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Holy Grail Docs > Year 2 Passmed Mix > Flashcards

Year 2 Passmed Mix Flashcards

1
Q

what type of drug is octreotide and what is it used to treat?

A

somatostatin analogue
used to treat acromegaly
- somatostatin directly inhibits growth hormone release

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2
Q

what pathology is seen in the thyroid gland in hashimotos thyroiditis (hypothyroidism)?

A

lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid gland and formation of germinal centres

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3
Q

what is de quervains thyroiditis?

A

subacute thyroiditis

patient may initially have hyperthyroidism then progress to hypothyroid

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4
Q

what pathology occurs in de quervains thyroiditis?

A

disruption of thyroid follicles with patchy inflammatory infiltrate and some follicles containing multinucleated giant cells

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5
Q

hashimotos thyroiditis is associated with which genotype?

A

HLA DR3 and HLA DR4

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6
Q

what biochemistry would be seen in addisons disease?

A

low sodium

high potassium

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7
Q

what is a boxer’s fracture?

A

minimally displaced fracture of the 5th metacarpal

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8
Q

describe type 1 skeletal muscle

A 
slow conduction
red in colour (due to presence of myoglobin)
main function = prolonged contraction
fuel = triglycerides
dense with mitochondria
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9
Q

describe type 2 mitochondria

A 
fast conduction
white (due to absence of myoglobin)
main function = short, sudden movement
fuel = ATP
Thinly dispersed mitochondria
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10
Q

from which structure does the long head of the triceps arise?

A

infraglenoid tubercle

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11
Q

what nerve innervates the triceps?

A

radial nerve

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12
Q

what nerves innervate the knee?

A

femoral
common fibular and tibial branches off the sciatic
obturator (allows for referred pain from the hip)

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13
Q

what arteries supply the knee?

A

genicular branches of femoral artery
anterior tibial artery
popliteal artery

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14
Q

pneumonic for the carpal bones?

A 
Some Lovers Try Positions That They Cannot Handle
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetrum
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezioid
Capitate
Hamate
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15
Q

injury to what nerve can cause a positive trendelenberg gait?

A

superior gluteal nerve

innervates gluteus medius which is responsible for thigh abduction

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16
Q

injury to what nerve causes foot drop?

A

common fibular

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17
Q

what is denosumab and how is it given?

A

RANKL antagonist used to treat osteoporosis (not first line)

given as either a 6 monthly or 4 weekly subcutaneous injection

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18
Q

give 4 common side effects of denosumab

A

osteonecrosis of the jaw
diarrhoea
hypocalaemia
dyspnoea

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19
Q

give 4 common features of ehlers danlos syndrome

A

joint hypermobility
flexible skin
easy bruising
heart valve problems

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20
Q

patients with ehlers danlos syndrome are prone to what?

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage (due to rupture of a berry aneurysm in cerebral circulation)

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21
Q

rheumatoid arthritis can cause what respiratory disease?

A

pulmonary fibrosis

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22
Q

how may a vitreous haemorrhage present?

A

arc of white light and cobwebs in vision with movement of the eye
reduced visual acuity
vie of the fundus blocked by grey and red matter on fundoscopy

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23
Q

what scan is performed in suspected vitreous haemorrhage and why?

A

US
all vitreous haemorrhage is retinal detachment until proven otherwise
- US can exclude retinal detachment

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24
Q

name a risk factor which causes elevated serum urate and can lead to gout?

A

chronic haemolytic anaemia

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25
Q

where do salivary stones usually occur and how does this present?

A

submandibular gland
intermittent painful swelling below the jaw
worse on eating

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26
Q

how are salivary stones diagnosed?

A

sialogram

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27
Q

how does optic neuritis present?

A 
painful loss of vision over few hours
reduction in acuity
loss of colour vision
Pain worse on movement
RAPD
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28
Q

MS can cause optic neuritis, how can this be confirmed?

A

normal optic discs on fundoscopy
white matter lesions/plaques on MRI
oligoclonal bands on lumbar puncture and CSF

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29
Q

giant cell arteritis is associated with what eye condition and how does this present?

A

anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy (AION)

RAPD and reduction in visual acuity

30
Q

MS causes what other disease as well as optic neuritis?

A

internuclear opthalmoplegia

31
Q

how can myasthenia gravis affect the eyes?

A

variable diplopia or ptosis

32
Q

describe the general nerve supply to the larynx?

A

innervation to larynx and trachea below the vocal folds = recurrent laryngeal
all muscles of the larynx except cricothyroid = recurrent laryngeal
superior laryngeal pierces the thyrohyoid membrane and branches into an external laryngeal branch supplying the cricothyroid and an internal laryngeal branch supplying larynx above the vocal cords

33
Q

what medication can be used for a prolactinoma and why?

A

dopamine agonist (e.g bromocriptine, cabergoline)

34
Q

how does seborrhoeic dermatitis generally present?

A

fine greasy scales

itchy, ill-defined, pruritic, erythematous rash involving scalp, nasolabial folds or post auricular skin

35
Q

in which direction is the leg rotated in a hip fracture?

A

externally

36
Q

what causes an internally rotated femur?

A

posterior dislocation of the hip

37
Q

how does the leg appear in a hip fracture?

A

shortened and externally rotated

38
Q

what is an intracapsular femoral fracture?

A

occurs between the edge of the femoral head and the insertion of the capsule of the hip joint

39
Q

what are the 2 types of extracapsular femoral fractures and what separates them?

A 
trochanteric = above the lesser trochanter
subtrochanteric = below the lesser trochanter
40
Q

what are the components of the garden classification of hip fractures?

A 
1 = stable fracture with impaction in valgus
2 = completed fracture, but undisplaced
3 = displaced fracture, usually displaced and angulated but still has bony contact
4 = complete bony disruption
41
Q

blood supply is most commonly disrupted in what types of hip fracture?

A

garden types 3 and 4

42
Q

how is an undisplaced intracapsular hip fracture managed?

A

if fit = internal fixation

unfit = hemiarthroplasty

43
Q

how is a displaced intracapsular fracture managed?

A

young and fit = ORIF

older/unfit = hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement

44
Q

how is an extracapsular hip fracture managed?

A

dynamic hip screw

if transverse, oblique or subtrochanteric = intramedullary device

45
Q

which nerves innervate each of the 3 leg compartments?

A 
anterior = deep fibular
lateral = superficial fibular
posterior = tibial
46
Q

how does phaeochromocytoma affect BP and blood glucose?

A

hypertension

hyperglycaemia

47
Q

what causes familial phaeochromocytomas?

A

usually MEN2

48
Q

how is phaeochromocytoma managed?

A

alpha then beta blockade
fluids
adrenalectomy

49
Q

neutrophil infiltration of the stratum corneum is classically seen in which skin condition?

A

psoriasis

50
Q

na,e a common cause of secondary SIADH?

A

paraneoplastic syndrome due to small cell lung carcinoma

51
Q

how does SIADH cause low sodium?

A

increased resorption of water in the kidneys via insertion of aquaporin 2

52
Q

what type of hormone is insulin?

A

protein

53
Q

what areas are supplied by the posterior tibial artery?

A

posterior leg

plantar surface of foot

54
Q

describe the path of the posterior tibial artery?

A

originates from popliteal artery (larger terminal branch)

terminates by dividing into medial and lateral plantar arteries

55
Q

why are measurements of GNRH not useful in investigation of growth hormone deficiency and what is measured instead?

A

growth hormone releasing hormone (GNRH) is released in a pulsatile manner

56
Q

what is tinea and what are the 3 main types?

A

term used for dermatophyte fungal infections

  • tinea capitis = scalp
  • tinea corporis = trunk, legs or arms
  • tinea pedis = feet
57
Q

most common cause of tinea capitis?

A

trichophyton tonsurans

58
Q

how is tinea capitis managed?

A 
oral antifungals (terbinafine)
ketoconazole shampoo
59
Q

2 common causes of tinea corporis?

A 
trichophyton rubrum
trichophyton verrucosum (from cattle)
60
Q

how is tinea corporis managed?

A

oral fluconazole

61
Q

what colour does trichophyton fluoresce under woods lamp?

A

none

does not fluoresce under woods lamp

62
Q

2 functions of biceps brachii?

A

elbow flexion

supination

63
Q

what nerve supplies the lateral foot?

A

sural nerve

64
Q

what nerve supplies the sole of the foot?

A

branches of tibial nerve

  • medial calcaneal
  • medial and lateral plantar nerves
65
Q

what nerve supplies the dorsum of the foot?

A

mostly the superficial fibular nerve

66
Q

what nerve supplies the web space between the 1st and 2nd toes?

A

deep fibular nerve

67
Q

what nerve innervates the interossei and what do they do?

A

ulnar
3 palmar interossei = adduct the fingers
3 dorsal = abduct the fingers
PAD and DAB

68
Q

what is the function of the lumbricals?

A

flex MCP joints

extend IPJs

69
Q

what nerves innervate the lumbricals?

A

1st and 2nd = median nerve

3rd and 4th = deep branch of ulnar nerve

70
Q

what ligament separates the IV discs from the spinal cord?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament

71
Q

what does leptin do?

A

produced by adipose tissue and acts on satiety centres in the hypothalamus and decreases appetite

Holy Grail Docs (39 decks)

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