
Q

Diffuse scleritis

A

Non necrotizing scleritis
60%): most common type of anterior scleritis and the most benign form of the disease; associated with the least severe systemic conditions. Characterized by diffuse hyperemia.

455
Q

Nodular scleritis

A

Non necrotizing

25%): characterized by a deep, focal, painful, injected immobile nodule

456
Q

Necrotizing scleritis with inflammation

A

5%): the worst form of scleritis, as 33% of patients may die within a few years as a result of severe AI disease. 40-82% of patients will lose vision; 60% have ocular or systemic complications, including anterior uveitis, scleroising keratitis, peripheral corneal melt, scleral thinning, cataracts, and secondary glaucoma

457
Q

Necrotizing scleritis without inflammation

A

scleromalacia perforans) (10%): typically a result of chronic RA. The condition is characterized by almost complete lack of symptoms and minimal injection; asymptomatic, large, gray-blue patches of scleral thinning (due to exposure of the underlying uvea) my be seen

458
Q

What type of scleritis is assocaited with the most severe ocular signs

A

Necrotizing scleritis

peripheral cornel melt, sclerosing keratitis, scleral thinning, anterior uveitis, cataracts, and secondary glaucoma

459
Q

Pathophysiology of scleritis

A

granulomatous inflammation of the sclera in which 50% of cases are assocaited with an underlying systemic disease; 30% of the cases that result from systemic disease are caused by collagen vascular disease; RA is the most common, followed by Wegner’s granulomatosis.

460
Q

Symptoms of scleritis

A

severe, boring ocular pain (hallmark for scleritis) that can radiate to the ipsilateral forehead, brow, or jaw and awaken the patient during the night. Additional symptoms include a gradual onset of redness and a decrease in vision (except for scleromalacia perforans!)

461
Q

Signs of scleritis

A

sectoral or diffuse inflammation of the large, deep vessels that cannot be moved with a cordon swab. Edematous or thin sclera with a classic bluish hue under natural light. Signs are frequently bilateral (compared to unilateral signs of episcleritis)

462
Q

Hyaline plaques

A

benign, oval shaped areas of scleral thinning that occur with age and allow underlying visibility of the uvea

463
Q

What is associatd with scleromalacia peroforans

A

RA

464
Q

Things that can cause severe pain in the eye

A

Corneal pathology
Antererio uveitis
Scleritis
Angle closure

465
Q

Episcleritis vs scleritis

A

◦ Scleritis is typically gradual in onset, unlike the acute nature of episcleritis, but results in more significant ocular pain and more severe ocular complications
◦ Scleritis often has a characteristic bluish hue under natural light (due to scleral thinning), as compares to the red appearance of episcleritis
◦ 2.5% phenylephrine will result in conjunctival blanching in a patient with episcleritis. It will NOT blanch the deep episcleral vessels (scleritis will remain injected.
◦ Scleritis findings are frequently bilateral and diffuse injection is more common; episcleritis signs are typically unilateral and sectoral injection is more common
◦ Scleritis is much less common than episcleritis and is more commonly associated with an underlying systemic disease

466
Q

a congenital anomaly characterized by a focal, pigmented, elevated area where the posterior ciliary nerve loops are visible in the sclera; can be painful

A

Axenfelds Nerve loop

467
Q

Epidemiology of anterior uveitis

A

affects 15/100,000 per year; there are 45,000 new cases per year in the US. Anterior uveitis frequently occurs in young adults (peak incidence in the second-fourth decade of life); it rarely locusts in individuals older than 70 (common causes in this age group are toxoplasmosis and herpes zoster)

468
Q

Blood aqueous barrier

A

Schlemms
Iris vessels
NPCE

469
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of anteiror uveitis

A

uveitis occurs secondary to breakdown in the blood aqueous barrier. 50% of patients with acute anterior uveitis are HLA-B27 positive (70% if the condition recurs). 50% of new onset acute anteiror uveitis cases have an associated spondyloarthropathy; 80% of these patients have anylosing spondylitis

470
Q

HLA-B27 conditions

A

UCRAP

Ulcerative Colitis, Crohn’s disease, Reactive arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Psoriatic arthritis

471
Q

Terminology for anterior uveitis

A

acute, chronic, or recurrent, and classified by cell type (granulomatous vs non), location (anteiror, intermediate, posterior, pan), and laterality
◦ 75% of uveitis cases are anterior (iritis, iridocyclitis), 8% are intermediate (pars planitis), and 17% of cases are posterior or panuveitis

472
Q

Acute anteiror uveitis definition

A

self limiting disease of less than 3 months duration; it may b characterized by recurrent attacks. Chronic uveitis persists for more than 3 months; it may have periods of exacerbation, but nerve fully resolves

473
Q

Symptoms of anterior uveitis

A

pain, redness, photophobia, lacrimation, and mildly decreased vision (especially with CME). Patients with chronic anterior uveitis may be asymptomatic or report blurred vision or a dull ache

474
Q

What is the pain from in anteiror uveitits

A

congestion and irritation of the anterior ciliary nerves

475
Q

Grnaulomatous antieror uveitis causes

A

Sarcoidosis

TB

476
Q

Nongranulmatous causes of anteiror uveitis

A

Idiopathic (70%)

UCRAP (30%)

477
Q

Signs of anterior uveitis

A

diagnosed based on the presence or absence of white blood cells in the anterior chamber (or elsewhere for other locations of uveitis)
◦ Main threats to vision include posterior synechiae (PS), peripheral anterior synechiae (PAS), CME, and cataract formation (most commonly PSC and assocaited with chronic cases)
◦ Other prominent anterior segment signs include flare, hypopyon, circumlimbal injection of the conjunctival vessels, decreased IOP in the involved eye (in early stages), and keratic precipitates (collection of white blood cells) on the endothelium
‣ Note that although IOP is decreasing during the early stages of uveitis due to ciliary body inflammation, IOP may also be elevated in the later stages from a variety of factors (e.g. the eye getting better, trabeculitis, PS (Leading to acute angle closure), PAS (leading to chroninc angle closure), significant inflammation, topical steroid use, chronic TM damage)
◦ Fine KPs are characteristic of non granulomatous etiology
◦ A granulomatous etiology, in comparison to non granulomatous, is more commonly infectious (TB, syphilis) and chronic in course with an increased predilection for the posterior chamber. Mutton Fat KPs and iris stromal nodules (Koeppe, Bussaca) are highly suggestive of a granulomatous etiol

478
Q

Cyclitic membranes and uveitis

A

• Cyclitic membranes may be present in chronic uveitis; they are fibrovascular membranes that extend from ciliary body into the posterior chamber and may involve the lens

479
Q

Types of KPs

A
Mutton fat
-granulomatous 
Fine 
-nongranulomatous (UCRAP)
Stellate 
-herpes and fuches
480
Q

Koeppe nodules

A

Collection of WBC located on pupillary margin

Granulomatous and non granuloamtous

481
Q

BUsacca nodules

A

WBC on any part of the iris stroma expect the pupillary margin

482
Q

Most common corneal findgin of antieror uveitis

A

KPs

483
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease

A

usually bilateral with a posterior uveitis component. Characterize by chronic intermittent diarrhea with alternating episodes of constipation. Uveitis is rare in Crohn’s disease, but is more common with ulcerative colitis

Acute non granulomatous anterior uveitits

484
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

young makes with urethritis, polayarthritis, and conjunctivitis

Acute anterior non granulomatous uveitiis

485
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

more commonly affects males in the 3rd decade. Characterized by lower back pain; symptoms improve with exercise

Acute, anterior non granulomatous uveitis

486
Q

Psoriatic arthritis

A

characterized by asymmetric, peripheral, small joint pain and psoriatic lesions on the knees, elbows and scalp

Acute antieror non gran uveitis

487
Q

Behçet’s disease

A

most common in young males of middle eastern and Asian descent. Characterized by acute, recurrent hypopyon iritis and mouth and genital ulcers. May also be assocaited with retinal vasculitis, cataracts and glaucoma

Acute anteiror nongran uveitis

488
Q

Lyme disease

A

patients may have a history of tick bites, a skin rash, and/or arthritis. Note that Lyme disease may be assoacited with non-granulomatous or granulomatous uveitis

489
Q

Glaucomatocyclitic crisis

A

Posner-Schlossman syndrome. Unilateral condition characterized by mild iritis with recurrent, self limiting episodes of elevated IOP (30-40) secondary to trabeculitis, fine KPs, and open angle.

rare to mild cells in the AC, normal corneal sensitivity, absence of a vesicular rash, normal angle anatomy (no NVA or PAS)

Unilateral iritis, increased IOP, trabeculitis

490
Q

3 major conditions that will present with unilateral cells in the AC with acutely elevated IOP (30-50mmHg)

A

poster-schlossman syndrome
HSV or HZV trabeculitis
Fuch’s heterochromic idirocyltiis

491
Q

HSV or HZV trabeculitis

A

reduced corneal sensitivity, concurrent corneal edema, concurrent dendrite or psuedodendrite, vesicular rash along dermatome that respects vertical midline

Unilateral cells in the AC with acuity elevated IOP

492
Q

Fuch’s heterocyclic iridocyclitis

A

Unilateral cells in the AC with acute elevated IOP
rare to mild cells in the AC, normal corneal sensitivity, NVA is often present on gonio, significant iris atrophy and cataracts.

493
Q

Chronic granulomatous anterior uvetiis mate be assocaited with the following conditions

A

Sarcoidosis
TB
HSV/HZV
Syphilis

494
Q

Sarcoidosis and anteiror uveitis

A

Chronic, granulomatous
-more common in females and AA. Uveitis is typically bilateral and may be posterior or panuveitis. Patients typically have an abnormal chest radiograph and increased ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) levels.

495
Q

TB and anteiror uveitis

A

Chronic granulomatous

positive PPD test, abnormal chest X ray, night sweats. May have posterior or panuveitis.

496
Q

Number one symptom or TB

A

Night sweats

497
Q

HZV and HSV uveitits

A

Chronic granulomatous OR nongranu

associated with increased IOP in the involved eye. May have stellate KPs, corneal edema, and/or epithelial defects. Zoster will present with vesicles along the affected dermatome

498
Q

Syphilis and uveitis

A

Chronic and can be gran or non gran

may have an associated interstitial keratitis. Characterized by a maculopapular rash (on the palms and soles), a positive VDRL or RPR, and a positive FTA-ABS or MHA-TP
‣ Interstitial keratitis is a stromal inflammation without primary involvement of the epithelium or endothelium.
• IK is characterized by acute stromal inflammatory edema and neo. Progression results in diffuse stromal neo that often spares the line of sight
• During the late stages of IK, stroma vessels may partially clear, leading to ghost vessels, corneal scarring, and irregular astigmatism.

499
Q

stromal inflammation without primary involvement of the epithelium or endothelium.

A

Interstitial keratitis
• IK is characterized by acute stromal inflammatory edema and neo. Progression results in diffuse stromal neo that often spares the line of sight
• During the late stages of IK, stroma vessels may partially clear, leading to ghost vessels, corneal scarring, and irregular astigmatism.

500
Q

The most common cause of IK

A

Congenital syphilis

501
Q

Acquired syphilis and IK

A

Not common

502
Q

Congenital syphilis triad

A

Hutchinson’s teeth (small widely spaced teeth), deafness, and interstitial keratitis. Additional signs of congenital syphilis include saddle-nose deformity and frontal bossing (prominent forehead)

503
Q

Chronic non gran anterior uveitis

A

JIA

Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis

504
Q

JIA and anteiror uvetiits

A

Chronic non gran
most common known caused of uveitis in chidlren. Classic presentation is a bialteral uveitis in young girls. Patients typically have a negative RF and positive ANA

505
Q

Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis and antieror uveitis

A

Chronic non gran
more common in patients with blue eyes. Characterized by a unilateral mild uveitis with fine, stellate KPs, angle neo, and iris heterochromia. Assocaited with glaucoma (15%) and cataracts (70%); patients are often asymptomatic

506
Q

a chronic intermediate uveitis characterized by inflammation over the pars plana (known as snowbanking) and peripheral retina; it is NOT associated with systemic conditions

A

Pars planitis

507
Q

Risk factors for corneal infectious keratitis

A

CL wear, dry eye, exposure keratopathy, neurotrophic keratopathy, trauma, lid abnormalities, and bullous keratopathy

508
Q

Epidemiology of bacterial keratitis

A

bacterial keratitis is the most common etiology for infectious keratitis. Cl wear, especially extended wear, is a commmon predisposing factor for bacterial keratitis. Consider bacterial etiolgoy first with any corneal infection associated with Cl wear
‣ The most common microbes invovled are pseudomonas aeruginosa, stap epi, staph aureus, haemophilus influenzae, and moraxella catarrhalis

509
Q

Pseudomonas and keratitis

A

Pseudomonas is the most common gram negative pathogen found in severe bacterial keratitis. It is characterized by significant thick mucopurulent discharge (often green in color), hypopyon, and dense stromal infiltrates, and rapid progression )can perforate the cornea within 48 hours)

510
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of bacterial keratitis

A

remember that most bacterial rewuire an epithelial defect for invasion and subsequent infectious corneal ulceration. Noteworthy bacterial that can invade an intact corneal epithelium
‣ “Canadian national hockey league”-Crynebacterium, Neisseria gonorrhea and meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Listeria

511
Q

Bacterial that can invade an intact corneal epithelium

A

Canadian national hockey league”-Crynebacterium, Neisseria gonorrhea and meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Listeria

512
Q

Symptoms of bacterial keratitis

A

severe pain, rede eye, photophobia, and decreased vision

513
Q

Signs of bacterial keratitis

A

a corneal stromal infiltrate with and overlying epithelial defect (infectious corneal ulcer

514
Q

Corneal infiltrate

A

sign of your body’s immune system attacking an antigen via Ab. An infiltrate without an overlying epithelial defect is an immune mediated repsosne and is NOT a sign of infection

515
Q

Corneal ulcer

A

corneal infiltrate with an overlying epithelial defect. Cornal ulcers may be infectious or non infectious. A non infectious (sterile) corneal ulcer may result from a sterile infiltrate that erodes through the corneal epithelium, leading to a small overlying epithelial defect

516
Q

Infectious corneal ulcers

A

NaFL staining are to lesion ratio of 1:1. They classically present with moderated to severe pai nwith a mild anterior chamber reaction and diffuse conjunctival injection

517
Q

Sterile corneal ucler

A

NaFL staining area to lesion ratio of less than 1:1 with less pain and injection compared to an infectious corneal ulcer. (Staph marginal keratitis)

518
Q

Sterile infiltrate

A

NOT stain with NaFL (there is no overlying epithelial defect); they commonly present as multipl leasions with mild pain, sectoral conjunctival injection, and no anteiror chamber reaction

519
Q

Epidemiology of fungal keratitis

A

the most common type of corneal ulcer after traumatic corneal injury, especially from vegetable matter.

520
Q

Pathophysiology of fungal keratitis

A

‣ 1. Candida infections often occur in eyes with chronic corneal disease or in immunocompromised patients
‣ 2. Aspergillus and Fusarium species are more commonly the culprit after vegetable matter trauma
‣ Culture of fungi should be performed on a Sabaroaud’s agar

521
Q

What kind of culture is used for a fungal infection

A

Sabarouds agar

522
Q

When is candid harmful

A

Immunocompromised

523
Q

Signs of fungal keratitis

A

‣ 1. Aspergillus/Fusraium: classically prestn as an epithelial defect with an underlying gray white corneal infiltrate with feathery edges and possible surrounding satellite infiltrates
‣ 2. Candida classically presents with a similar appearance as a bacterial corneal ulcer
‣ Additional signs include an aC reaction and hypopyon

524
Q

Epidemiology of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

rare parasitic infection associated with inadequate CL hygiene

525
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

acanthamoeba is one of the most common Protozoa found in soil and is also frequently found in water and within the oral cavity of humans. Compromise of the corneal epithelium allows acanthamoeba to invade the corneal epithelium and stromal tissues. Infections progresses slowly and are often misdiagnosed early in management. Culture should be performed with a non nutrient agar with heat killed E. coli.

526
Q

Signs of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

‣ Early=punctate or pseudoendritic epithelial defects (may be confuse with HSV) associated with severe pain out of proportion to the signs
‣ Late=radial keratoneuritis(inflammation of the corneal nerves) and patchy anterior stromal infiltrates that progress to ring ulcer

527
Q

Gram stain

A

Bacterial

528
Q

KOH or Giemsa

A

Fungi and yeasts

529
Q

Sabarouds

A

Fungi

530
Q

Chocolate agar

A

Haemophilus and N gonorrhea

531
Q

Thioglycate

A

Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

532
Q

Non nuretient agar with E. coli

A

Acanthamoeba

533
Q

Epidemiology of HSV

A

DNA virus that is mot common in young patients. Ask about previous history of cold sores

534
Q

Primary exposure of herpes simplex

A

occurs in young kids age 6m to 5 years. Patients are mot commonly asymptomatic but they may experience mild virus-type symptoms

535
Q

Recurrent HSV infections

A

resutls from reactivation of a latent infection in the trigeminal ganglion. Can be triggered by physical or emotional stress from sun exposure, fever, and immunosuppression

536
Q

Pathophysiology of HSV

A

tissue damage in HSV occurs either by direct invasion from the virus, neurotrophic mechanisms, or by immune system repsosne to HSV

537
Q

Symptoms of HSV keratitis

A

decreased corneal sensitivity is common in these patient

538
Q

Primary exposure of HSV reuslts in

A

‣ 1. Blepharitis-focal vesicular lesions with crusting located not he eyelids and periorbital area (usually UL if dendrite is present)
‣ 2. Conjunctivitis-acute unilateral follicular conjunctivitis with watery discharge and preauricular lymphadenopathy

539
Q

Recurrent HSV infections reuslts in

A

Epithelial disease
Neurotrophic keratitis
Stromal disease
Endotheliitis

540
Q

Epithelial disease from HSV

A

• Includes corneal vesicles, dendritic ulcers, geographic ulcers, and marginal uclers. Due to direct invasion of the corneal epithelial cells by HSV
◦ Corneal vesicles-small epithelial lesions often referred to as punctate epithelial keratopathy. Represent the earliest epithelial sign of reactive HSV
◦ Dendritic ulcers-most common presentation of HSV keratitis. The edges of the HSV dendrite (active viral cells) stain well with rose bengal; the center of the ulceration stains well with NaFL
◦ Geographic ulcers: similar to a dendritic ucler but wider in appearance; assocaited with previous use of topical steroids
◦ Marginal ulcers: located close to the limbus; presents as a stromal infiltrate with an overlying epithelial defect and assocaited limbal injection

541
Q

Neurotrophic keratitis from HSV

A

• Reuslts from reduced corneal innervation (V1) and decreased tear secretion, leading to poor wound healing (big ulcer, no pain)
◦ Occurs in patients who have had infectious epithelial keratitis; unique because etiolgoy is not immune mediated or infectious
◦ A neurotrophic ucler appears as an oval defect with smooth borders, it is often preceded by punctate epithelial erosions that then progress to form an ulcer

542
Q

Appearance of neurotrophic keratitis

A

Neurotrophic ulcers are typically inferior in location and oval in appearance with smooth borders, geographic ulcers result in irregular epithelial defects with scalloped borders

543
Q

Stromal disease (interstitial K) from HSV

A

Accounts for only 2% of initial epidoses of ocular HSV disease but 20-40% of recurrent ocular HSV disease. There are several types of stromal disease in HSV keratitis
◦ Interstitial keratitis (IK)-characterized by an infiltrate with diffuse neo, an immune rings (Wesley ring), stromal thinning, and subsequent scarring
‣ In herpetic disease, IK is thought to result from an Ag-Ab complement cascade against a live virus or viral antigen retained within the corneal stroma
‣ By definition, IK I stromal inflammation without primary injury to the epithelium or endothelium
◦ Necrotizing stromal keratitis-rare keratitis that results from direct virus invasion into the stroma. Results in severe stromal inflammation with necrosis that can lead to corneal thinning and perforation

544
Q

Why is HSV interstitial keratitis concerning

A

it may lead to significant stromal scarring and decreased acuity

545
Q

Endotheliitis from HSV

A

Secondary stromal edema due to an immune reaction against a viral antigen or live circus within the corneal endothelium
◦ Disciform endotheliitis-most common form of endotheliitis. Characterized by focal, disc shaped, sotrmal edema overlying KPs. Often accompanied by a mild to moderate iritis.

546
Q

Differnece between IK and endotheliitis

A

stromal infiltrates and neo are not present in disciform endotheliitis

547
Q

Additional findings in HSV K

A

Acute unilateral anterior granulomatous uveitis

Trabeculitis (unilateral mild to no cells in the AC with acutely elevated IOP and often concurrent corneal edema

Acute retinal necrosis

548
Q

Epidemiology of HZV

A

varicella zoster virus (VZV) is the initial invading organism, affecting 95% of children by the age of5 in the US. After the primary infection (chickenpox), VZV is transported to the trigeminal ganglia and other neural cell bodies, where it becomes dormant. Older age, trauma, neurodegeneration, or immunosupression may contribute to reactivation of the virus and resulting herpes zoster infection

549
Q

Who gets HZV most

A

‣ HZV primarily affects the elderly and is rarei n kids to young patients. If HZV occurs in patients younger than 50, consider a medical eval to determine if the patient is immunocompromised. HZV is contagious for those who have not had chickenpox

550
Q

Signs of HZV

A

vary depending on invovlemt of the cornea. Symptoms are more severe in immunocompromised patients. HZV is unilateral and follows the affected dermatomes

551
Q

Pre zoster

A

cluster of warning signs known as prodrome

552
Q

Active zoster

A

vesicular rash that respects the dermatomes and does not cross the midline. Vesicles can form on the lid margin, resulting in blepharoconjunctivitis

553
Q

HZO

A

◦ Activation along the ophthalmic branch of the trigminal ganglion leads to ophthalmic manifestations and is referred to as herpes zoster ophthalmicus

554
Q

Eyelid signs of HZO

A
  • Trichiasis
    * Ectropion
    * Entropion
    * Madarosis
    * Poliosis
555
Q

Corneal signs of HZO

A
occur in 65% of patients with acute HZO and include 
	• Punctate epithelial keratitis 	• Pseudodendritis keratitis 
	• Anterior stromal keratitis
	•  Interstial keratitis 
	• Endotheliitis 
	• Keratouveitis 
	• Neurotrophic keratitis 
	• Exposure keratopathy
556
Q

How does HZV start on the cornea

A

begins with small, stellate lesions that can progress to pseudodenrites (tapered ends with no terminal bulbs) with a “stuck on” appearance. The entire lesion stains with rose bengal (compared to just the edges in HSV) HZV lesions DO NOT stain well with NaFL (unlike HSV)

557
Q

Other eye findgins in HZO

A

‣ Episcleritis/scleritis
‣ Uveitis occurs in up to 40% of patients with acute HZO
• Can be granulomatous or non and typically assocaited with significant KPs, corneal edema, and PS
‣ Trabeculitis (acutely elevated IOP with minimal to no cells in the AC and likely corneal edema)
‣ Cataracts
‣ Acute retinal necrosis
‣ Optic neuritis
‣ Cranial nerve palsies

558
Q

Hutchinson’s sign

A

• Hutchinson’s sign is a rash on the tip of the nose as a result of reactivation of the virus along the terminal branch of the nasocilairy nerve (V1). It indicates a high risk of ocualr involvement

559
Q

Post zoster

A

characterized by PHN and depression
‣ PHN-defined as pain persisting beyond 1 month after rays onset or rays resolution. Most common complication of herpes zoster and affects 10-30% of patients
‣ Severe PHN affects about 7% of patients. The leading cause of suicide in patients over 70 years of age with chronic pain

560
Q

Epidmiolgoy of mooren’s ucler

A

rare condition that is more common in men and older patients (40-70, although may occur at all ages). The classification of mooren’s ulcer
‣ 1. Benign (typical or limited) mooren’s ucler (75%)-unilateral, affects the elderly, mild to moderate symptoms, responds well to treatment
- 2. Malignant (atypical) Mooren’s ulcer-bilateral, affects younger patients (especially black males), severe symptoms, responds poorly to treatment, and progresses relentlessly

561
Q

Pathophysiology of mooren’s ulcer

A

painful, progressive, chronic vasculitis of the limbal blood vessels that leads to ischemic necrosis and peripheral ulcerative keratitis
‣ Mooren’s ulcer is idiopathic in nature, but is likely autoimmune mediation. By definition, the condition occurs idendpent of any diagnosable systemic disorder that could be responsible for the progressive corneal pathology
‣ Associatd with systemic hepatitis C viral infection or hookworm infestation

562
Q

Symptoms of mooren’s ulcer

A

the most common symptoms is pain, which is often severe. Additional symptoms include redness, tearing, and photophobia. Decreased vision can result from irregular astigmatism, associated iritis, or if the ucler is central in location

563
Q

Signs of mooren’s ucler

A

the classic presentation is an unilateral peripheral crescent shaped gray infiltrate in an older patients that progresses to an ulcer. The ulcer is concentric to the limbus and has a unique overhanging edge. The ulceration may be self limiting Ir may spread circumferentially and/or centrally in the late stages of the condition

564
Q

Epidemiology of staph marginal keratitis

A

Most common PUK

common condition. Ask about a similar recurrent acute episode

565
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of staph marginal keratitis

A

type III HS response to staph aureus; typically occurs in patients with chonric staph blepharitis. Recurrences are common unless the underlying blepharitis is treated appropriately

566
Q

Symptoms of staph marginal keratitis

A

patients may be asymptomatic or complain of acute photophobia, pain, tearing, redness, and decreased visio

567
Q

Signs of staph marginal keratiits

A

corneal stromal infiltrates (usually multiple and bilateral) located in the periphery; classically occur at 2, 4, 8, and 10 o’clock positions where the lid margin makes contact with the limbus. Look for assoacited phlyctenules, signs of bleph, and/or acne rosacea. Residual thinning, superficial neo, and peripheral scarring are common

568
Q

What is a corneal infiltrate

A

infiltrate is a sign of your patients immune system attacking the staph antigens via antibodies. In isolation, it is an immune mediated repsosne and not a sign of an infectio

569
Q

Collagen vascular disorders (PUK)

A

◦ Recall that collagen vascular disorders such as RA, SLE, polyartertiis nodosa, and Wegner’s granulomatosis can cause peripheral corneal thinning and/or uclers
◦ Patients can be asymptomatic or may report significant pain, redness, and decrease in vision
◦ Corneal findings include peripheral corneal thinning/uclers with or without inflammation. The condition may be unilateral or bilateral. The uclers may progress to encompass the entire peripheral cornea. Corneal findings may be associated with scleritis, episcleritis, and keratoconjunctivitis sicca

570
Q

Appearance of corneal deposits

A

may be pigmented, refractile, metallic, or non pigmented in color. They can occur within any layer of the cornea, from the surface epithelium to Descemets membrane

571
Q

Whork K causes

A

seen in Fabry’s disease and with the use of chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine, amidoarone, indomethacin, tamoxifen

572
Q

Fleischers ring cause

A

iron ring in the base of the cone in keratoconnus

573
Q

Rust ring causes

A

Metallic FB

574
Q

Hudson Stahli line

A

common in the elderly, iron deposits found at the junction between the middle and lower third of the cornea

575
Q

Stocker’s lines

A

iron deposits on the leading edge of a filtering bleb

576
Q

Kaiser Fleischer ring cause

A

accumulation of copper that occurs in patients with certain liver disorders, Wilson’s disease

577
Q

Band keratophy cause

A

calcium deposits within Bowmans layer

578
Q

Types of corneal degenerations

A
Terriens marginal degeneration 
Salzmanns nodular degeneration 
White limbal girdle of Vogt 
Band keratopathy 
Arcus senilis 
Crocodile shagreen 
Corneal farinata
579
Q

Terriens marginal degeneration

A
Superior nasal thinning
ATR
Bilateral
30 yo male 
idiopathic non-inflammtory degeneration that reuslts in slowly progressive peripheral stromal thinning. Perforation occurs in appx 15% of cases
580
Q

Symptoms of terriens

A

often asymptomatic, although progressing can lead to irregular astigmatism (classically ATR) and decreased acuity

581
Q

Signs of terriens

A

characterized by superonasal, bilateral (asymmetric), slowly progressive peripheral thinning with an associated vascularized pannus. In most cases, there is no AC reaction, no conjunctival injection, and no overlying epithelial defects

582
Q

Difference between mooren’s ucler and terriens

A

Mooren’s has an overlying epithelial defect and terriens does not

583
Q

Salzmanns nodular degeneration

A
60 yo female 
Really bad dry eyes 
Blue gray nodules 
Bowmans 
Hyaline
584
Q

Symptoms of salzmanns nodular

A

typically asymptomatic, although patients may experience pain if RCE develop in epithelial cells overlying the nodule; vision may be reduced if the nodule is located within the visual axis

585
Q

Signs of salzmanns nodular

A

hyaline plaque deposits located between the epithelium and bowmans membrane that classically appear as midperoheral, elevated blur gray or yellow white nodular lesions. May be unilateral or bilateral and single or multiple in number. Nodules are often located within or adjacent to an old corneal scar or corneal pannus

586
Q

White limbal girdle of Vogt

A

Older patients (common)
Bilateral chalk like linear opacities of nasal limbus
Asymptomatic

587
Q

Base keratopathy pathophtysiolgoy

A

reuslts from the following
‣ Ocular conditions that cause chronic inflammation and ocular surface disease
‣ After trauma
‣ Systemic conditions that cause increased serum Ca++ or phosphorous levels, including gout, hypercalcemia, sarcoidosis, and renal failure

588
Q

Symptoms of band keratopathy

A

patients are often asymptomatic because the calcium plaques are usually located in the periphery at 3 and 9 o’clock positions. Although uncommon, the plaques may move centrally and cause a FB sensation and decreased vision

589
Q

Sign of band keratopty

A

calcium deposits on the anterior surface of Bowmans membrane or in the sub-epithelial space that appear as white splits with a Swiss cheese pattern; usually concentrated with in the intrapalpebral region of the cornea

590
Q

Arcus senilis epidemiology

A

most common peripheral corneal opacity. Arcus is prominent in the elderly and affects almost 100% if patients over the age of 80. Higher incidence in males and AA

591
Q

Pathophysiolgoy of arcus senilis

A

associated with aging and high cholesterol. Lipid deposition begins on descemets membrane and is subsequently deposited on bowmans layer before extending into the stroma

592
Q

Signs of arcus senilis

A

usually bialteral and symmetric circumferential 1mm band within the peripheral cornea, with a clean zone of separation to the limbus

593
Q

When is arcus concerning

A

‣ Arcus is typically of little concern, unless
• Unilateral arcus is rare and is assocaited with carotid disease on the side without the arcus
• Arcus in patients younger than 50 is assocaited with an increased risk of coronary artery disease; a lipid profile is warranted in these cases

594
Q

Crocodile shagreen

A

bilateral, gray white, polygonal stromal opacities (Cracked ice) either near bowmans layer (anterior crocodile shagreen) or occasionally near descemets membrane (posterior crocodile shagreen). Opacities are caused by irregularly arranged folds of collagen
◦ Symptoms: usually asymptomatic and benign

595
Q

Corneal farinata

A

◦ Bilateral flour dust deposits that are most commonly located in the central deep stroma. May be due to aging or an AD condition. Patients are typically asymptomatic

596
Q

Corneal graft rejection

A

• type 4 HS reaction to the donor cornea. 30% of patients will have rejection within one year. Characterized by decreased vision, mild pain, redness, and photophobia
◦ Epithelial rejection: rare; appears as an elevated, irregualr epithelium
◦ Stromal rejection-assocaited with subepithelial infiltrates known as Krachmer’s spots
◦ Endothelial rejection line-characterized by WBCs on the endothelium that form a Khodadoust line

597
Q

an elective procedure that modifies the refractive status of the eye by lenticular or corneal modifications.

A

Refractive surgery

598
Q

Absolute contraindications for refractive surgery

A

‣ Younger than 18 with an unstable refractive error within the last year
‣ Unrealistic expectations-will reduce dependence on glasses (but NOT glasses free), will experience post op glare and dryness
‣ Keratoconnus, active herpes simplex keratitis, contact lens warpage
‣ Connective tissue disease, collagen vascular disease, immunocompromised disease

599
Q

Relative contraindications for refractive surgery

A

‣ Blepharitis, DED, chronic eye rubbing, ocular surface disease, large pupils
‣ DM-fluctuating blood sugar levels can change the refractive error, which makes the amount of treatment needed unclear
‣ POAG (if not well controlled)-IOP elevates during placement of the suction cup during surgery, which could be dangerous if a patient already has uncontrolled or advanced glaucoma
‣ Pregnancy
‣ Retinal thinning/lattice degeneration May increase the risk of retinal tears during or after surgery. Although a clear link has not been establishes, caution should be taken

600
Q

How long do spherical SCL wearers need to be out of CL before refractive surgery

A

3-14 days

601
Q

How long do toric and RGP lens wearers need to be out of their CL before their refractive surgery

A

14-21 days

602
Q

Radial keratotomy

A
  • radial incisions are made with a diamond knife it flatten the perierhal corneal stroma; the normal IOP then pushes the weakened peripheral cornea outward, causing the central cornea to flatten to reduce myopia
  • No longer performed due to better options. RK was difficult to titrate, caused significant instability in the refractive error, and led to progressive hyperopic shifts
603
Q

PRK

A
  • the corneal epithelium, Bowmans, and superficial stromal tissue are removed (no flap) and excimer laser is applied directly to the central cornea (for myopia) or mid periphery (steepens the cnetral cornea to correct for hyperopia)
  • Treatment range: -8D to +4D, up to 4D of astigmatism
  • 400um residual cornea is required after treatment
  • PRK requires longer healing time (1-2 weeks) compared to LASIK because the entire corneal epithelium must regrow. Patients will experience extremely poor vision and pain (controlled with NSAIDs and BLC) in the immediate post op period
  • The risk of stromal haze is greatest with higher Rxes and can be reduced by using MMC during the procedure
604
Q

Benefits of PRK

A

◦ PRK is ideal for patients who are at risk of trauma because there is no risk of flap complications. PRK is also associated with less risk for corneal ectasia, less induction of higher order aberrationsm les post op dryness, requires less corneal thickness, and is cheaper compared to LASIK

605
Q

LASIK

A
  • an epithelial flap is made with a micokeratome, an excimer laser is applied to the anterior stromal bed, and the flap is then reattached
  • Treatment range: -10D to +4D, up to 5D of cyl. Clear lens extraction can be performed on patients who exceed LASIK refractive error requirements
  • LASIK patients heal faster (1-2 days), experience less pain, and have less post op corneal haze compared to PRK patients
606
Q

Thickness requirements for LASIK

A

◦ 250um must remain under the flap to maintain a corneal integrity
◦ The flap itself is approximately 150um thick (determined by intraoperative pachymetry)
◦ Ablation depth is appx 12 um/Diopter

607
Q

Total pachymetry for LASIK

A

‣ Total pachymetry minus the flap thickness (160-200um) minus the ablation depth (15um/diopter) should be at least 250um

608
Q

Femtosecond laserflap for LASIK

A

the same procedure as LASIK but the flap is made with a femtosecond laser instead of a micorkeratome. A femtosecond laser flap is thinner, leaving behind more tissue to ablate. It also removes the risk of mechanical malfunction of the microekratome and is assoacited with less post op dry eye

609
Q

LASEK

A

same procedure as LASIK, but the flap is made with dilute alcohol instead of a microkeratoma

610
Q

Epi-LASIK

A

this is another version of LASIK where a blunt plastic blade is used to create the epithelial flap rather than a microkeratome

611
Q

Conductive keratoplasty

A
  • used to treat presbyopia, low hyperopia, and for treating residual astigmatism after previous surgeries
  • Uses radio frequency energy to shrink the collagen fibers in the peripheral corneal stroma, allowing the central cornea to steepen. Regression is expected after about 2-3 years; the surgery can be repeated
  • Treatment range: +0.74D-+3D with less than 0.75D cyl
612
Q

Intratromal corneal rings

A
  • PMMA rings are inserted into the peripheral stroma to flatten the cornea (shortens the corneal arc length); rings can be removed or exchanged
  • Approved fro use with keratoconus
  • Treatment range: -0.75D to -3D; does not treat hyperopia
613
Q

Clear lens extraction

A
  • essentially cataract surgery without a cataract. The IOL that is selected reduces the refractive error
  • No residual accommodation remains unlesss a multifocal or accommodating IOL is used
  • Large treatment range
614
Q

Phakic IOL (implantable CL)

A
  • intraocular lens implantation in a phakic eye. The lens implanted to alter the total power of the eye
  • The IOL is angle supported, iris supported, or sulcus supported. Rewuire a peripheral iridotomy
  • Can be used to treat a larger range of refractive errors compared to corneal surgery and the IOL is removable. Also preserves natural accommodation (unlike clear lens extraction)
615
Q

Astigmatic keratotomy (AK)

A

• corneal incisions are made with a diamond blade to relax the cornea in the steepest meridian

616
Q

Wavefront guided, custom corneal surgery

A
  • reduces higher order aberrations in addition to correcting the refractive error.
  • Can be done with LASIK or PRK and theoretically resutls in better quality vision with improved contrast and acuity and less glare
617
Q

Refractive surgery success

A

In refractive surgery, success is generally considered 20/40 VA or better. In those with low refractive error, about 90-99% achieve this level. About 75% achieve 20/25 or better

618
Q

Potential LASIK complications

A
  1. Pain in the first 24 hours
  2. Serious infection
  3. Flap complications
  4. Corneal ectasia
  5. Residual refractive error
  6. Glare
  7. Dry eye
  8. DLK
  9. Epithelial ingrowths
  10. . corneal haze
619
Q

Serious infection after LASIK

A

◦ Typically occurs day 1-3. Can lead to corneal melting, irregular astigmatism, and scarring
◦ Bacteria are usually gram + or mycobacterium
◦ Risk with PRK=1/1000 to 1/35000
◦ Risk with LASIK=1/5000

620
Q

Flap complications from LASIK

A

Free caps, button holes, flap folds, irregualr flaps, corneal perforation, and flap subluxation

Flap displacement is more common with keratome flaps than with femtosecond laser flaps and is usually due to accidental touch to the eye or eyelid. Dislodged flaps can be repositioned

621
Q

Types of flap complications after LASIK

A

‣ Button holes (cap perforation, a hole in the flap) are more common with very steep corneas or deep et eyes. The steep cornea can buckle in the suction ring, causing a hole as the keratome moves across the cornea
‣ Free caps (no hinge made) are more common with very flat corneas and are the result of an inadequate amount of cornea in the ring, causing the blade to cut off the hinge
‣ Flap folds occurs in 56% of cases at day 1 (usually within the first hour), and 95% of cases within 1 week

622
Q

Microstriae and macrostriae flap folds after LASIK

A
  • Flap folds are called macrostriae if they are full thickness with undulating, parallel stromal folds; they result from slippage or malpositioning during surgery. They typically require treatment of the flap by lifting and reposition
  • Microstriae are fine, irregular, multi0directional folds in bowmans layer that typically resolve on their own; they are treated only if they are visual significant
623
Q

Corneal ectasia after LASIK

A

◦ Anteiror protrusion of the cornea due to thinning. Patients with high myopia, undetected keratonnus, or forme fruste keratoconnus are more at risk. Corneal ectasia may occur at any time following the surgery

624
Q

Residual refractive error after LASIK

A

◦ Patients may be over or under-corrected or may have regression after surgery (more common if >8D)
◦ Patients can be fit with GPS or reverse geometry lenses after appx 8-12 weeks. Refractive surgery enhancement may also be considered

625
Q

Glare after LASIK

A

◦ Worse glare is expected with small ablation zones, large pupils, monovision correction, and higher refractive errors

626
Q

Dry eye after LASIK

A

◦ The most common side effect of LASIK; occurs in up to 33% of all refractive surgery patients
‣ Corneal nerves are severed during LASIK, resulting in decrease in corneal sensitivity resulting in decreased neural feedback to the lacrimal gland. Resolves 1-2 months

627
Q

DLK after LASIK

A

rare, inflammtory non infectious reaction that occurs at the lamellar interface (between the corneal flap and stroma). It is characterized by fine, granular, sand like infiltrate that typically presents within 2-3 days after surgery. The etiology is poorly understood, but may be a response to toxins (glad debris). DLK is less common with dispoasalbe microkeratomes

maybe be asymptomatic or experience photophobia, blurred vision, FB sensation, and pain. Can lead to vision loss (from corneal scarring and corneal melt) if not properly managed

628
Q

Epithelial ingrowths after LASIK

A

Rare, less than 3% of surgical cases
‣ Last pos op LASIK complication that is most commonly observed at the one month post op visit as a faint gray line or white, milky despots within 2mm of the flap edge interface
‣ The pattens is typically asymptomatic and the condition is not treated unless progression is documented, the visual axis is obstructed, greater than 2mm of ingrowth occurs from the flap edge, or resutls in corneal astigmatism

629
Q

Most common complication associated with LASIK enhancement

A

Epithelial ingrowths

630
Q

Corneal haze after LASIK

A

◦ The prevalence of lone term haze with LASIK is 0.1% and with PRK is 1% in those with refractive errors below 6D. The risk increases with higher refractive errors
◦ Remember, corneal haze is normally present for severeal weeks after PRK

631
Q

Retreatment criteria for enhancement in refractive surgery

A

◦ The earliest time for retreatment is 3 months, but 6 months is preferred to allow the refractive error to stabilize. Criteria for enhancement include the following
‣ Astigmatism >0.75D causing symptoms
‣ RE> or equal to 0.75D from target in an unhappy patient
‣ Uncorrected VA of 20/30 or worse in an unhappy patient

632
Q

Long term management of LASIK

A

◦ IOP realigns will always be falsely low due to thin corneas
◦ Gonio and retinal evals are still necessary in patients with a history of high hyperopia and myopia, respectively
◦ Patients should wear eye protection during contact sports to avoid dislodging the corneal flap and to block UV radiation

633
Q

AOA definition of cataract

A

opacification of the lens that leads to measurably decreased VA and/or some functional disability as perceived by the patient. An estimated 20.5 million Americans older than 40 have them

634
Q

Nuclear sclerosis

A

most common aging cataract. Typically causes myopic shift, elderly patients often report “second sight” because of thei improved abiltiy to read without spectacles

635
Q

Cortical cataract

A

radial spoke like opacities that commonly induce a hyperopic shift

636
Q

Anteiror subcapsular cataracts

A

located directly underneath the anterior lens capsule

637
Q

Posterior subcapsular cataracts

A

located directly in front of the posterior lens capsule; often affects near vision more than distance vision and is commonly a result of systemic or topical steroids and X rays.

638
Q

Mild PSC

A

can cause significant reduction in acuity and are typically associated with worse glare compared to other cataracts

639
Q

Infant cataracts

A

associated with galactosemia and rubella. The most common type of congenital or infantile cataract is a lamellar (zonular) cataract that consist of a lens opacity that surrounds the embryonic nucleus

640
Q

Cerulean cataract

A

type of congenital cataract that rarely affects VA. It appears as tiny dot like or flake like white or bluish green opacities

641
Q

Presenile cataracts

A

assoacited with DM, myotonic dystrophy (PSC Christmas tree), Wilson’s disease, hypocalcemia, and atopic dermatitis

642
Q

Traumatic cataract

A

rosette cataracts, also look for a Vossius ring

643
Q

Toxic anterior subcapsular cataract

A

chlorpromazine (stellate cataract), amiodarone (deposits), miotics (vacuoles), and gold salts (gold deposits)

644
Q

Toxic posterior subcapsular cataract

A

Corticosteroids

645
Q

Secondary cataract

A

common causes include chronic anterior uveitis (most common), high myopia, retinitis pigmentosa, and gyrate atrophy

646
Q

Epicapsular stars

A

‣ Residual remnants of the tunica vasculopathy lentos and appear as small, star shaped, pigmented deposits on the anterior capsule of the lens

647
Q

Testing for catracts

A

PAM
BAT
A scan
B scan

648
Q

PAM

A

can help determine how much the lenticular changes are impacting acuity in order to better predict post op VA

649
Q

BAT

A

asses glare disability

650
Q

Axial length for catracts

A

A scan or IOL master; axial length and keratometry measurements are used to calculate the appropriate IOL power based on the desired final refractive error

651
Q

B scan and cataracts

A

helps to determine if posterior segment abnormalities are present when cataracts are so dense that the fundus cannot be viewed

652
Q

Axial length and IOL power

A

‣ The average axial length us 24mm; a 1mm error in axial length measurement corresponds to a 3D error in the calculated IOL power

653
Q

If the cataract is monocular

A

before referring for surgery consider the age of the patient’s and whether lens removal would impact accommodation status and post op refraction

654
Q

If the patient is monocular, before cataract surgery

A

consider the severity of the cataract and discuss the risk/benefit ratio with the patient’s

655
Q

Preop by PCP before catract surgery

A

◦ Each patient’s should have a careful preop eval by their medical doctor prior ro cataract surgery; medications should also be reviewed carefully-anticoagulants, A blockers, and PGs are of particular concern

656
Q

Alpha blockers for BPH and cataract surgery

A

‣ Flomax is an alpha blocker that can cause floppy iris syndrome, which is characterized by poor preop pupil dilation, iris billowing and prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis. This occurs in up to 90% of pateitns who are currently on the medication or have been at any time in the past

657
Q

Ocular conditions to consider before cat sx

A

◦ Ocular conditions should be considered prior to referral, including history of acute or chronic uveitis, severe bleph, Fuchs endothelial dystrophy, and pseudoexfoliation

658
Q

Types of cataract surgeries

A

intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE)
Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE)
Phacoemulsifcation
Femtosecond laser

659
Q

Intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE)

A

◦ the entire lens and capsule is removed, requiring large incision
◦ Resulted in aphakia and the need for cataract glasses (+12D) with caused distortion of images, secondary IOLs could be implanted with a second surgery
◦ ICCE was associated with a higher risk of RD. It also required a surgical peripheral iridotomy to prevent vitreous prolapse and pupillary block
◦ This surgery has been replaced by newer and safer techniques
◦ ICCE=ICE age, not done anymore

660
Q

Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE)

A

◦ The lens is removed by the lens capsule remains. The incision must still be large because the lens is removed as a while. An IOL is typically inserted into the capsule

661
Q

Phcaoemulsification

A

◦ A form of ECCE where the lens is fragmented with ultrasound before removal. Allows for a much smaller incision that rarely requires sutures, as the aqueous will push against the corneal flap to close it
◦ Typical utilizes a clean cornal incision for lens removal

662
Q

Femtosecond laser for cataract surgery

A

◦ A fairly new addition to the traditional cataract surgery performed by some surgeons. It is used for corneal incisions, anterior capsulorhexis, and lens fragmentation

663
Q

Types of IOLs

A

Toric (4D), aspheric, multifocal/bifocal, accommodating, monovision

664
Q

Design of IOLS

A

Foldable, rigid, injectable

665
Q

Placement of IOLS

A

AC, iris fixed, ciliary sulcus fixed, scleral fixed, or in the capsular bag (most common

666
Q

Post op complications (cat surgery)

A
Striate keratopathy 
Acute post op endophthlmitis 
Delayed post op endophthalmitis 
Toxic anterior seg syndrome 
Lens subluxation 
PCO
CME
RD
Wound leak 
Suprachoroidal hemorrhage 
Elevated IOP
Corneal edema 
Diplopia 
Ptosis 
UGH syndrome 
Induced cornea astigmatism 
Iritis
667
Q

Striate keratopathy after cataract surgery

A

post op corneal edema and folds in descemets membrane; typically resolves without treatment within days

668
Q

Acute post op endophthalmitis: cataract surgery

A

rare complication that occurs in 1/1000 cases; however, even with early treatemnt, 50% of eyes become blind
‣ Stmptoms occur within days (2-4) of the procedure and include progressively decreased vision, redness, and increasing eye pain
‣ 70% of cases are gram + bacteria, including staph epi and staph aureus. The normal bacterial flora from the eyelids and conjunctiva are the most likely sources of infection
‣ Signs include a significant AC reaction that can be accompanied by hypopyon, vitritis, chemosis, eyelid edema, fibrous exudate, mucous discharge, corneal edema, and reduced red reflex

669
Q

Delayed post op endophthalmitis: catract

A

symptoms occur within a week to one month after the procedure. Vision loss is insidious and pain gradually worsens. Fungal post op endophthalmitis is also commonly a delayed complication

670
Q

Toxic anterior segment syndrome (TASS)

A

sterile inflammtory reaction that leads to toxic damage to the AC structures. Typically a result of chemical exposure during surgery
‣ Typically presents 12-48 hours pos op with decreased vision, no to mild pain, diffuse limbus corneal edema, hypopyon, fibrous membrane, no vitritis, and increased IOP
‣ MUST rule out infectious endophthalmitis

671
Q

Lens subluxation after cataract surgery

A

rare in cataract surgery. Caused by pupillary capture and poor capsular support, findings are common common in PXF or Marfans syndrome
‣ Trauma is the number one cause of lens subluxation
‣ Systemic conditions that cause lens subluxation include: Marfans, Ehlers-Danlos, Weill-Marchesani syndrome, and homocystinuria

672
Q

Difference between OI and ehlers danlos

A

• Ehlers Danlos and OI cause similar effects including keratoconus, blue sclera, megalocornea; ehlers danols differs in that it can also cause lens subluxation. In marfans, RDs are common and are the most serious ocular complication

673
Q

PCO after cataract

A

the most common post op complication following cataract surgery. Also referred to as a secondary cataract
‣ Equatorial epithelial cells migrate to and proliferate over the posterior capsule, resulting in opacification most commonly within 2-6 months after surgery
‣ Elschnig Pearls are a type of PCA that is most common in children who undergo cataract extraction

674
Q

Most common post op complication from cataract surgery

A

PCO

675
Q

CME after catract surgery

A

one of the most common reasons for decreases acuity after cataract surgery. The surgical trauma results in inflammation; with the disruption of the lens/vitreous interface, inflammatory cells have an easier time getting to the posterior pole to cause inflammation
‣ The most common cause of CME is post cataract surgery (Irvine Gas’s syndrome). Remember that CME develops within the OPL (Henles)
‣ Peak incidence is within 6-10 weeks following cataract surgery. CME is common on FA but only about 1.5% of patients have significant and symptomatic CME with modern surgical procedures. FA will show hyperfluroescent leakage within the macula (petaloid pattern) and around the ON
‣ Most cases resolve with treatemtn around 6 months

676
Q

When can CME occur

A

after intraocular surgery or in DR, retinal vein occlusion, uveitits, RP, ARMD, ERM, retinal vasculitis, and Coat’s

677
Q

Wound leak after cataract surger

A

occurs early in the post op period and may be initiated by valsalva maneuver, trauma, or suture failure
‣ Signs include a positive Seidel signs, hypotony, iris prolapse (will point towards the wound), choroidal detachement (fluid accumualtes in the suprachorodial space) and a shallow AC
‣ Patients with an open wound are at risk for endophthalmitis and should be promptly treated

678
Q

Suprachoroidal hemorrhage after cataract surgery

A

Super chorodial hemorrhage: rare complication characterized by the accumulation of blood between the choroid and sclera during surgery. This is a devastating complication that is mroe common in the elderly and has an unknown etiolgoy

679
Q

Elevated IOP after cataract surgery

A

make be caused by retained viscoelastic, steroid response, inflammtory debris or RBC clogging the TM, pupillary block, or retinae lens material

680
Q

Corneal edema after cataract surgery

A

typically an early complication characterized by folds in Descemets membrane, bullae, and/or Microcysts that slowly resolve. Potential causes
‣ High IOP-can cause microsystic edema
‣ Low IOP- can cause descemets folds
‣ Surgical trauma-causes edema due to the shock waves from phacoemulsification. This is less common with the intraoperative use of viscoelastic material
‣ Pre-existing corneal Disease predisposes patients to corneal edema
‣ Bullous keratopathy (occurs later in life in the post op period) is more common in aphakia and with AC IOLs
‣ Haptic rubbing on the endothelium can cause damage and edema

681
Q

Ptosis after cataract

A

permanent ptosis can be due to levator dishiscence by the lid speculum. A temporary ptosis may be due to spot op swelling or use of local anesthetic

682
Q

UGH syndrome

A

Uveitits, glaucoma, hyphema Syndrome (UGH): most likely due to an ill fitting AC IOL that rubs the Iris, causing hyphema and uveitis. The accumulation of RBC in the TM causes an elevated IOP. Very uncommon complication now that AC-IOLs are less commonly used

683
Q

Iritis after catraact surgery

A

secondary to surgical trauma, retained lens material (will appear as fluffy, white material behind the iris), endophthalmitis, or occurs in an eye that is predisposed to uveitis and is then aggravated again by surgery