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STEP 1 MIXED > Deck 4 > Flashcards

Deck 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Lung histology showing lymphocytic infiltrates, broncial thickening, enlargement of mucous glands and patchy squamous metaplasia of bronchial mucosa. What caused it?

A

chronic bronchitis, from too much smoking

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2
Q

Why does propofol have short action of duration?

A

It’s lipophilic and gets distributed to areas of high blood flow like brain, liver, kidneys. redistribution in other tissues accounts for short duration of action

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3
Q

What connects lateral ventricles with 3rd ventricle?

A

IV foramen of Monroe

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4
Q

What connects 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle?

A

Cerebral aqueduct

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5
Q

Where are foramina of lushka and magendie?

A

after 4th ventricle

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6
Q

What is a drug cause of respiratory acidosis?

A

Heroin - hypoventillation

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7
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAA UAG UGA –> stimulate releasing factor proteins to release polypeptide from ribosome and dissolution of ribosome-mRNA complex

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8
Q

What are physiological changes in someone with Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Reduced LV size
Enlarged Septum, asymmetric LV wall thickness
Enlarged L atrium
Normal/increased EF
Poorly developed coronary capillary network

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9
Q

What are effects of PTH on bone, calicum, phosphate, and vit D?

A

Bone- increases resorption
increases calcium reabsrption from urine
Decreases phosphate reabsorption
Increases vit D, which increases GI absorption of Calcium and phosphate

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10
Q

What drug do you use to Tx hypertensive emergency? MOA?

A

Fenoldopam, dopamine 1 receptor agonist
Vasodilates arteries, esp renal arteries**
Very good to give in ppl with AKI

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11
Q

What does ingesting rat poison do? What is Tx?

A

Depletes vit K clotting factors, similar to wafarin toxicity. Risk of GI bleeds

Tx FFP

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12
Q

What does bladder scan show in people with diabetic autonomic neuropathy?

A

Increased post-void residual volume, overflow incontinence

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13
Q

Child with abdo pain, arthralgia, and purpuric rash. What is it?

A

HSP - IgA and C3 deposits, small vessel vasculitis, related to recent infection

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14
Q

Child with hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and bloody diarrhea. What is it?

A

HUS - E Coli O:157

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15
Q

What is the most common benign lung lesion?

A

Hamartoma “coin lesion” on x-ray

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16
Q

What is seen in lung hamartomas on biopsy?

A

Hyaline cartilage**, fat, smooth muscle cells

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17
Q

Which drugs increase systolic and diastolic BP and lower HR?

A

Alpha-1 adrenergic agonists (phenylephrine, methoxamine)

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels, stimulation of baroreceptors and increase in vagal tone as reflex

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18
Q

What type of cancer does PCOS put you at risk for?

A

Endometrial carcinoma (lack of progesterone, which has growth inhibitory effects on endometrium)

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19
Q

What medication inhibits testosterone synthesis?

A

Ketoconazole

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20
Q

What medications inhibit peripheral conversion of testosterone to DHT?

A

5-alpha reductase (finasteride)

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21
Q

What medications block androgen receptor binding?

A

Flutamide, cyproterone, spironolactone

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22
Q

MOA flutamide?

A

Competitive testosterone receptor inhibitor

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23
Q

What med is given along with flutamide?

A

GnRH agonists like leuprolide (have paradoxical effect on Leydig cells with long term use)

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24
Q

What are syptoms of neonatal addiction to opoids?

A

Sweating, sneezing, pupillary dilation, tachypnea, jittery baby, irritability, tremors, irritability, poor feeding

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25
Q

What do HPV 6, 11 cause?

A

genital warts

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26
Q

What do HPV 16, 18, 31 cause?

A

Anal, cervical, vaginal, vulvular carcinoma

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27
Q

What does HPV 1-4 cause?

A

Skin warts

28
Q

Where does lateral vs medial foot drain in lymphatics?

A

Medial –> follow great saphenous vein and drains directly to inguinal nodes
Lateral –> drains to popliteal AND inguinal nodes

29
Q

Which HIV drug doesn’t require intracellular activation by kinases?

A

Foscarnet

Binds and inhibits DNA polymerase

30
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is PSGN?

A

type III (immune complexes of antigens and IgG)

31
Q

What do you give men with prostate ca being treated for gynecomastia?

A

Tamoxifen (SERM)

32
Q

MOA dexamethasone in lung maturation?

A

Increases DPPC (lecthin) and surfactant, decreases surface tension, increases type II pneumocyte production

33
Q

What is PNH?

A

Complement mediated hemolysis, absence of CD55

34
Q

What are symptoms of PNH?

A 
Nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Hemolytic anemia (elevated bili and LDH)
thrombocytopenia
pancytopenia
Hemosiderosis (Iron deposition in kidney)*** -->CKD
35
Q

Difference between schizophrenia, schizoaffective, and schizophreniform disorder?

A

Schizophrenia –> delusions and hallucinations > 6 months
Schizophreniform –> delusions and hallucinations 1-6 months
Schizoaffective –> delucions and hallucinations >2 weeks without any mania or depression + prominent mood disorder

36
Q

Where does femoral herniation occur?

A

Medial to femoral artery and vein. Goes beneath the inguinal ligament

37
Q

What are borders of Hesselbach triangle?

A

Inferior epigastric arteries, inguinal ligament, and rectus sheath

38
Q

Where do direct hernias occur?

A

Medial to inferior epigastric arteries

In Hesselbach’s triangle

39
Q

Where do indirect hernias occur?

A

Lateral to inferior epigastric arteries

Through deep inguinal ring

40
Q

What does hydatitiform mole show on immunochemistry staining?

A

p57-negative (absence of maternal genome)

p57-positive in partial moles (XXX or XXY, containing maternal and paternal DNA)

41
Q

How do you calculate the Odds Ratio?

A

(a/b)/(c/d)

odds in exposed group/ odds in unexposed group

42
Q

When do you use ANOVA?

A

When comparing multiple means in different groups

43
Q

What is risk associated with familial chylomicronemia syndrome?

A

Acute pancreatitis & lipemia retinalis from hypertrycliceridiemia
- This occurs due to complete lack of LPL and inability to clear chylomicrons

44
Q

What condition is associated with xanthelasmas?

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia

45
Q

What happens to vascular resistance and MAP during exercise?

A

Decrease in both systemic vascular resistance and MAP due to arteriolar vasodilation

46
Q

What happens to systolic BP during exercise?

A

Increase

47
Q

What should vastectomy patients be advised of after surgery?

A

Viable sperm for 3 months or 20 ejaculations after procedure

48
Q

What is countertransferene (psych)

A

Unconcious beliefs and attitudes from past experiences that influence medical judgment

49
Q

SE of amytriptyline?

A

Anticholinergic effects

Hypotension, urinary retention, constipation, confusion

50
Q

What is the course of the median nerve?

A

At elbow - medial side of anticubital fossa, between humerus and ulna under pronator teres
In forearm - between flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus

51
Q

What does obturator nerve supply?

A

Thigh adductors (adductor longus, brevis, and magnus) and medial sensation to thigh

52
Q

What medication can precipitate opiod withdrawal in people who are opiod tolerant that have chronic pain?

A

Bupenorphrine - partial opiod agonist that binds with HIGH AFFINITY but has LOW POTENCY - someone who is addicted to opiods will definitely have withdrawal symptoms

53
Q

What antiarrhythmics are used to treat ischemia-indcued ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Class IB- Lidocaine. They bind NOACTIVE Na+ channels

54
Q

What does prolactinoma put you at risk of?

A

Osteoporosis

Prolactin inhibits GnRH and suppresses estrogen levels

55
Q

What are causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism? (High ALD and renin)

A

JC cell tumor (renin secreting tumor), malignant HTN, RAS, diuretic use

56
Q

What is Capitation?

A

Insurance plan where there is a fixed fee to cover all medical expenses

57
Q

What is Cilostazol used for?

A

Peripheral artery disease. Inhibits platelet aggregation and vasodilates arteries. Phosphodiestrase inihbitor

58
Q

What do opiods do to electrolytes?

A

Presynaptic neuron: inhibit Ca2+ influx

Postsynaptic neuron: inhibit K+ efflux

59
Q

What are recommended meds for generalized seizures?

A

Valproic acid, levatiracetam, topiramate, lamotrigine

60
Q

What are recommended meds for focal seizures?

A

Carbamazepine, gabapentin, phenytoin, pheobarbital

61
Q

What med treats both absence and tonic clonic seizures?

A

valproic acid

62
Q

What med should you give to prevent people at risk for colorectal carcinoma?

A

Aspirin (inhibits COX-2)

63
Q

Where does RCC usually metastasize? What do you see on histology?

A

Lungs. Abundant clear cytoplasm

64
Q

What peptidase inhibitor stops trypsin from being activated?

A

SPINK-1
Stops trypsin from digesting pancreas
Hereditary pancreatitis if deficient

65
Q

What area of throat gets infected with HPV and why?

A

True vocal cords- contains stratified squamous epithelium

HPV 6, 11

66
Q

What is the region of highest osmoalrity in kidney?

A

Medulla

67
Q

Where is action of ADH greatest?

A

Medullary portion of collecting duct (absorbs water and urea)

STEP 1 MIXED (13 decks)

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