46 - Supraventricular Tachycardia Flashcards

1
Q

More difficult to achieve ___ control in patients with atrial flutter than patients with A. Fib

A

HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The threshold for using catheter ablation is ____ for atrial flutter than for A. Fib

A

lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List non-pharms

A
  • Cardioversion
  • Catheter Ablation
  • Percutaneous Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is cardioversion used?

A

to terminate the tachycardia electrically if unresponsive to medical management

for patients with A. fib or flutter > 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Need 3 weeks of ______ prior to cardioversion

A

anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who is catheter ablation 1st line for?

A

patients with typical atrial flutter

*also an option for those with A. fib who are symptomatic and either don’t want or can’t have anti-arrhythmic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Percutaneous Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion used for?

A

to decrease risk of systemic embolism

only for those with high risk of stroke from whom antithrombotic tx is precluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Control ____ in those with more than minimal symptoms

A

rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rhythm control:

_____ is more effective than sotalol or propafenone for prevention of recurrences of AF

A

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rhythm control:

What do you need to monitor while on Amiodarone?

A

Can elevate serum aminotransferases or cause hepatitis

Monitor LFTs and thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rhythm control:

What are some options for chemical cardioversion?

A
  • oral flecanaide
  • oral propafenone
  • IV amiodarone
  • ibutilide
  • procainamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rate control:

List the 2 first line drug classes

A
  • BB

- CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rate control:

When should digoxin be considered?

A

only when response to 1st line agents is inadequate since it is not very effective and there are concerns that it may increase mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rate control:

Targets for BP ?

A
  • Resting HR < 80 bpm
  • Mean HR < 100 bpm
  • using 24 hour Holter monitoring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rate control:

If rate control can’t be achieved with meds, consider what?

A

AV nodal ablation or permanent pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who is anticoagulation recommended for?

A

For the prevention of thromboembolic stroke in patients who have A. fib or flutter and are at high risk of stroke

17
Q

use _____ to estimate stroke risk

A

CHADS2

18
Q

use _____ to estimate bleed risk

A

HAS-BLED

19
Q

What are some options?

A
  • warfarin
  • DOACs

dabigatran and apixaban found to be better than warfarin

*guidelines suggest using DOAC > warfarin

20
Q

What is an option for those who are not candidates for oral anticoagulants?

A

Percutaneous Left Atrial Appendage Occlusion

21
Q

1st line for management of re-entrant tachycardias and focal atrial tachycardias

A

catheter ablation