777 Tech Study Guide Flashcards
(395 cards)
1
Q
What lights auto extinguish when gear selected up?
A
Taxi light and nose landing gear
2
Q
How are the annunciation lights affected by the Storm switch?
A
Puts them on full brightness.
As well as:
L/R FWD panel flood
Glareshield flood
Some
Aisle stand floor
3
Q
Which flight deck lights are powered by standby elec power?
A
Dome lights
Flood lights
4
Q
Does master brightness control circuit breaker panel lightin?
A
No
5
Q
Do individual lighting controls operate with master brightness on?
A
Yes, but to limited range.
6
Q
What EICAS shows that emergency lights are not armed?
A
EMER LIGHTS
7
Q
What is requirement for door 1L overhead rest to be used for taxi take off and landing?
A
Door open and latched.
(Until at altitude with seat belt signs off)
Make sure supply airflow light NOT illuminated
8
Q
Can 5L over head rest be occupied while amber airflow light is on?
A
No.
Illuminated until F250
9
Q
When will upper crew rest alert horn sound continuously?
A
Depress
10
Q
When will upper free rest alarm sound Pulsate?
A
Smoke detected in crew rest
11
Q
How can aft galley power be reset?
A
Push and hold AIRFLOW/SMOKE RESET SWITCH at both door 1L and 5L
12
Q
How can alert horn be silenced at crew rest?
A
Push horn shut off
13
Q
Is take off permitted in the secondary flight control mode?
A
No. Only in normal mode.
-Normal
-Secondary (can check on flight control synoptic)
-Direct (only if PFC turned off)
14
Q
The operation of which flight control is limited to 20,000’?
A
Flaps
If try to operate above, you’ll get
“load relief”
15
Q
Weather radar limitations?
A
Not in hangar or with people near nose.
Can do TEST though.
16
Q
Can aircraft be operated outside the conditions of MEL?
A
Rarely, but can use Operations Dispensation in OPS A.
Example, lightning strikes exceed limits.
Takes a bit of time.
17
Q
PADD is for what?
A
Performance downgrade differed item.
Usually CDL is accompanied by PADD.
18
Q
(L) in MEL signifies what?
A
Autoland capabilities affected
- MUST ALSO BE A PADD
19
Q
(E) item signifies what in MEL?
A
Effects EDTO capability.
- MUST ALSO BE A PADD
20
Q
When has the aircraft been dispatched?
A
MEL definition:
After moves under its own power (so basically after ENG start)
If defect on taxi:
Consider QRH, FCOM, MEL, IOC, ENG
Different definition in Ops A:
Parking brake released prior to pushback or taxi. Ops 0.5
21
Q
ZADD
A
Cabin defect
22
Q
What sources can supply bleed air?
A
APU
Ground Cart
Engines
23
Q
Items that use bleed air?
A
EAI
WAI
Hydraulic reservoir pressure
Potable water tank pressure
Engine starts and APU
Cabin pressure and temp
Center hydraulic demand pumps
Aft cargo heat
TAT probe aspiration
24
Q
How many engine bleed sources are there?
A
2
High pressure stage for low thrust moments
Low pressure stage for high power settings
25
List cases for automatic engine bleed valve closure?
Start
Bleed source loss
Over temp or over pressure
Bleed duct leak
Eng fire switch pulled
Ground air supplied
26
When can bleed air from APU be used in flight?
F220 and below
27
Is ground bleed air high or low pressure?
High
28
Which isolation valves are normally open in flight?
L and R
Center stays closed to separate sides.
29
How many steps to isolate a duct leak?
1, 2 or 3 steps
30
What EICAS indicates isolation of a duct leak?
Bleed Loss L/C/R
Bleed leak provides auto isolation.
31
What does the air con system provide to cabin?
Conditioned air from PACks and recirculated air from upper and lower recirc.
32
How many cabin temp zones are there?
7
6 cabin
1 cockpit
33
On ground, which is noisier, 1 pack or 2 packs?
One pack, working harder
34
List the doors on 777
Passenger entry
L1,2,4,5 plug
Over wing
Door 3L/R plug
RHS cargo:
FWD and AFT Electric NON PLUG
BULK - plug
35
When does the door vent panel open?
Initially after rotating the handle
Auto flight lock is above 80kts
(Limited door handle rotation)
Vent opens to allow smoke exit
36
Electrical power lost, what is position of door flight lock?
Spring loaded to open
37
When are the door handles locked?
Above 80knots (limited movement)
38
Which cargo doors are electrically operated?
FWD and AFT
(Non plug)
39
How is bulk cargo door operated?
Manually
40
Can the fwd and aft cargo doors be operated manually?
Yes.
Normally electronically, but can manual.
41
How can the oxygen quantity be determined?
STATUS PAGE
1600 PSI is the golden number
(Anything below and should have a look at FCOM limitation)
- be quick and firm about it with engineering, can take approx 30-40 min to change. It’s a limit and needs to be changed!
42
How is oxygen shut off and crew usage?
Close left o2 door and press the
reset/test switch.
43
Is the passenger O2 system gaseous or chemical?
GASEOUS
(Only ex EK aircraft are chemical)
HNS-HNX
44
When do passenger oxygen masks auto deploy?
Cabin altitude of 13000’
(If switch guarded in Norm)
45
How can passenger oxygen flow be reset?
Flight deck:
push the reset switch on Pass O2
-flow controls close if cabin altitude falls below 13500’
46
When does bulk cargo ventilation fan operate?
Bulk cargo temp selector in high
47
Which air heats the FWD cargo hold?
Air from FWD equip ventilation system
48
Which equip cooling supply fans normally run?
FWD
49
What will cause automatic override mode of Equipment Cooling?
Flight:
-both supply fans fail
- low airflow
- smoke detected
- FWD cargo fire switch armed
- equip cooling switch to OVRD
50
How is avionics equipment cooled during override mode?
Differential pressure
(Hence might have issues alt low altitudes and high temperatures)
51
What are indications of FWD equip cooling failure on ground?
EICAS:
Equip cooling
And
GND crew call horn in wheel well
52
What draws air through aft electronics equipment, galley and lavs?
Aft equip cooling and vent system
(2 aft vents)
So FWD is for FWD cargo and FWD avionics
AFT is for aft avionics, lav and galleys
53
How is excessive differential pressure protected?
Positive
And
Negative relief valves
54
For pressurisation, how is cabin air discharged?
FWD and Aft OUTFLOW valves
55
What data entry allows for fully automatic pressure control?
Flight plan data from FMC for take off and landing altitude and cruise alt
56
Is the aircraft pressurised for take off?
Yes. Slight positive pressute
57
What is assumed cruise altitude default by cabin pressure system?
39000’
58
What is the max cabin altitude?
8000’
59
Does the aircraft land with pressurisation ?
Slight positive pressure
60
Which altimeter provides landing alt Baro pressure correction? Capt or FO?
Captain
61
What two manual operation will provide pressurisation data on EUCAS?
Press AIR
Or
Outflow valve switches to manual
62
What is the diff between EICAS
PACK L
And
PACK MODE L
Pack L means pack has failed
Pack mode L
means it’s in STBY COOLING MODE
63
When does PACK OPERATING in standby cooling mode shut down?
If other pack operating:
The pack in standby cooling mode will shut down if:
Low ALT
Or
High outside TEMP
64
How is flight deck supplied with conditioned air?
100% fresh from L pack
(L Eng bleed and trim for warmth)
65
What provides L and R trim air?
Hot air from bleed goes to trim
CACTCS modulates
(Cabin Air Con Temp Control Sys)
L: flight deck and 3 cabin zones
R: other 3 cabin zones
66
What are the min and max master temp selections?
18-29 C
67
What is flight attendant range for cabin temp modification?
+/- 6 degree
68
Can flight deck temp be manually controlled?
Yes.
18-29C
69
Which zone control pack output temp?
Zone requiring coolest temp
70
What is default temp if temp selector not available to the CACTCS?
24 C
71
What will control the pack temp after loss of the auto zone control?
Air supply and cabin press controllers control the pack control valves
72
Are shoulder and foot warmers avail on ground?
No.
Flight only
No airflow. Electric heating elements only
73
How are aft and bulk cargo heated?
Independent bleed air heating system
(Insulated curtain separates the two)
74
What system draws air across the cargo temp sensors?
Lav and Galley vent fans
75
What is consequence to Aft and Bulk cargo heat if failure of both Lav and Galley vent fan occurs?
No cargo heat
76
Is auto ice detection available on the ground?
No.
77
Where is EAI indicated while operating?
EICAS by N1
78
List all
Inhibits for WAI
Inhibited on ground
If selected on, inhibited for 5 min after lift off if TAT above 10C
If auto, inhibited for 10 min after lift off
79
Where is WAI indicated?
Primary EICAS by EGT
80
Is WAI available after valve fails closed?
No.
Prevents asymmetric
81
Describe anti ice available for side windows?
Anti fog only, on inside.
82
When does back up anti fogging operate?
If primary window heat fails
83
How many wiper speeds?
Off
Int
Low
High
84
Are pitot and Tat probes constantly heated?
TAT is airborne only
3 pitot tubes: GND and AIR with either engine running
2: AOA
85
Describe how AFDS controls Elevators, ailerons and rudder?
Fly by wire
86
Which surface commands are only added during g auto land?
Rudder
87
How many auto pilot modes have arming phase?
LNAV
VNAV
LOC
GS
88
ILS capture above 1500’. What happens if hit APP again?
Disarms approach
89
How does override of rudder pedals effect autopilot system?
Below 1500’ with Land 2 or Land 3, it can disconnect AP. Otherwise nothing.
90
How does the autopilot react to engaged mode degradation?
Remains engaged in a ATT stabilised mode based on inertial data
91
How is FD affected by overspeed or stall?
Cause the pitch FD bar to disappear
92
During Autoland, will degrade to LAND 2 be announced in PFD?
Yes
93
What 2 occasions cause green box around FMA ?
Change of mode + 10 sec
And
after Amber line removed if fail occurred
94
Which Autothrottle mode controls to VS?
THR VNAV SPD
(Thrust VS and SPD on elevator)
SPD VNAV PTH
(Thrust on speed, elevator on VS)
95
When will LNAV auto activate if selected in flight?
If within 2.5 nm of lat ACT route
96
What heading will be maintained when HDG hold pressed?
Holds HDG reached when Wongs rolled level
97
What are the bank angle limits for ATT mode?
5-30 degrees
98
When are TOGA switches available for GA?
Flaps out of up or GS captured
99
During auto land, when does ROLLOUT engage?
Below 2’ RA
100
In TOGA pitch mode, what can max target speed be?
V2+15 to V2+25 max
101
Where does the AFDS get the V2 speed?
MCP
102
At what altitude will VNAV ACTIVATE?
400 AGL
103
Does flare mode activate at specific ALT?
40-60’ RA
104
Can auto throttle be activated without FD or AP
Yes
(As long as AT arm switch on)
105
Can Autothrottle engage automatically?
Yes. As long as ARMED.
Stall protection, slightly into MMS
106
Which mode will autopilot not position thrust levers?
Hold
107
What action causes normal Autothrottle disconnect on landing?
Rev thrust to REV IDLE
108
What are initial FD commands upon engagement?
Preflight:
8 degrees nose up
109
During takeoff when can TOGA switches be used for AT engagement?
0-50 knots
Then again after 400’
50kt to 400’, pushing TOGA cannot activate AT
110
What does selection of TOGA above 80 knots do?
Deselects LNAV and VNAV
111
What type of altitude is used for LNAV and VNAV enhancement?
Lnav: RA
Manual is 50’
Autopilot at 200’
VNAV:
Baro captured at 100knots by FMC on takeoff
112
Max speed commanded after take off if engine fails?
V2 to V2+15
(Or
Speed failure, which ever higher)
113
What is TOGA roll command after take off?
Wings level
50’ LNAV for FmC route
114
What does TOGA selection do immediately after lift off?
Disarm LNAV VNAV
Gives THR REF and removes derates
115
What is pitch command speed at acceleration height?
5 knot below take off flap placard speed
116
What is VNAV climb speed in clean config?
Greater of
Ref30+80
Or
250knots
(FMC VNAV climb page)
117
When is climb thrust selected?
Next flap setting from take off flaps.
Take off flaps 5: CLB AT SELECT F1
Take off flaps 15: CLB AT SELECT F5
118
What are the altitudes for Flare, idle and rollout on Autoland?
Flare: 40-60 ‘
Idle: 25’
Rollout: 2’
119
How is runway alignment achieved for crosswind approach requiring 10 degrees crab angle.
Sideslip introduced at 500’
120
What will FMA announce in single push go around?
THR TOGA TOGA
(Trying to achieve 2000 feet per min)
121
After GA what cause toga termination?
Selection of new roll and pitch mode
(LNAV prob auto engage)
400’ AGL can select new pitch mode.
Usually we wait for 1000’ for VNAV, can also select FLCH.
No EO, this will give you CLB thrust
122
What are three forms of AP envelope protection?
Over speed
Stall
Bank angle
123
How many PTT push to talk switches does each pilot have?
4
Wheel mic
Glare shield
Hand held
ACP
124
After depress, how are mask microphone deactivated and boom mic reactivated?
Close left door and press reset
125
What audio is recorded by CVR
Area mic
Boom mics
Transmit and receive on radar
126
What is association between radio tuning panels and radios?
Used to tune VHF and HF
127
Which VHF system can be used for DATA?
C (normal)
And
R
(Left is only voice)
128
Describe VHF stuck mic protection?
After 30 seconds in flight,
EICAS RADIO TRANSMIT
GND
after 35 seconds, auto shuts off
129
What do dashes in radio tuning panel frequency window indicate?
Selected radio has failed or disconnected
130
Where can HF sensitivity be set?
Knob on Radio Tuning Panel
HF SENS for on side receiver
131
What action will cause HF antenna tuning?
Key the mic and hear 7 second tone
132
Can both HF systems simultaneously receive from common antenna ?
Yes. As long as one side not transmitting
133
How many radio systems are monitored by SELCAL?
VHF L/C/R
HF L and R
Satcom
134
What systems can provide data comm
VHF C and R
HF L and R
Satcom
135
What does SATCOM CALL mean?
Someone trying to call you?
Press the SAT mic button
136
What action will end a satcom call?
Habit of always pressing END call on CDU.
Though other party hanging up should do it.
137
Which system is used to comm with ground engineer?
Flight interphone
138
What is purpose of Serv Interphone switch on over head?
Normally off.
On connects different points around the plane onto the flight Interphone system.
139
What PA will have higher priority, FD or Cabin direct access?
1) FD ACP
2) CABIN HAND DIRECT
3) priority all
4) normal from FA or FD handset
(Normally this what we use)
140
How is priority call from cabin shown in flight deck?
“CABIN CALL”
Or
“CABIN ALERT”
141
How can a purser call be initiated from ACP?
Double tap CAB
142
What is the flight deck handset PTT switch used for?
PA only.
If call doors or other station, do not need to push to Talk
143
What is indicated on EICAS for long winded ATC message
Large ATC message
144
How to respond to ATC uplink request?
Accept/ cancel
Open ATC or new messages in COMM
145
How many operating modes for the Primary flight control system?
Normal
Secondary
Direct
(Never Say Die)
3 PFC
4 ACE
Control - ACE - PFC - ACE - PSA’s
(Fly by wire)
146
How are the primary flight controls powered?
Redundant hydraulic systems
147
What is back up system for flaps and slats?
Slow Electrics
148
Which controls have Jam override system?
Column and wheels
Pull as hard as you like
149
Which flight controls are rigidly connected?
Rudders
150
How many ACE’s and PFC’s are there in the flight control systems?
4 ACE
3 PFC
151
Where are pilot controls directly sent?
To 4 ACE, then PFC, then flight controls
9.20.1
152
Why do PFC’s receive other aircraft system data?
For enhanced handling qualities
153
How do auto pilot commands cause control movement?
AP to PFC to controls
154
How do Flaperons droop?
Proportionally to flaps
155
What flap settings have aileron droop?
Take off flap settings
5, 15, 20
156
Which control surfaces are locked out in cruise?
Spoilers 5 and 10
And
Ailerons
(Flaperons and remaining spoilers provide enough roll, and engine can cause buffet on 5-10)
157
What device provides additional use authority?
Rudder hinged trim tab
158
Can pilot override AP?
Yes
159
Which flight control modes allow for Autopilot?
Normal only
Secondary and direct NO
160
What happens to PFC’s when hydraulics are shut down?
PFC’s perform self test.
(HYD PRESS SYS L + C + R
will show for approx 2 min = normal)
161
What does flight envelope protection provide?
Stall
Over speed
Bank angle
(Tactile, visual, aural warnings)
162
In secondary mode, which protections are not available?
Flight control mode
AP
Auto speed brake
Envelope protection
Gust suppression
TAC
Yaw damping
Tail strike protection
163
Which surfaces have cable driven back up?
Stabiliser
Spoilers 4 and 11
164
On ground, what are the pitch trim switches on control wheel for?
Setting stabiliser position
165
Which flight control surface do the pitch trim switches on control wheel move in flight?
Elevator
166
What happens when ALTN PITCH TRIM LEVERS are operated in flight?
Directly moves stabiliser
(Doesn’t disconnect autopilot)
167
When will trim in nose up direction be inhibited?
Below MMS
9.20.10
168
How is stall protection supported by AT??
It will wake up if armed and not currently in use.
(ARMED AND NOT ACTIVE)
169
When will over speed protection occur?
Nose down inhibit at MMO VMO
170
EICAS
FLIGHT CONTROL MODE
means what?
Flight controls in Secondary mode
(No AP)
171
EICAS
PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS
means what?
Flight controls in DIRECT mode.
No AP.
Can only be achieved by switching PFC’s off.
172
What are the inputs for the Stab Greenband?
Thrust
CG
GW (pressure switch sensor)
V1
173
When do control column forces increase?
9.20.12
Based on airspeed.
More speed = more force
174
Describe PFC action if tail strike imminent on take off or landing?
Downwards elevator deflection
(No indication in flight deck)
Tries to save the tail
175
How are control column commands changed in secondary and direct mode?
Skip PFC.
Less handling quality.
Direct proportion of control deflection.
176
How many levels of elevator feel exist in secondary and direct mode?
2
Flap up
Flap out
177
Which hydraulic system power the stabiliser?
C and R
(Therefore if you have a C and R dual HYD failure, you’ll get Stabiliser as well)
(ELEVATOR IS DIFFERENT:
Left elevator powered by C and L HYD)
Right elevator powered by R and L HYD
Therefore if you have Left HYD failure, you can’t do Autoland because of lack of redundancy)
178
How many STCM (Stab Trim Control Modulator) will be automatically shut off during an uncommanded stab motion?
STABILIZER L
STABILIZER R
STABILIZER = both
179
How many STCM (Stab Trim Control Modulator) will be automatically shut off during an uncommanded stab motion?
STABILIZER L
STABILIZER R
STABILIZER = both
180
How many STCM (Stab Trim Control Modulator) will be automatically shut off during an uncommanded stab motion?
STABILIZER L
STABILIZER R
STABILIZER = both
181
When does passenger O2 auto drop ?
In auto
When cabin altitude above 13,500’
182
What electrical equipment is protected by ELMS?
Electrical Load Management System?
Critical and essential equipment
183
What loads does ELMS shed first?
Galley and utility electrical
184
How do you know if ELMS is load shedding!
Electrical synoptic
185
Loadshedding usually occurs during push back, what might you see?
Primary C2 pump and some fuel pumps flashing away.
Normal
186
What are the main electrical sources?
2 IDG’s
1 APU Gen
2 External power
187
What will cause EICAS message ELEC GEN DRIVE?
Low oil pressure in the engine driven generator (manual disc)
If high temp, will auto disconnect.
188
Will IDG auto disconnect for low oil pressure?
No
189
List conditions for an APU Autostart.
In flight: Two AC transfer bus become unpowered
190
List conditions for AVAIL light to illuminate.
Voltage and frequency within limits
191
Which generator has lowest priority for main busses in flight ?
6.20.5
Offside IDG
Priority order is:
Onside IdG
APU GEN
OFFSIDE IDG
192
How is ground service bus normal supplied with power?
R main AC bus
(Powered in flight as well)
193
How is ground service bus powered without supplying the main bases?
APU GEN
AND
PRIMARY EXT POWer
194
What equipment is powered by Ground Service bus?
Main battery charger
APU battery charger
Miscellaneous cabin loads
195
How can ground handling bus be powered?
Primary external power
APU Gen
(Ground only)
196
What equipment is powered by ground handling bus?
Cargo lights and doors and refuel etc.
auto connects
197
Which busses can be supplied by the BUGS ?
6.20.7
Flight control DC electrical system.
1 bug has 2 PMG’s
198
What unit converts the back up generator frequency?
Frequency converter
199
Can both back up generators supply the busses simultaneously?
No.
Only one frequency converter, so can only do one at a time.
200
What is purpose of 2 PMG in each BUG?
Supply power to the flight controls by way of FC DC elec system.
201
How are TRu supplied?
L and R XFER bus
6.20.10
202
How is hot batt bus voltage normally supplied?
Main battery charger
203
When would APU battery be used to start the APU?
When not enough bleed air supply, direct power to electric starter given.
Priority is
204
What is secondary power source for C FCDC PSA?
Capt flight instrument bus
Back up for L and R PSA is L/R DC bus
205
Which FCDC PSA can be powered by the hot battery bus?
L and C
6.20.13
206
How long can dedicatedPSA Battery provide power for?
Enough time for power transfer
(Approx 1 min)
207
Does standby electrical system provide AC or DC?
Both
208
After primary power failure, what does the standby electrical system supply?
Stand by inverter
C1 and C2 TRU
Rat
Main batt
209
What are two sources of power for AC standby bus ?
Standby Inverter
Main batt
210
Which TRU’s can the RAT Gen supply??
C1 INITIALLY (capt instruments)
and
C2 TRU (FO instruments eventually)
211
RAT generator limitations?
No limitations
212
During deployment of RAT, how are the standby loads powered?
Main battery
213
What causes auto deploy of RAT?
2 transfer bus unpowered in flight
All three HYD low
2 engines down with no C HYD
214
If you see FLT CTL SYS in preflight?
Get engineer, that’s a no go item.
215
How can you still get B thrust if not selected in FMC ?
If within ALT and Temp, slamming thrust levers forward, the EEC will auto allow Bump thrust
216
List Primary engine parameters
N1
EGT
300:
EPR
N1
EGT
217
List secondary engine parameters
N2
Oil temp, pressure and QTY
Fuel flow
Vibrations
(no limit, but shows above 4)
218
What pilot actions would cause auto showing of secondary engine parameters?
-Press ENG
-Fuel control switch moved to cut off
-Eng fire switch pulled in flight
219
What is AMBER band on EGT indicator?
Max continuous thrust
7.20.4
220
When are EGT Amber inductions inhibited?
Takeoff and GA for 5 min
(10 min if EO)
221
How is Max takeoff EGT indicated?
Red line
222
How can red exceed an d box be removed on EICAS?
Cancel/RCL button
223
Which two parameters change to black text when abnormal?
Colours invert for
Low Oil QTY (LO adjacent)
And
Vibration
224
What is red line and amber line in N1?
Red: Max operating limit
Amber: max rated thrust (115,000 lb)
225
Parameters for setting thrust in normal and ALT?
ER:
Normal is N1
ALT is N1
300:
EPR normal
N1 ALT
226
How can max rated thrust be achieved?
Thrust levers full forward in normal mode
227
How is SOFT ALTERNATE achieved?
EEC selects automatically
HARD ALTERNATE NEEDS TO BE MANUALLY SELECTED ON EEC MODE SWITCH
228
In which modes is AT available for EEC?
All
Normal
Soft alt
Hard alt
229
When is max rated thrust achieved in EEC alternate mode?
Well before thrust levers are full forward
7.20.8
230
What protections are available in AlTERNATE MODE?
AT
Over speed (eec reduces fuel flow)
N1 and N2 rest line
231
Why is approach idle selected with F25?
Faster spool up for Go Around
232
What does the start selector control?
The starter air valve
233
During Autostart, what does the Fuel control switch control?
Ignition and Fuel flow
234
On start up, what condition allows EGT red line to disappear ?
Engines stabilised at idle
235
Which fuel valve is opened by the EEC after moving the fuel control switch to run?
Spar valve
236
For which events will Autostart not attempt a restart?
Hot
Insufficient air pressure
No N1 rotation
Starter shaft fail
Starter duty cycle expire
7.20.11
237
During manual start, when are fuel and ignition introduced?
As soon as you put fuel control switch to run
238
How many Autostart attempts will eec perform on ground and in flight?
3 on ground
(Single IGN, dual, dual)
Unlimited in flight
(Always dual ignition )
239
How is flameout detected for auto relight activation?
Sudden drop in N2
Or
N2 below idle
240
What are the operating limitations for engine oil quantity?
No limitations
(Barely needs any oil)
241
Are reverser pneumatic or hydraulic?
Hydraulic (on side system)
242
What is the purpose of reverse interlock?
Avoids reverse thrust airborn
1) mechanical lock doesn’t allow reverse idle until FWD thrust at idle
2) electrical lock doesn’t allow max REV until REV idle achieved
243
How is the average vibration indicated?
BB (broadband)
244
What condition will most likely be combined with High N1 vibration?
Tactile vibration.
(You’ll feel it)
245
Is there a limit for Vibration?
No.
It’ll show above 4
246
What PFD indication for ENG fail on take off?
Red ENG FAIL
247
What does EICAS
ENG THRUST L/R indicate?
Thrust significantly less than commanded
248
APU limitations for bleed and electric
Bleed, max F220
Elect no limit
249
Which APU starter has priority?
Bleed
Then
Electric from APU battery
250
What is powered by the main battery for APU?
Inlet door, Fuel Valve , Fire detect
251
Can ground cart be used to start APu?
Yes
252
Which AC fuel pump runs auto for APU?
FWD Left
(Back up DC pump if unpowered and APU on?
253
How to shutdown APU after auto start?
Turn on then off
254
What memo message display when normal APU shutdown?
APU cooldown
(If move to on while this shows, you get a quick start)
255
What are the APu operating modes?
Attended: engines on or in flight
AND
Unattended:
Engines off on ground
OR
256
What causes an auto shutdown in attended mode for APU?
APU fire or overheat
Over speed
APU controller failure
Speed droop
257
Does APU COOLDOWN show during auto shut down?
No.
Straight to
APU SHUTDOWN
258
What does APU LIMIT message mean during attended mode?
High EGT
HIGH OIL TEMP
LOW OIL PRESS
259
What two fire protections are provided for the engines?
1) Detection (fire and overheat)
2) Extinguishing
(Dual loop with 2 bottles)
AND system. 1 loop and second loop need to detect.
260
What is indication after fuel fire loop fault in engine?
Det Fire Eng L/R
261
What are indications of engine overheat?
overheat Eng L/R
(CAUTION)
262
What is the number of engine fire bottles on 777?
2
263
What protection is provided for APU?
1) Detect (fire only)
2) Extinguish
(Pull and rotate in either direction)
Only 1 bottle
264
In which APU mode will fire detection operate in AND logic?
Attended mode:
Any Engines running or in flight
(AND)
Unattended:
Ground with engines off
(OR) any fault means auto shutdown
265
Will APU fire extinguisher operate automatically with engines running?
No.
And logic.
Attended mode
266
Which wheel wells have fire detectors?
Main only.
No extinguishing
267
Cargo fire suppression, how many bottles?
ER: 6
2 fire immediate in air and 4 after 20 min delay, metered fashion.
Or
1 metered only if land before delay
1 immediate on ground, then another after delay
300: 5
2 immediate
3 delay
268
Approximate cargo fire suppression time?
ER
4 hour
(4 metered bottles)
300:
3 hour
(3 metered bottles)
269
How is fire protection provided in upper crew rest?
Pulsing horn
And
EICAS
270
What indication of lav smoke?
Smoke Lavatory
-
Sound and light
(Double tap CAB. Lav smoke. Walk cabin. Get back to me )
271
How are overheat and fire detection system automatic and manual fault tests performed?
Continuously and automatic
272
How many flight control modes are there?
Normal
Secondary
Direct
(Never say die)
273
How many ACE and how many PFC?!
4 ace
3 PFC
274
How are primary flight controls powered?
Redundant Hydraulics
275
What is back up system for flaps and slats?
Electrics
276
Which controls have Jam override?
Column and wheel
277
Which controls are rigidly connected?
Rudders
278
Where are pilot controls sent?
4 ACE to PFC to ACE to control
(Fly by wire)
279
Why do PFC receive other aircraft data?
Enhanced handling qualities
280
How do Flaperons droop?
Proportional to flaps
281
What are the flap settings for aileron droop?
Take off flaps
5, 15, 20
282
Where are the control commands of the PFCs sent?
To the ACEs
283
Where are the control commands of the PFCs sent?
To the ACEs
284
Which surfaces are normally locked out in cruise?
In normal mode, the ailerons and spoilers five and 10 are locked out during high-speed flight
285
What devices provide additional yaw authority?
The hinged section, tab
286
Which flight control modes allow for auto pilot operation
Normal mode only
287
What happens when the hydraulic systems are shut down?
The PFCs self test
288
What does the flight envelope protection system provide?
It provides Crew awareness of envelope, margins through tactile, aural and visual cues
289
In secondary flight control mode, which protections are not available?
Envelope protection
Tail strike protection
Auto pilot, auto speed, brakes, gust, suppression, TAC, your damping
290
Which services have cable driven back up?
Stabiliser, selected spoilers (4+11)
291
On the ground, what are the pitch trim switches on the control wheel for?
To move the stabiliser directly
292
Which surfaces do the primary trim switches move in flight?
In flight, the pitch trim switches do not position the stabiliser directly, but make inputs to the PFCs to change the trim reference beat. The PFC automatically move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabiliser to streamline the elevator.
293
What occurs when the alternate pitch trim levers is operated with the auto pilot engaged?
The auto pilot does not disengage, but it moves the stabiliser
294
When will trim in the nose up direction be inhibited
When the Airplane slows to speed where manoeuvre margin is Limited
295
What will occur when flying near the stall speed?
Pilot must continuously apply aft column pressure
296
How is stall protection supported by the autothrottle system?
Auto throttle can support stall protection, if armed and not activated if speed decreases to stick Shaker activation or automatically activate the appropriate mode and advanced thrust to maintain minimum manoeuvering speed or speed set in the mode control panel, speed window, whichever is greater
297
When will overspeed protection occur?
At VMO/MMO
298
When do column control forces increase?
-As Airspeed increases
- As column displacement increases
299
Describe PFC action if tail strike is imminent during takeoff or landing
Decreases elevator deflection
300
How are control commands changed in secondary and direct mode?
They command a proportional elevator deflection instead of a manoeuvre command
301
How many levels of elevator feel existing secondary and direct mode?
Two, depends on flat position
302
What system powers the stabiliser
Centre, and right hydraulic
303
How many STCM’s will be automatically shut off during an un commanded stabiliser motion
The one that caused the uncommanded stabilisers motion
304
Which FMC entries are used to calculate the stabiliser green band
CG, gross weight, TO thrust and V1
305
What will cause the EICAS stab green band advisory message?
If the precious switch in green band disagree
306
Which spoiler surfaces are mechanically controlled
4 and 11
307
Is manual aileron trim available with the auto part engaged
No
308
What is the bank angle protection boundary?
Approximately 35°
309
Are the rudder pedal forces affected by airspeed?
No
310
Which component produces rudder authority at high speeds
The Rudder ratio changer
311
When will the TAC automatically add rudder to minimise yaw
If the thrust level on one engine differs by 10% or more
312
Does TAC move the rudder pedals?
Yes
313
When can control inputs cause auto deflection? Wheel to rudder cross tie
Wheel to Rudder cross tie is operative in flight below 210 KTS in normal mode
314
In normal mode, what is provided by the yaw damping function?
Turn coordination and Dutch roll dumping
315
Does Gus suppression move the rudder pedals?
No, it does not result in either Rudder pedal or control wheel movement
316
Which yaw functions are inoperative in the secondary and direct flight mode
- gust suppression
- Yaw Damping
- tac
- Manuel Rutter trim cancel switch (in direct mode)
317
Normally how many spoilers operate on the ground as speed brakes
14 (all of them)
318
What are the conditions for speed break extension if armed?
Landing gear, fully on the ground and thrust levers at idle
319
For RTO, what action will Cause speed brake extension?
Pulling reverser to idle
320
What is the purpose of the Kruger flap?
The two positions Krueger flop provides a seal between the inboard slat and engine nacelle on each wing
321
What surfaces move with flap one selected?
Slats move to mid range position
322
What are the landing flap positions?
25 and 30
323
What are the takeoff flap positions?
Five, 15 and 20
324
When is flap extension inhibited
Above 20,000 feet and speed more than 265 kts
325
Which flap lever position did the slats fully extend hydraulically?
Flaps 25
326
What will automatically occur if the slats or flaps fail to move hydraulically
Secondary mode automatically engaged
327
Why are the slats fully extended in secondary mode?
To improve stall handling characteristics
328
How do the slats and flaps sequence in alternate mode?
Simultaneously, but slat retraction is inhibited until flaps are up
329
When is the flap load relief system available?
In primary mode
330
When is slat load relief activated?
In secondary mode, only if it is speed exceeds 246 kts with slats fully extended, they retract to mid range
331
When is autoslat operation armed
At flaps 1,5,15&20 and only in primary mode
332
Describe the flap indication after non-normal condition
Extend flap indication is displayed, automatically with the position of the left and right flaps and slats are separately indicated
333
Normally which CDUs can be used for alternate EFIS operation
The related CDUS
334
Does alternate EFIS operation using CDU require a failure of the EFIS control panel?
No,
335
Cann, the EFIS panel and the CDU be used simultaneously
No, since the CDU inhibit input from your respective control panel
336
Which synoptic displays can be compacted
ENG, AIR, FUEL
337
Will EICAS ever display on the lower centre?
Yes, if upper display fails
338
What is the function of the DSPL CTRL switches?
Provide the capability to manually, select PFD and ND sources when auto switching fails after source failures
339
When will the captains cursor appear on the lower display?
If neither Curser was in use, CAPT was the last one he used it
Default power up
340
What is the difference between open and close loop item?
Open loop:
Requires flight, Crew confirmation
Does not monitor, control position or system state
Closed loop :
Checks off automatically based on monitored flight deck, Control, EICAS Message or Airplane system state
341
When do checklists associated with ECS warnings have priority?
Always
342
How many GPS systems are installed on the 777
Two. Left and right
343
Which CDU page displays the latitude longitude for both GPS systems?
POSREF3/3
344
What action is required to display GPS position on the Capt ND
Select the POS switch
345
Is the ADIRU required for GPS navigation?
No
346
List four parameter supplied by the ADIRS
Altitude speed, attitude, heading and position data
347
What bus power is required in order to turn the ADIRU on?
Battery bus power?
348
When can the ADIRU switch be used to turn it off?
On the ground only
349
How is ADIRU hot Battery bus operation indicated on the ground
The Horne in the landing gear, sounds to alert, ground crew. On bus, light illuminate.
350
What is the effect on ADIRU if the aircraft stops for an extended period
Changes to the automatic realign mode and refine the alignment until the Airplane moves again
351
What level is the ADIRU align mode Message?
Memo message
352
What parameters can the SAARU supply?
Attitude heading and Air data
353
After what period of time can the Crew set the SAARU heading?
After three minutes
354
On which CDU page is the SAARU heading set
CDU POS INIT page, SET HDG prompt
355
What is the pilots normal source for Air data?
Left centre and right pitot static systems
356
What will provide pilots Air data after failure of the ADIRU
SAARU
357
After an ADIRU and SAARU failure, what will provide captains air data?
Left pitot static system
358
Which data channel supplies the ISFD?
Centre Pitot static port through standby Air data modules
359
During the manual approach, when does ILS tuning inhibit occur?
Either LOC or GS captured and aircraft below 500ft
360
With no inhibit, will the ILS automatically REtune with selection of a new approach
Yes
361
Which CDU page displays the VOR/DME stations being used for updates?
POS REF 2/3
362
Where are the fuel temperature and minimum fuel temperature displayed?
Fuel temp: PRIMARY EICAS AND FUEL SYNOPTIC
MIN FUEL TEMP: fuel synoptic
363
Where does the minimum fuel temperature value originate from?
Feel freezing point +3° or manually, entered in CDU
364
Which pumps output the highest pressure
The two centre tank pumps
365
On the ground when will both centre tank pumps run
When two electrical power sources are available
(Basically after engines start running)
366
What is inhibited when the centre tank pump switched off?
The switch pressure light and pump EICAS msg
367
Which tank can the DC pump feed from?
The left tank (to the APU)
368
Describe the DC pump, automatic operation
Provides fuel to the APU when AC power is not available and APU selector is on
369
When does the centre tank fuel scavenge system operate
When Centre tanks pumps are not operating
370
What is the indication for crossfeed valve disagreement?
Switch valve indicates
EICAS FUEL CROSS FEED FWD or AFT Displays
371
When is fuel IMBALANCE display?
When quantity in left and the right tank varies significantly
372
What is the total fuel capacity of all three tanks?
ER 145,500 KG
300: 137,500 kg
373
Which fuel manifold supplies the APU
The left fuel manifold
374
How can the jettison future remain value? Be modified from default MLW quantity
Pull the switch
375
If off, will the centre pumps run for jettison?
No
376
What is the minimum fuel quantity remaining in each tank after jettison is complete
5200kg/3800kg
377
How many hydraulic systems are required for adequate aircraft controllability?
One
378
Are the hydraulic reservoir pressurised?
Yes, by the bleed system
379
List the primary pumps for the left right and central systems
L&R engine driven pumps
C electric driven pumps
380
List Hydraulic demand pumps for the left right and central system
L&R Electric
C Air driven
381
In auto, when will the left and right demand pump run?
For takeoff and landing, and when system primary pressure is low
On the ground, right demand pump operates continuously in auto position
382
In addition to flight controls, what’s systems are supplied by the central system
Leading edge slats
Trailing edge, flaps
Learning gear actuation
Alternate brakes
Nose gear steering
Main gear steering
383
What is the purpose of the RAT pump?
To provide hydraulic power to the systems connected to the centre hydraulic system
384
Will both C1 and C2 demand pumps run if both selected on?
No
385
What systems are isolated if C system quantity is low flight
Alternate brakes
Nose, gear, actuation and steering
Leading edge slats
386
Will the RAT automatically deploy if in flight if the C system pressure is low
No, only with both engines failed
387
What must be powered for the RAT deployment?
The hot battery or APU battery
388
Fuel temperature is measure from where?
Left fuel main tank
389
Fuel temperature is measure from where?
Left fuel main tank
390
Where are the taxi and nose landing lights physically located?
In nose assembly. Hence why we turn off after take off.
391
More than what amount of fuel will the Center tank start filling on 777?
More than 62.6 T
(Watch for this)
Can have up to 1360kg in centre tank without mains being full.
392
When will the FUEL IN CENTRE MESSAGE SHOW?
More than 4.7T on ground in centre tank
393
FWD and AFT outflow valve don’t do equal share. What proportion of work do they do?
FWD- 20%
AFT - 80%
394
Cabin ALT has 3 different important altitudes, what are they?
8500’ - Amber
10000’ - red (CABIN ALTITUDE)
13500 - Auto Pax 02
395
Low fuel scenario, when will you get fuel pump messages?
Approx 1.0T remaining (0.5 each tank)
Nose low on approach: AFT PUMPS
NOSE HIGH GO AROUND: FWD pumps
