op pol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

1.Which is the highest law of the land? (A) Indian Penal Code (B) Indian Constitution (C) Civil Procedure Code (D) Criminal Procedure Code

A

“(B) (SSC CHSL 2002) Exp: Constitution of India is the highest law of land in India. It is a document having a special legal sanctity which sets out the framework and principal functions of government. It is also termed as ““Fundamental Law”” of country which reflects people’s faith and aspirations.”

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2
Q

2.The constitution of India was framed by: (A) Planning Commission (B) Constituent Assembly (C) President (D) Working Committee

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constitution of India was framed by constituent assembly which consisted of total 389 members before partition and 299 members after partition of India.

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3
Q

3.The Indian constitution was adopted on- (A) 26 January, 1950 (B) 26 January,1946 (C) 26 November, 1949 (D) 31 December, 1949

A

(C) (SSC sectional off. Exam 2007) Exp: Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November, 1949. We can find the mention of date of adoption of constitution in the Preamble of constitution. Preamble along with some provisions of constitution came into force on November 26, 1949 itself.

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4
Q

4.The Indian constitution came into force on (A) 26 January, 1950 (B) 26 January,1952 (C) 15 August, 1948 (D) 31 Novembar,1949

A

“(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2009,CHSL 2016) Exp: Indian constitution came into force on 26th January 1950. January 26 was selected as the date of commencement of the constitution of India because on this date in 1930, Indian people observed ‘Independence Day’ following the resolution of ““Poorna Swaraj”” of congress session held in the midnight of December 31, 1929 at Lahore.”

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5
Q

5.January 26 selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because (A) It was considered to be an auspicious day (B) On that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942 (C) The Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930 (D) None of these.

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2006) Exp: Same as above. Constitutional Development, Nature and Sources of Constitution Chapter-01

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6
Q

6.Constitution Day of India is on ________. (A) 26th January (B) 23rd June (C) 15th August (D) 26th November

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constitution Day which is also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas ‘ is celebrated on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of constitution of India. We, the people of India, adopted constitution of India on this date only in 1949, which came into force on 26th January 1950.

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7
Q

7.The original constitution of India was published in? (A) Delhi (B) Srinagar (C) Ajmer (D) Dehradun

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: The original constitution of India took nearly 5 years to publish and it was published in Dehradun.

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8
Q

8.Indian Constitution is made up of how many words? (A) 40000 (B) 60000 (C) 80000 (D) 120000

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Initially, the Constitution of India contained 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules which were comprised of approx 80,000 words in its English language version. At present, Constitution contains 448 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules comprising of approximately 1,17,000 words in its English version.

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9
Q

9.The Constituion of which country is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world? (A) Russia (B) United Kingdom (C) USA (D) India

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country. Originally, it had 22 Parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

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10
Q

10.First country to make constitution is ________. (A) India (B) England (C) USA (D) Sri Lanka

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constitution is a legally sanctified document, consisting of basic governing principles of state. U.S.A. was the first country to make constitution which was ratified on June 21, 1788.

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11
Q

11.The original 1950 Constitution of India is preserved in _______ ?(A) President House (B) Prime Minister House (C) Parliament House (D) Archaeological Survey of India

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: The original constitution of India was not typeset or printed but written in beautiful calligraphy by Prem Behari Narain Raizada. The document is now preserved in a special helium-filled case in library of Parliament.

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12
Q

12.The drafting committee wrote the Indian Constitution in which language? (A) English and Hindi (B) Only English (C) English and Urdu (D) English, Hindi and Urdu

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Drafting committee was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on 29th August 1947 to prepare a draft of the new constitution. It took less than six months to prepare its draft which was prepared only in English and later on translated into Hindi.

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13
Q

13.What does the wheel in the National Flag represent? (A) Speed (B) Truth (C) Growth (D) Future

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: National Flag of India is a rectangular flag consisting of deep saffron, white and green colours with a 24-spoke wheel (the Ashok chakra) in navy blue at its centre. The wheel represents truth, justice and forwardness.

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14
Q

14.In the National Flag of India, Ashoka Chakra is a ________ spoked wheel. (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 24

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above.

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15
Q

15.Who among the following was the first ‘Minister of Finance’ in independent India? (A) R.K. Shanmukham Chetty (B) Liaquat Ali Khan (C) John Mathai (D) Satya Narayan Sinha

A

(A) (SSC CPO-SI 2016) Exp: R.K Shanmukham Chetty was first Minister of Finance of independent India. John Mathai took over the Railway and transport ministry. Whereas, Liaquat Ali khan was finance minister in interim government which was formed in 1946.

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16
Q

16.Which among the following Articles came into force on 26th November 1949, the day the Indian Constitution was adopted? (A) Article 388 (B) Article 390 (C) Article 387 (D) Article 386

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2016) Exp: India adopted its constitution on 26th Nov. 1949. Preamble along with some articles was enacted on this day only. These articles are Art. 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379,380, 388, 391, 392, and 393.

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17
Q

17.When did India become a Complete Sovereign Democratic Republic- (A) 26 January 1949 (B) 26 November 1951 (C) 26 November 1930 (D) 26 November 1949

A

(D) (SSC CHSL Exam 2015) Exp: Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949. Preamble along with some others articles was enacted on this day only. Preamble defines India as Sovereign, Democratic, Republic.

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18
Q

18.Which of the following country has an Nonwritten constitution- (A) USA (B) UK (C) Pakistan (D India

A

(B) (SSC Sec. off. 2006) Exp: Non-written constitution means no single document where all the laws are written. UK, New Zealand and Israel have non-written constitution.

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19
Q

19.A unitary form of government is that in which all the powers are concentrated in the hands of (A) Local government (B) Central government (C) Provincial government (D Panchayats

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Unitary form of govt is a type of govt in which country is governed by a single unit of power i.e. central government which controls all the state affairs with a unified command.

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20
Q

20.Bicameral system is a feature of which of the following form of government- (A) Parliamentary system (B) President system (C) Federal system (D) Unitary system

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier-1 2012) Exp: Bi-cameral system is the system of having two chambers i.e. lower house and upper house. Generally, the concept of upper house is related with representation of states at central legislature, which can be a requirement in federal set-up. Therefore it is a feature of Federal system. Example India.

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21
Q

21.The division of power and Independence of judiciary are two important features of - (A) Democratic character of government (B) Federal character of government (C) Socialist character of government (D) Unitary character of government

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier-1 2013) Exp: Division of power and independence of judiciary are two important features of Federal character of government. Other important features of federal government are written constitution, rigidity of constitution and supremacy of constitution. Federation of U.S.A. is called the perfect Federation.

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22
Q

22.The serious fault in federal form of government is- (A) The Threat of separatism (B) Authoritarian Governance(C) Ignorance to Local Issues (D) Inefficient Administration

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level 2008) Exp: Federal form of government is a structure in which a number of states are in agreement with the another to remain as a group but they each hold the right to secede i.e. withdraw from group. Example - U.S.A.

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23
Q

23.Which of the following has the feature of dual citizenship? (A) Unitary Government (B) Federal Government (C) Parliamentary Government (D) President Ruled Government

A

(B) (SSC Steno. 2011) Exp: Federal form of government has the feature of dual citizenship. Federal countries like U.S.A and Switzerland have dual citizenship, namely federal/national citizenship and citizenship of state where a person is born or permanently resides.

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24
Q

24.The Advantage of un itary system of governance is- (A) More adaptability (B) Strong state (C) More participation by the people (D) Less chance of authoritarianism

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level 2008) Exp: A unitary form of government is a government in which all powers of state are concentrated in hands of central government. Under this system administration becomes strong as all the powers are in hands of one government and greater skill and efficiency is reflected both in domestic and international affairs.

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25
Q

25.In which of the form, composit India has been described in the constitution? (A) A Union State (B) Semi-Federal (C) Federation of States and Territories (D) Partly Unitary and Partly Federal

A

“(A) (SSC Steno. 2005, CGL 2000,SSC Matric Level 1999,2000,02, Sec. off. 2006) Exp: Article 1 says, ““India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states.”” The term union was suggested by Dr. BR Ambedkar, which indicates two things - first, Indian Union is not a result of agreement of sovereign states and second, state do not have right to secede from union.”

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26
Q

26.Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Constituion? (A) Parliamentary form of Government (B) Independence of Judiciary (C) Presidential form of Government (D) Federal Government

A

(C) (SSC (10+2) Date Entry Operator & LDC) 2012) Exp: India is a country which has parliamentary form of government with federal system of governance that has a feature of Independence of Judiciary. Presidential form of government is a feature of USA and France.

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27
Q

27.What is the basis of classification of governments as unitary and federal? (A) Relationship between legislature and executive (B) Relationship between executive and judiciary (C) Relationship between the centre and states (D) Relationship between the legislature, executive and judicial wings of government

A

(C) (SSC FCI Assistant Grade-III 2012) Exp: On the basis of distribution of powers between the centre and states, the government is classified into two Unitary and Federal government. In Unitary form of govt all powers are kept with center, some of which can be delegated to state whereas in federal government there is complete division of powers between center and state.

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28
Q

28.Indian Constitution is- (A) Federal (B) Quasi Federal (C) Unitary (D) Presidential

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level 2008) Exp: Though Indian constitution has characteristics of federal structure, still it is called ‘quasi-federal’ in nature. This is because, in federal structure there is complete seperation of powers between center and states and center cannot interfere in affairs of state and vice-versa. Whereas in India there are provisions under which center can interfere in powers of state under few circumstances like national emergency, which makes it quasi-federal.

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29
Q

29.Which of the following is the inalienable attribute of the parliamentary system of government? (A) Flexibility of the Constit-ution (B) Fusion of Executive and Legislature (C) Judicial Supremacy (D) Parliamentary Sovereignty

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level 2008) Exp: Parliamentary system of government is a system in which there is close relationship between executive and legislature and executive is part of legislature.

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30
Q

30.Democratic Socialism aims at (A) bringing about Socialism through peaceful means (B) bringing about Socialism through violent and peaceful means (C) bringing about Socialism through violent means (D) bringing about Socialism through democratic means

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level 2008) Exp: Democratic socialism is a political ideology which aims at political democracy alongside social ownership of means of production i.e. socialism through democratic me

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31
Q

31.Which of the following judgements stated that ‘Secularism’ and ‘Federalism are the basic features of the Indian Constitution? (A) Keshavanada Bharati case (B) S.R. Bommai case(C) Indira Sawhney case (D) Minerva Mills case

A

(B) (SSC CHSL DEO & LDC 2014) Exp: The concept of basic structure was given by supreme court in Keshwananda Bharti case, 1973. At that time court did not define what is basic structure. Supreme court in subsequent cases defined some of the basic structures. In S.R. Bommai case, 1994 which was related to misuse of article 356 i.e. state emergency or President’s rule, Supreme Court stated ‘Secularism’ and ‘Federalism’ as basic structures of constitution.

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32
Q

32.Which of the following elements are necessary for a democratic system- (A) Free and unbiased election (B) Equality of opportunity (C) Protection of rights (D) All of these

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exp: Democratic system is a system in which all the citizens have equality of opportunity and rights, to which they can protect to exercise power directly or elect their representatives through free and unbiased election

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33
Q

33.Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government? (A) China (B) USA (C) Cuba (D) Belgium

A

(B) (SSC Tax Asst. 2008) Exp: U.S.A. enjoys a truely federal form of govt. It established dual form of government i.e. federal/central government and state governments. Neither is subordinate to other but are coordinate and independent within the sphere alloted to them.

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34
Q

34.The declaration that Democracy is a Government of the people, by the people for the people was made by (A) Abrahm Lincoln (B) George Washington (C) Theodre Roosevelt (D) Winston Churchill

A

(A) (SSC Grad. 2010) Exp: 16th President of U.S.A. ,Abraham Lincoln defined democracy as government of the people, by the people and for the people.

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35
Q

35.The Presidential Government operates on the principles of- (A) Division of powers between centre and states (B) Centralisation of Powers (C) Balance of Powers (D Separation of powers

A

(D) (SSC Grad. 2014) Exp: Presidential form of government is that form of government in which there is separation of powers between executive and legislature. Here executive is not the part of legislature unlike parliamentary form of govt.

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36
Q

36.Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List- I List- II (From of Govt) (Principles) A. Presidential 1. Separation of powers System B. Parliamentary 2. Close relationship between executive and legislature C. Federal System 3. Division of powers D. Unitary System 4. Concentration of power Code: A B C D (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 1 2 4 3

A

(A) (SSC Grad. 2006) Exp: • Presidential system separation of powers between executive and legislature. • Parliamentary system close relationship between executive and legislature and also executive is accountable to legislature. • Federal system division of powers between center and states governments. • Unitary system Concentration of power in hands of central govt.

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37
Q

37.In a federal Government the states enjoy (A) Original powers (B) Powers delegated by the Centre (C) Powers given by the Constitution (D) Powers given by the people

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 1999) Exp:In federal form of government there is a complete division of powers between center and states. Constitution is the guiding document which confers powers to state government and central government in this set up.

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38
Q

38.The most important feature of Cabinet system of Government is- (A) Individual responsibility (B) Collective responsibility (C) Responsibility to none (D) Non- responsibility

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: Parliamentary democracy envisages a cabinet form of government with a president as a nominal head of executive. In this set up ministers are collectively responsible towards parliament in general and lower house in particular.

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39
Q

39.In Presidential Government, the President is- (A) Independent of the Legislature (B) Dependent on the Legislature(C) Dependent on the Judiciary (D) Bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers

A

(A) (SSC CPO-SI 2014) Exp: Presidential form of government is the one in which there is separation of powers between executive and legislature and President, who is the executive head, is independent of legislature.

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40
Q

40.Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government (A Are drawn from both the Houses of Legislature (B) Are only form the popular House (C) Are not members of either House of Legislature (D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment.

A

(C) (SSC Malti Tasking 2013) Exp: In presidential system of government members of executive are not members of either House of legislature. U.S.A and France follows the presidential system of government.

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41
Q

“41.”“Persons may change but rules should not change”” is the principle of (A) Absolute Monarchy (B) Constitutional Government (B) Unwritten Constitution (D) Republic”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2001) Exp: In constitutional government, the government functions under the provisions written in a document called constitution which sets out framework and principal functions of government. Here, the person who is leading the government may change but rules or provisions under constitution should not change.

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42
Q

“42.The convention that ““once a speaker always a speaker”” is followed in- (A) UK (B) USA (C) France (D) India”

A

“(A) Exp: In UK, there is a convention that ““once a speaker always a speaker””. British speaker is elected at the beginning of parliament by and from among the members of House of Commons. If the speaker of outgoing Parliament is still a member of the house and is willing to be re-elected, he can do so. Usually, he is re-elected as many times as he wants. A change of party does not make any difference.”

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43
Q

43.A federal structure for India was first put forward by the: (A) Act of 1909 (B) Act of 1919 (C) Act of 1935 (D) Act of 1947

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: A Federal structure for India was first put forward in Government of India Act of 1935. The act divided the powers between centre and provinces in terms of three lists namely Federal list, Provincial list and the Concurrent list. Residuary powers were vested with Viceroy.

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44
Q

44.Which of the following is not considered a Democracy? (A) USA (B) Norway (C) India (D) China

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Democracy is government by the people in which supreme power is vested in people and exercised directly or indirectly by them. India, U.S.A and Norway are considered as democracies. China is a communist country where power is centralised to one ruling party.

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45
Q

45.A big difference is there in between principle and behavior- (A) Presidential Form of Government (B) Fascist Form of Government (C) Parliamentary Form of Government (D) Socialist Form of Government

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: There is always a big difference in between principle and behaviour in parliamentary form of government. In principle, President is executive head of state, but real repository of all executive powers is Prime Minister.

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46
Q

46.Which of the following is a feature of Presidential form of government? (A) It protects the freedom of people (B) It ensures the speedy execution of policies (C) Fix term stabilizes the system (D) All of these

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: In presidential form of government, head of government leads an executive branch that is separate from legislative branch. There is a fix term for both executive and legislature which stabilizes the system. This form of government ensures speedy execution of policies along with protection of freedom of people.

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47
Q

47.When was the first Central Legislative Assembly constituted- (A) 1922 (B) 1923 (C) 1921 (D) 1920

A

(C) (SSC MTS 2014) Exp: First Central Legislative Assembly was constituted in 1921 by GOI Act, 1919, implementing MontaguChelmsford Reforms. Assembly had 145 members who were either nominated or indirectly elected from provinces.

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48
Q

48.Who was the first Indian president of Central Legislature? (A) Sacchidanand Sinha (B) G.V.Mavalanker (C) Vitthal Bhai Patel (D) Rajendra Prasad

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Central legislative assembly was established in 1921 which consisted of 145 members. Frederick Whyte was first President while Vitthal Bhai Patel became the first Indian President of central legislature in 1925.

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49
Q

49.Local governance is the foundation of - (A Elite system (B) Secular state (C) democracy (D) Reservation

A

(C)Exp: Democracy is rule by the people directly or indirectly. Whereas, Local governance is an example of devolution of powers or decentralization. It provides power to govern to the people at local level. Therefore, local governance establishes foundation of democracy as both have citizens or people at its core.

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50
Q

50.Sovereign Parliament is a contribution of- (A) England (B) India (C) France (D) Japan

A

(A) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Sovereign Parliament means Parliament is free from outside influence and it has undisputed legal authority. It is a contibution of England which has given the parliamentary form to the world.

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51
Q

51.Fundamental Rights of Indian constitution have been adopted from which of the following nation- (A) America (B) U.K. (C) Soviet Russia (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC multitasking Exam, 2013) Exp: Most striking difference between GOI Act, 1935 and present constitution is the presence of fundamental rights in constitution which forms Part-3 of constitution. It is similar to the Bill of Rights of U.S. constitution.

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52
Q

52.In India single citizenship has been adopted from- (A) England (B) USA (C) Canada (D) France

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2011) Exp: Single citizenship in India can be understood in two contexts. First, Indian Citizens cannot acquire citizenship of another country and vice-versa. And secondly, in India there is only national citizenship and no seperate citizenship of states unlike U.S.A.

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53
Q

“53.The ““Rule of law”” is the speciality of which of the following- (A) Britain (B) USA (C) France (D) Switzerland”

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier-1 2014) Exp: Lord Dicey popularised the concept of Rule of law in Britain. Rule of law means ‘law is supreme’ and ‘no one is above the law’. In India, constitution is supreme law of land.

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54
Q

54.From where did India adopted the federal system with a strong centre? (A) United States of America (B) Canada (C) United Kingdom (D) France

A

(B) (SSC Matric 2008, CGL 2006) Exp: India adopted federal system with a strong center from Canada. Other Provisions adopted from Canada are distribution of powers between union and states, placing residuary powers with centre, and appointment of governer by center.

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55
Q

55.Indian federalism is closer to- (A) Nigeria (B) Australia (C) Canada (D) USA

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2012) Exp: Indian federalism is closer to Canada as both has a federal system with a strong center. Similarly, Federation of Australia and USA are closer to each other.

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56
Q

“56.Where is the word ““Federal”” used in the constitution of India? (A) Preamble (B) Part3 (C) Article 368 (D) Nowhere in constitution”

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2012) Exp: Though India has federal system of governance, the word ‘Federal’ is nowhere mentioned in the constitution. Instead, Article -1, defines India as ‘Union of states’.

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57
Q

57.Which of the following is not a feature of centralized government? (A) Dependent State (B) Judicial Review (C) Single Government (D) Flexible Constitution

A

(B) (SSC MTS 2014) Exp: Centralized government or unitary form of government is the one in which country is governed by a single unit of power. Therefore, single government, Flexible constitution and dependent state are features of this.

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58
Q

58.The president of India has the same constitution powers which _______ have (A) British crown (B) President of USA (C) President of Pakistan (D) President of France

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. 2006) Exp: Though president is the executive head of union, his powers are nominal. The real repository of all executive powers of union is Prime Minister. Same is the governance system in Britain where British Crown has same powers which President of India has.

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59
Q

59.The system of Budget was introduced in India during the Viceroyalty of - (A) Canning (B) Dalhousie (C) Ripon (D) Elgin

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: India’s First budget was introduced in February, 1860 by James Wilson. It was introduced during the Viceroyalty of Lord Canning.

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60
Q

60.The directive principle of state policy has been adopted from which constitution? (A) U.S. Constitution (B) British Constitution (C) Irish Constitution (D) French Constitution

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Part-IV of Indian constitution, Article 36 to 51 describes DPSP which has been adopted from Irish constitution. Other Provisions borrowed from Irish constitution are Method of election of president and

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61
Q

61.From which of the following nations,we have taken the provision of judicial review? (A) England (B) USA (C) Canada (D) Australia

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2006) Exp: Judicial review is power of judiciary to review any law passed by legislature or act done by executive. Article- 13 provides this power to judiciary in cases related to violation of Fundamental rights. This provision has been borrowed from U.S.A.

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62
Q

62.The impeachment process of President of India is adopted from- (A) USA (B) UK (C) USSR (D) France

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Article -61 defines the procedure of impeachment of President which has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A.. Other features borrowed from U.S.A. are Independence of judiciary, President as executive head, Fundamental rights, Judicial Review, Preamble, removal of judges of supreme court and high court, and Vice president as ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.

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63
Q

63.Which of the following feature has been adopted from the constitution of USA by the maker of Indian constitution? (A) Judicial Review (B) Fundamental Rights (C) Removal of the Judges of Supreme Court (D) All of these

A

(D) (SSC lower divisional Exam 2005) Exp: same as above

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64
Q

64.From where have we borrowed the parliamentary form of government? (A) Russia (B) Ireland (C) Britain (D) America

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Parliamentary form of government is a type of government in which Council of Ministers is collectively responsible towards the lower house in particular and Parliament in general. This feature has been borrowed from Britain along with law making procedures, rule of law and single citizenship.

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65
Q

65.The system of nomination of members of Rajya Sabha has been borrowed from the constitution- (A) United States of America (B) Ireland (C) South Africa (D) France

A

(B) (SSC MTS 2011) Exp: President of India nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha. Any person having special knowledge and practical Experience in art, science, literature and social service can be nominated to Rajya Sabha. We borrowed this feature from Ireland.

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66
Q

66.The assumption of concurrent list of Indian constitution has been borrowed from- (A) Japan (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) USA

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exp: As per 7th Schedule of constitution, there are three lists - Union list, State list and Concurrent list. Concurrent list which has currently 52 subject matters has been borrowed from Australia. Others provisions borrowed from Australia are provisions regarding trade, commerce and intercourse.

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67
Q

67.Which of the following was a popular slogan of French revolution? (A) Sovereign Democratic Republic (B) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity (C) Freedom, Equality and Justice (D) Freedom, Equality and Accountability

A

“(B) (SSC Steno. 2005) Exp: Popular slogan of French Revolution (1789) was ““Liberty, Equality and Fraternity””. These three are also ideals of constitution of India along with ‘justice’ which is inspired from Russian revolution.”

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68
Q

68.Which of the following is an Example of Unitary and Presidential system of governance/ Government? (A) USA (B) Canada (C) India (D) France

A

(D) (SSC MTS 2006) Exp: France is an example of Unitary and Presidential form of government whereas Britain has Unitary and Parliamentary form of government. India, U.S.A. and Canada all are federation.

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69
Q

69.The parliament of India has bassed the environment (conservation) bill in- (A) 1972 (B) 1984 (C) 1981 (D) 1986

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Parliament has passed Environment (conservation and protection) Act in 1986. This act was passed in the wake of Bhopal gas Tragedy to avoid such incidents in future.

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70
Q

70.Which type of democracy do we follow in India? (A) Direct (B) Presidential (C) Representative (D) Dictatorship

A

Ans (C) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Democracy is basically of two types-direct and indirect. In direct democracy people directly participate in policy initiatives. Whereas in indirect democracy or representative democracy policy initiatives are being taken by representatives elected by people. India has representative democracy.

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71
Q

71.The concept of constitution first originated in (a) Switzerland (b) Britain (c) U.S.A (d) Japan

A

“(B)Exp: Concept of constitution first originated in Britain which has unwritten constitution. England’s Parliament, often called ““Mother of parliaments”” has existed for over seven centuries and founding document of its constitution is considered as Magna Carta signed by King John in 1215.”

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72
Q

72.’Cabinet system’ and ‘Collective responsibility’ are the contributions of (A) Ireland (B) United State (C) India (D) Britain

A

(D) (SSC Combined Matric Level Pre 2002) Exp: ‘Cabinet system’ and ‘collective responsibility’ are features of parliamentary form of government, which is contribution of Britain. ‘Cabinet’ is a group of ministers within Council of Ministers which is power-center of decision making whereas ‘ collective responsibility’ means existence of Council of Ministers is only till they enjoy majority in lower house and all their actions are subject to scrutiny of parliament.

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73
Q

73.Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the constitution? (A) The Preamble (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part I

A

(A) (SSC (10+2) Level Date Entry Operator & LDC 2013) Exp: Ideals of Indian democracy can be seen in the Preamble which has been borrowed from U.S.A. Ideals mentioned in Preamble are justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.

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74
Q

74.The method of amending the constitution by popular veto is found in (A) Britain (B) Switzerland (C) Russia (D) India

A

(B) (SSC CAPFs SI, CISF ASI & Delhi Police SI 2014) Exp: Popular veto is a form of direct democracy, where voters also participate in legislation through a petition. This system is found in Switzerland.

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75
Q

75.Universal adult franchise shows that India is a country which is- (A) Secular (B) Socialist (C) Democratic (D) Sovereign

A

(C) (SSC CHSL (10+2) DEO & LDC 2014) Exp: Universal Adult Franchise means every citizen who is an adult has the right to vote without any discrimination. Article-326 assures people’s right to vote. Free and unbiased elections are elements of democracy and right to vote shows India is a country which is democratic.

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76
Q

76.Name of country from which the consititution features of procedures for amendment was borrowed by India- (A) Britain (B) America (C) South Africa (D) Germany

A

(C) (SSC CPO SI, ASI 2016) Exp: Article - 368, Part XX of Indian constitution talks about power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedure. This provision has been borrowed from South Africa.

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77
Q

“77.From which of the following country Indian Constitution borrowed the feature ““The written Constituion? (A) USSR (B) UK (C) U.S (D) Japan”

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2016) Exp: Constitution can be either written constitution or unwritten constitution. Unwritten constitution means no single book where all the laws are written. Whereas in written constitution all laws are written in a single book. U.S.A. was the first country to have written constitution. India borrowed this feature from U.S.A. only.

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78
Q

78.Which of the following exercised the most profound inference in framing of Indian constitution? (A) British constitution(B) U.S. constitution (C) Irish constitution (D) GOI act, 1935

A

(D) (SSC-CGL 2000) Exp: Most profound influence in framing constitution was exercised by GOI Act, 1935. Majority of provisions in constitution have been adopted from GOI Act, 1935. Federal scheme, office of governor, power of federal judiciary, emergency powers etc. were drawn from this act.

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79
Q

“79.The Phrase ““equality before law”” used in article-14 of Indian constitution has been borrowed from (A) U.S.A (B) Germany (C) Britain (D) Greece”

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:Article-14 talks about two concepts of equalityEquality before law and equal protection of law. Equality before law is a British concept whereas equal protection of law has been borrowed from U.S constitution.

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80
Q

80.The Westminster parliamentary system was developed in ___________. (A) Spain (B) Australia (C) UK (D) USA

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: The westminster parliamentary system is a democratic system of government modelled after that of United Kingdom system, as used in the palace of Westminster, the location of the parliament of UK.

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81
Q

81.Which of the following act suggested the post of Comptroller and Auditor General? (A) Act of 1909 (B) Act of 1919 (C) Act of 1935 (D) Act of 1947

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Exam 2014) Exp: The system of government accounting and auditing through post of Comptroller and Auditor General as it exists today is legacy of British Raj. The introduction of constitutional reforms in 1919 through GOI Act, 1919 brought about statutory recognition to the post of Comptroller and Auditor General.

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82
Q

82.Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent Assembly first in 1935?(A) Nehru (B) Gandhi (C) J.P. Narayan (D) M.N. Roy

A

(D) (SSC Stenographer C & D 2016) Exp: M.N. Roy for the first time in 1934 came up with the idea of constituent assembly which became official demand of India National congress in 1935. And this demand for constituent assembly was first accepted by Britishers in August Offer of 1940.

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83
Q

83.The constituent Assembly was set up in: (a) 1945 (b) 1946 (c) 1947 (d) 1949

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 which took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to frame the constitution. Initially, It consisted of total of 389 members, out of which 296 were elected by provincial assemblies and 93 were nominated by princely states. After partition of India number of total members reduced to 299, out of which 229 were from provincial assemblies and 70 from princely states

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84
Q

84.The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted on the scheme of - (A) Wavell plan (B) Cripps mission (C) August offer (D) Cabinet mission

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier-1 2013,SSC Grad. 2004)) Exp: Demand for constituent assembly was first accepted in August offer of 1940 by British government. But it was constituted on the scheme of Cabinet mission plan of 1946

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85
Q

85.Who presided over the first meeting of Indian constituent Assembly? (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Sachchidandada Sinha (C) B.R. Ambedkar (D) H.V. Kamath

A

(B) (SSC 2006,SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: First meeting was presided over by the oldest member of assembly, Dr. Sachidanand Sinha on 9th December, 1946. He was the temporary/interim chairman. Later on, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent chairman of constituent assembly.

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86
Q

86.Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India- (A) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (B) Dr.Rajendra Prasad (C) Dr. B.N. Rao (D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2000,06, MTS 1999) Exp: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as chairman/ president of constituent assembly of India on 11th Dec. 1946. Later on, he became the first President of Independent India. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as vicepresident of assembly.

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87
Q

87.The Constituent Assembly which enacted the Constitution of Indian, its members were- (A) Nominated by Political Parties (B) Elected by the Legislative Assemblies of different provinces. (C) Directly elected by People (D) Nominated by Governer General

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: The members of constituent assembly were elected indirectly by the members of Provincial Assemblies in the ratio of one member per one million population by method of proportional representation through single transferable vote system.

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88
Q

88.Who was the constitutional advisor to the constituent assembly at the time of the drafting of the constitution? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar (C) B.N. Rau (D) Rajendra Prasad

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2014,SSC CPO 2006, Matric 2006) Exp: B.N. Rau was appointed as Legal advisor of the constituent assembly. He also assisted in drafting the early constitution of Burma i.e. present day Myanmar.

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89
Q

89.Who is considered as the maker of the constitution of India? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) B.R.Ambedkar (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) B.N.Rau

A

“(B) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: B.R. Ambedkar is considered as the ‘Maker of constitution’ or the ‘Father of Indian constitution’. He was the chairman of drafting committee which drafted the constitution that is why he is also called ““Chief Architect of constitution.”””

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90
Q

90.Which of the following was not a member of the drafting committee of the constitution- (A) B.R.Ambedkar (B) Alladi Krishnaswamy (C) Gopalaswami Ayyangar (D) Rajendra Prasad

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2015) Exp: Rajendra Prasad was not a member of drafting committee. He was president of constituent assembly. Drafting committee whose chairman was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consisted of 7 members. Other members of committee were - K.M. Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, N Gopalaswami Ayengar, B.L. Mitter (later replaced by Madhav Rao), Md. Saadullah, D. P. Khaitan (later replaced by T. T. Krishnamachari).

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91
Q

91.Who among the following was not a member of the constituent Assembly? (A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (B) Acharya J. B Kripalani (C) Jay Prakash Narayan (D) K.M. Munshi

A

(C)Exp: Constituent assembly consisted of 389 members initially and 299 after partition of India. Its prominent members were Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, C. Rajagopalachari, J.B. Kripalani, K.M. Munshi, Asaf Ali etc. Jay Prakash Narayan was not a member of it.

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92
Q

92.How many members were in the interim Parliament of India- (A) 296 (B) 313 (C) 318 (D) 316

A

(A) (SSC CHSL Exam 2014) Exp: Interim parliament of India had 296 members. Interim government was formed from the members of this interim parliament on 2nd September, 1946

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93
Q

93.The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the constituent Assembly of India was- (A) K.M. Munshi (B) D.P. Khaitan (C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (D) T.T. Krishanmachari

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Chairman of drafting committee was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This committee was set up on 29th August 1947 to prepare the draft of constitution of India. It consisted of 7 members.

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94
Q

94.Who among the following was the Chairman of Fundamental Rights sub-Committee of the Constitutent Assembly? (A) J. B. Kripalani (B) Rajendra Prasad (C) B. R. Ambedkar (D) Gopinath Bardoloi

A

(A) Exp: Fundamental rights sub-committee was given the task to draft the fundamental rights. This committee was headed by J.B. Kripalani who was the president of Indian National congress during the time of independence.

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95
Q

95.Objective resolution was moved in constituent assembly by- (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Kiran Desai (C) K. Natwar Singh (D) K. M. Munshi

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Objective resolution was moved in constituent Assembly by Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru on 13th December 1946 which ultimately became the preamble to the constitution of India. It set out main objectives which were intended to achieve by constituent assembly while formation of constitution.

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96
Q

96.The National Anthem was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in (A) 24th May 1949 (B) 24th November 1949 (C) 24th January 1950 (D) 24th June 1950

A

“(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Our National Anthem ““Jan Gana Mana”” which is written by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore, was first sung at Kolkata session of Indian National Congress in 1911. It was officially adopted by constituent assembly as National Anthem of India on 24th January 1950, which was also the last day of constituent assembly. SSC CGL & CPO - 2017”

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97
Q

97.Who described Constitution of India as ‘quasifederal’? (A) Granville Austin (B) Ione Jennings (C) Morris Jones (D) K. C. Wheare

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: K.C. Wheare described Constitution of India as ‘Quasi-federal’. Quasi-federal set-up is a Federal system with inclination towards Unitary system. In this set-up Centre can interfere in State matters during certain circumstances unlike in federal set-up.

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98
Q

98.Emergency provisions in Indian Constitution has been taken from _____. (A) British constitution (B) Government of India Act 1935 (C) Irish constitution (D) Japanese constitution

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Emergency provision in Indian constitution has been drawn from Govt. of India Act of 1935 and also borrowed from Weimar constitution of Germany. Article - 352 deals with national emergency and it can be evoked on grounds of national security, threat and internal armed rebellion.

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99
Q

1.Where can we see the values of Indian democracy in the constitution? (A) Preamble (B) Part-3 (C) Part-4 (D) Part-1

A

(A) (SSC CHSL Exam 2013) Exp: Values of Indian democracy can be seen in Preamble of constitution. It is a brief introductory statement of constitution’s fundamental purposes and guiding principles. It is based on Objective Resolution moved by Jawahar Lal Nehru in constituent assembly which set out main objectives which were intended to achieve by constituent assembly while formation of constitution.

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100
Q

2.Which of the following is described as the ‘Soul of the constitution’? (A) Fundamental Right (B) Fundamental Duties (C) Directive Principles for state Policy (D) Preamble

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Preamble is called the ‘Soul of constitution’ because whenever there arises any doubt in interpretation of constitution, the matter is decided in light of preamble.

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101
Q

3.Which of the following forms are/is described for India in the preamble of constitution- (A) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic (B) A Socialist, Democratic, Republic (C) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic Republic (D) A Republic

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006,SSC CPO Exam 2008,SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Preamble describes the nature of Indian state. It gives a clear picture about the type of India which is to be constituted i.e. a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.

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102
Q

4.Which of the following term is not used in the preamble of the constitution- (A) Sovereign Democratic Republic (B) Socialist (C) Secular (D) Federal

A

“(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2003,07,09) Exp: Nowhere in the constitution, the word ““Federal”” is being mentioned. Whereas Preamble of India declare India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republic polity.”

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103
Q

5.What is Popular Sovereignty- (A) Domination of people (B) Domination of representative of people (C) Domination of Judiciary (D) Domination of Legislative

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2015) Exp: Popular Sovereignty is the principle, according to which the government is created by the consent of its people, through their elected representatives, who are source of all political powers.

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104
Q

6.The first country which adopted Preamble for its written constitution (A) USA (B) India (C) Britain (D) Canada

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: U.S.A was the first country to adopt preamble for its written constitution. India followed the same.

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105
Q

7.How many times has The Preamble of the constitution been amended- (A) 3 times (B) 2 times (C) 1 time (D) Never amended

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Exam 2014) Exp: Preamble was amended only once in 42nd amendment act of 1976. Words ‘Socialist’ ,’Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ were added into preamble by this amendment act after report of Sardar Swarn Singh Committee.

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106
Q

8.Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution? (A) The 3rdth Amendment Act, 1975 (B) The 40the Amendment Act, 1976 (C) The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (D) The 4th Amendment Act, 1979

A

(C) (SSC Grad. 2008) Exp: Same as above

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107
Q

9.In which Amendment, the words ‘Socialist’, Secular’ and ‘Unity and Integrity of the Nation’ wereadded to the Premable of constitution of India? (A) 42nd (B) 44th (C) 52nd (D) None of them

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2016,SSC CPO SI 2009) Exp: Same as above

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108
Q

10.At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?(A) Liberty (B) Equality (C) Socialist (D) Justice

A

(C) (SSC Grad. 2006) Exp: Same as above

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109
Q

11.Which of the following is not mentioned in The Preamble of our constitution- (A) Justice (B) Fraternity (C) Equality of dignity (D) Adult suffrage

A

(D) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp:Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternitiy are mentioned in preamble as ideologies on which constitution of India works. Whereas Adult suffrage is mentioned under article -326 and not in Preamble. Article- 326 talks about people’s right to vote.

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110
Q

12.The Philosophy and values of the makers of constitution are reflected in- (A) Fundamental rights (B) Directive principles of state policy (C) The preamble (D) Fundamental duties

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Exam 2012) Exp: Philosophy and values of makers of constitution are reflected in preamble. It embodies the essence of entire constitution and sets out main objectives, which constituent assembly intended to achieve

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111
Q

13.For which one of the following judgements of Supreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharti Vs State of India case is considered a landmark? (A) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends (B) Abolishing untouchability from the country (C) Right of life and liberty cannot be suspended under any circumstance (D) The basic structure of the Constitution, as defined in the Preamble, cannot be changed

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerela case, 1973 was most important legal battle of Indian constitution. While pronouncing the judgement, S.C. came out with the concept of basic structure of constitution to limit the power of Parliament to amend the Fundamental rights.

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112
Q

14.Indian constitution not only imagines the democratic form of government but also imagines a democratic society, because its ideology consists of- 1. Justice 2. Liberty 3. Equality 4. Fraternity (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:Constitution of India works on the ideology of Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity which are embedded in Preamble. Preamble assures justice which is not only political but also social and economic. It assures liberty of thought, Expression, belief, faith and worship along with equality of status and opportunity and promotes among them all, the fraternity which assures dignity of individual and unity and integrity of nation..

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113
Q

15.The order of the following words seen in Preamble is 1. DEMOCRATIC 2. SOCIALIST 3. SOVEREIGN 4. SECULAR 5. REPUBLIC (A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 (C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:Preamble of India pledges to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. Sovereign here means undisputed legal authority whereas Socialist signifies achievement of socialist pattern of society through democratic me The word ‘Secular’ defines that state has no religion of its own and word ‘Democratic’ means only rulers elected by people have authority to run government. Republic signifies that head of country is elected.

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114
Q

16.The term ‘We’ in preamble means (A) Indian Government(B) Supreme Court (C) Indian Parliament (D) The People of India

A

“(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Preamble tells us the source of constitution. It says, ““We, the people of India do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this constitution.”””

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115
Q

“17.Where is the objective of ““Social justice”” articulated in constitution? (A) Article-14 (B) Article-16 (C) Article-15 (D) Preamble”

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Objective of social along with political and economic justice has been articulated in Preamble of constitution.

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116
Q

18.Which of the following attribute in the preamble states that No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior? (A) Justice (B) Liberty (C) Equality (D) Fraternity

A

(D) (SSC CPO Pre. 2016) Exp: Preamble of India consists of attributes of Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity. Fraternity under constitution assures dignity of individual and integrity of Nation. According to this, we should behave as if we belong to the same family and no one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

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117
Q

19.The term ‘Fraternity’ in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution means a sense of - (A) Friendliness (B) Statehood (C) Love and affection (D) Brotherhood

A

(D) (SSC Multi-Tasking 2017) Exp: Fraternity as enshrined in the constitution means a sense of brotherhood prevailing amongst all sections of the people. This is sought to be achieved by making the state secular, guaranteeing fundamental and other rights equally to people of all sections, and protecting their interests.

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118
Q

20.A Secular State is one which: (A) Has no religion of its own (B) Is irreligious (C) Is anti-religion (D)Takes into consideration the religious sentiments of the people

A

“(A) (SSC FCI Pre. 2012) Exp: The term ““Secular State”” for India does not mean that India is non-religious or irreligious or anti-religious, but it simply means that state has no religion of its own and it follows the age-old Indian principle of ““Sarva Dharma Samabhava””. And also State regards religions as private affairs of citizens and does not discriminate on this basis.”

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119
Q

“21.What is meant when the Constitution declare India ““Secular State””? (A) Religious worship is not allowed (B) Religions are patronised by the State (C) The state regards religions as a private affairs of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis (D) None of these”

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Pre.2006) Exp: Same as above

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120
Q

22.According to our Constitution, India is _________. (A) A Religious State (B) A Secular State (C) A Capitalist State (D) A Plutocratic State

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Preamble of constitution of India mentions India as a Secular State. This word ‘Secular’ was added in preamble in 1976 after 42nd amendment act.

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121
Q

23.Who proposed the Preamble before the drafting committe of the Constitution? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) B.R. Ambedkar (C) B.N. Rao (D) Mahatma Gandhi

A

“(A) (SSC Constable 2011) Exp: The ‘Objective Resolution”” proposed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, on 13th December, 1946 and passed by constituent assembly, ultimately became the preamble to the constitution. It sets out main objectives which constituent Assembly intended to achieve.”

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122
Q

24.What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950? (A) A Democratic Republic (B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (C) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic (D) A Sovereign Secular Soicalist Democratic Republic

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2000) Exp: According to constitution at the time of its commencement on 26th January 1950, India was a Sovereign, Democratic, Republic. It got constitutional status of being Socialist and Secular after 42nd amendment act of 1976.

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123
Q

25.Which of the following term is not used in the preamble of the constitution- (A) Sovereign Democratic Republic (B) Socialist (C) Secular (D) Union

A

(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2003,07,09) Exp: There is no direct mention of the term union in the preamble of constitution. But the spirit to maintain India as a union is mentioned under preamble, in form of maintaining unity and integrity of Nation.

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124
Q

26.Republic means ultimate power is held by (A) the monarch (B) the people (C) the winning party (D) Ministers

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: A state in which supreme power is held by people and their elected representatives, and which has an elected head of state is said to be a republic state. India is a republic because in India, President who is head of state is elected for a definite period of time and representatives elected by people are repository of all powers.

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125
Q

27.India is a republic because- (A) It is democratic country (B) It is a parliamentary de-mocracy (C) The head of the state is elected for a definite period (D) All of these

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2006) Exp: Same as above

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126
Q

28.The Indian Constitution declares India as all of the following, except (A) Communist (B) Democratic republic (C)Socialist (D)Secular

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Communism is an ideology whose ultimate goal is establishment of communist society in which there is common ownership of means of production and absence of social classes and the state. Preamble of constitution of India declares India to be Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. It does not include communist.

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127
Q

29.Liberalism is a symbol of- (A) Liberalization (B) Nature and Behaviour (C) Freedom of Social, Political and Economic aspects (D) Religious conservationism

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2015) Exp: Liberalism is a political ideology which includes a broad spectrum of political philosophies that consider individual liberty to be the most important political goal, and emphasize individual rights and equality of opportunity. It includes Social, Religious, Political and economic freedom.

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128
Q

30.The number of Union Territories in India is (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 6

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2008) Exp: First Schedule of constitution specifies the names of States and Union Territories. According to it, currently India has 7 Union Territories including National Capital Territory of Delhi. Others being Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshwadeep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Chandigarh and Puducherry.

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129
Q

31.Which of the follow ing is not a Union Territory? (A) Pondicherry (B) Nagaland (C) Daman and Diu (D) Lakahadweep

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2012) Exp: Same as above

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130
Q

32.Which of the following is not a Union Territory? (A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (B) Lakashadweep (C) Puducherry (D) Nagaland

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2015) Exp: Same as above

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131
Q

33.How many states are there in the Indian Union? (A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 29

A

(D) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2015) Exp: First Schedule of constitution mentions the names of States and their territorial jurisdictions. As per this Schedule, currently India has 29 states. Latest addition in name of states is of Telangana which was created by Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.

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132
Q

34.How many schedules are in the constitution of India- (A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

A

(D) (SSC Steno. 2005, Sec. Officer 2006) Exp: At the time of commencement of constitution, there were 8 Schedules. But at present, there are 12 Schedules in constitution of India. Newly added Schedules 9, 10, 11 and 12 are related to land reforms, anti-defection law, Panchayati Raj and Urban local bodies respectively.

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133
Q

35.The total number of Languages in 8th schedule of Indian Constitution are- (A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 14

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level 2001,2008) Exp: Eighth Schedule of Indian constitution includes the languages recognised by constitution. Origionally it had 14 but presently there are 22 languages under this Schedule.

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134
Q

36.Which of the following languages is not mentioned in 8th schedule of the constitution- (A) Sanskrit (B) Sindhi (C) English (D) Nepali

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exp: English is not mentioned under 8th Schedule. Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule are- Assamese, Bengali, Guajarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telgu, Urdu, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali.

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135
Q

37.Which of the following languages were added in 8th schedule later- (A) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit (B) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri (C) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (D) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Originally there were 14 languages in 8th Schedule. Later on, First, Sindhi was added by 21st amendment act. After that Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by 71st amendment act and 92nd amendment act introduced Bodo, dogri, Maithili and Santhali.

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136
Q

38.Which of these is not a language in India? (A) Sindhi (B) Sikh (C) Kannada (D) Konkani

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Sindhi, Kannda and Konkani are languages recognised by constitution under Eighth Schedule. Whereas, sikh is not a language, rather sikh is a person belonging to one of the world’s major religions, Sikhism.

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137
Q

39.Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories? (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: First Schedule lists the names of States and their territorial jurisdiction along with names of Union Territories and their extent. Second Schedule talks about provisions related to salaries and emoluments whereas third schedule talks about oath and affirmation of certain office bearers. Fourth schedule is regarding allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to state and U.T.

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138
Q

40.Which schedule of constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of scheduled Area in several states? (A) Third (B) Fifth (C) Seventh (D) Ninth

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Fifth Schedule of constitution contains provision relating to administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in several states

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139
Q

41.The Ninth Schedule to the Indian constitution was added by- (A) First Amendment (B) Eighth Amendment (C) Ninth Amendment (D) Forty Second Amendment

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: First constitutional amendment included Ninth Schedule in constitution of India, which provided that by incorporating any law into it, the state would make it immune from Judicial scrutiny. It provided for validation of certain acts and regulations, mostly relating to land reform

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140
Q

42.Which of the following schedules contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (A) First schedule (B) Second schedule (C) Third schedule (D) Sixth schedule

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Sixth Schedule of constitution contains provisions relating to administration of Tribal Areas in state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

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141
Q

43.In our Constitution, Economic planning is in- (A) Union list (B) State list (C) Concurrent list (D) Not in any list

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. 2007) Exp: Economic and social planning is in Concurrent list. On the subject matters of Concurrent list both center and states can make laws. But in Concurrent list center has an upper hand. And in case of conflict on any subject matter of Concurrent list, the decision of center will be final.

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142
Q

“44.Which of the following item is in ““concurrent list””- (A) Inter-state rivers (B) Labor union (C) Citizenship (D) Local govenance”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2012) Exp: Labour union is a subject of Concurrent list. Whereas, inter-state rivers and citizenship are under Union list. Local governance is a subject under State list.

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143
Q

45.Which of the following subjects are not included in concurrent list of our constitution- (A) Labor union (B) Share market and future market (C) Conservation of wild animals and birds (D) Forest

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exp: Presently, Concurrent list contains 52 subject matters which were only 47 in origional constitution. Labour union along with Forest, conservation of wild animals and birds, Transfer of property other than agriculture land, Bankruptcy and insolvency, criminal law etc. comes under Concurrent list. Whereas share market and future market are subjects of Union list.

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144
Q

46.Which of the following subject is in state list- (A) Agriculture (B) Criminal law (C) Education (D) defence

A

(A) (SSC Steno. 2011) Exp:Agriculture is a subject of State list. On the subject matter of State-list only state lagislature has the power to make laws except on few circumstances when parliament can also make laws in State list. Here, defence is a subject under Union list whereas education and criminal law are subjects of Concurrent list.

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145
Q

47.Which of the following subject is not in Union list- (A) Census (B) Banking (C) Labor Union (D) Foreign Debt

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier -1 2012) Exp: Labour union is a subject in concurrent list while census, Banking and Foreign debt are subjects of union list. On the subject matter of union list only parliament has the power to make laws

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146
Q

48.Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India deals with: (A) Allocation of Seats in the Council of States (B) Distribution of power between the Union and the States (C) Power and Authority of the Municipalities (D) Powers of the Governor of the State

A

(B) (SSC CAPFs (CPO) 2016) Exp: Seventh Schedule of Indian constitution deals with distribution of powers between union and states. There are three lists in this schedule under which subject matters are distributed between union and states. These are Union list, State list and Concurrent list.

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147
Q

49.Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act? (A) Second Schedule (B) Fifth Schedule (C) Eighth Schedule (D) Tenth Schedule

A

(D) (SSC CAPFs (CPO) 2016) Exp: 10th Schedule of constitution contains provision with respect to disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection. 52nd amendment act added this schedule to constitution which is also known as anti-defection law.

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148
Q

50.Which Schedule contains provisions regarding allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha? (A) Fourth Schedule (B) Fifth Schedule (C) Ninth Schedule (D) Eleventh Schedule

A

(A) (SSC Combined Graduate level 2007) Exp: Fourth schedule of Indian constitution contains provisions regarding allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to states and union territories. Allocation of seats is done on the basis of population in states and union territories.

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149
Q

51.How many subjects are there in union list- (A) 52 (B) 66 (C) 97 (D) 99

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Exam 2014) Exp: At the time of commencement of constitution- Union list, State list and Concurrent list were comprised of 97, 66 and 47 subject matters respectively. But at present, number of subject matters have changed in each list i.e. Union list, State list and Concurrent list to 101, 61 and 52.

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150
Q

52.The item ‘Education’ belongs to the: (A) Union List (B) State List (C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary Subjects

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2004) Exp: Education is a subject mentioned under Concurrent list. Which means both centre and states have right to legislate on subject of education in India.

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151
Q

53.The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union List only in consultation with the State Government for the State of:(A) Assam (B) Rajasthan (C) Jammu & Kashmir (D) Kerala

A

(C) (SSC FCI Pre. 2012) Exp: At the time of its integration into Indian union, Jammu and Kashmir was given some special priviledges under Article-370. This established that any law made by parliament will be applicable in state of Jammu and Kashmir, only if it has got an approval of Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

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152
Q

54.Which item out of the following is contained in the concurrent list? (A) Trade Unions (B) Agriculture (C) Tolls (D) Markets and Fairs

A

(A) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2000) Exp: Trade union is a subject under Concurrent list. Whereas Agriculture, Tolls and Markets and Fairs are subjects of State list.

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153
Q

55.The civil affairs like marriage, divorce, inheritance etc. which has been authorised by the constitution to make legal laws? (A) Centre, by the Union List of the Constitution (B) States, by the State List of the Constitution (C) Centre and States, by the Concurrent List of the Constitution (D) Religious authorities which have relation to individual affairs

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Civil affairs like marriage, divorce, inheritance etc. is a subject under Concurrent list. Here both centre and states have been authorised by constitution to legislate.

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154
Q

56.All legislative subject are mentioned in three lists- union list, concurrent list and state list. Any subject is not mentioned in all three list, the law on that particular subject can be framed by- (A) Parliament only (B) State Legislature only (C) A and B (D) Neither A nor B

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: As per Seventh Schedule of constitution, there are three lists which contain all legislative subjects. These are Union list, State list and Concurrent list. Article 248 says, any subject, if not mentioned in above three lists, comes under residuary list which is completely under control of parliament.

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155
Q

57.The meaning of Res iduary Powers in constitution of India is- (A) Powers related to International issues (B) Powers related to Internal Emergency (C) Power which can be exercised by Central and State Governments (D) Powers which are not included in Union, State, and Concurrent List

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013) Exp: Same as above

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156
Q

58.The Residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Parliament (D) States

A

(C) (31 Aug. 2016 (Morning)) Exp: Same as above

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157
Q

59.Indian Constitution has how many Parts? (A) 22 (B) 32 (C) 42 (D) 52

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Indian Constitution is longest written constitution in the world. Original constitution contained 22 Parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. Currently there are 25 Parts, 448 Articles and 12 Schedules in constitution of India.

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158
Q

60.Indian Constitution has how many Articles? (A) 101 (B) 195 (C) 295 (D) 395

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above.

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159
Q

61.In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned? (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Part-II, Article-5 to Article-11, contains provisions related to citizenship in India. Article-11 of constitution authorizes parliament to make any provision with respect to acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters related to it. Based on this parliament passed citizenship (acquisition and termination) act, 1955.

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160
Q

62.Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights? (A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Part-III, Article-12 to Article-35 of Indian constitution deals with fundamental rights in India. This part contains 6 set of fundamental rights.

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161
Q

63.Part IV of Constitution of India deals with: (A) Fundamental Right (B) Citizenship (C) Directive Principles of State Policy (D) Union executive

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exl. Part IV -, Article-36 to Article-51 deals with directive principles of state policy. These are ideals which state should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.

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162
Q

64.Match List- I (Parts of the Indian Constitution) with List- II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below List- I List- II A. Part IV A 1. The Fundamental Duties B. Part VIII 2. The Union Territories C. Part IX 3. The Panchayats D. Part IX A 4. The MunicipalitiesCode: A B C D (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 3 2 1

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exp: Part IV-A deals with Fundamental duties which was added by 42nd Amendment Act. Whereas Part-IX deals with panchayat and Part IX-A deals with municipalities which were added into constitution by 73rd and 74th Amendment Act respectively. Part VIII which was there in original constitution deals with union territories. SSC CGL & CPO 2017

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163
Q

65.Anti-defection law is given in which schedule of Indian constitution? (A) Second Schedule (B) Tenth Schedule (C) Third Schedule (D) Fourth Schedule

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:10th Schedule of constitution exclusively deals with provisions of anti-defection of the members of legislature on grounds of defection.

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164
Q

“66.”“United Nations Organization”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: UNO is an international organization. Only Union has the prerogative to deal with organization. Therefore, it cannot be in any list other than Union.

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165
Q

“67.”“Trade unions”” is listed in the __________ list g iven in the Seventh Schedu le of the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Trade unions is listed in the concurrent list of Seventh Schedule of the constitution. The list covers 52 items and include Criminal Law, IPC, Criminal Procedure, Marriage and divorce, Bankruptcy and insolvency, Forests and Education.

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166
Q

“68.”“Taxes on lands and buildings”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Taxes on lands and building is listed in state list of 7th Schedule of Constitution. The state list encompasses 61 items. Few other subjects are public order, prisons, public health, liquors, agriculture and inland waterways.

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167
Q

“69.”“Forests”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Forests are listed in concurrent list. This list covers 52 items including Criminal Law, IPC, Criminal Procedure, Marriage & divorce, Bankruptcy & Insolvency, Forests, Education.

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168
Q

“70.”“Foreign jurisdiction”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Foreign jurisdiction, foreign affairs, defence, communication, are part of Union list. In federal system, there has been clear division and separation of powers to avoid any conflict between centre, state and local government.

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169
Q

“71.”“Betting and gambl ing”” is l isted in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Betting and gambling, public order, agriculture, public health, liquor, agriculture, entertainment are parts of state list.

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170
Q

“72.”“Prevention of cruelty to animals”” is listed in the __________ l ist g iven in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Prevention of cruelty to animals is listed in concurrent list. The list included 52 items such as Marriage & Divorce, Bankruptcy & Insolvency, Forests, Education.

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171
Q

73.___________ makes laws on matters included in Union List and Concurrent List. (A) Lok Sabha (B) Ministry of Defence (C) Prime Minister’s Office (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Lok Sabha makes law on matters enumerated in Union and Concurrent list. However, matters not mentioned in any of list is to be tackled by Union. Federation delineates separation of powers and subjects to ensure smooth functioning of government at all levels.

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172
Q

“74.”“Population control and family planning”” is listed in the __________ list g iven in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.(A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Population control and family planning is listed in concurrent list in Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Other items include Marriage, Divorce, Bankruptcy and Insolvency, Forests, Education, Trade Unions etc.

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173
Q

“75.”“Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: CBI is listed in Union list in 7th Schedule of the Constitution. CBI is premier investigating agency, which is autonomous and probe the cases of irregularities, corruption scandals etc. and others as recommended by central and state government.

174
Q

“76.”“Reserve Bank of Ind ia”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C)Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: RBI is listed in Union list of Seventh Schedule of Constitution of India. RBI is the regulator of all banks in India. RBI issues bank notes and makes changes in monetary policy to stabilize growth and combat inflation.

175
Q

“77.”“Relief of the disabled and unemployable”” is listed in the __________ list g iven in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Relief of disabled and unemployment are part of State list in Seventh Schedule of Constitution. The list also includes betting and gambling, public order, agriculture, public health, entertainment, liquor etc.

176
Q

“78.”“Bankruptcy and insolvency”” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Bankruptcy and Insolvency are listed in 7th Schedule of the Constitution. The list encompasses 52 items including IPC, Criminal law procedure, Marriage and divorce, Trade unions, Forests and Education.

177
Q

“79.”“Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries”” is listed in the __________ list g iven in the Seventh Schedu le in the Constitution of India. (A) Union (B) State (C) Global (D) Concurrent”

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries are included in state list in 7th Schedule of the Constitution. Other items in state list are land and buildings, public order, prisons, agriculture and liquor.

178
Q

“1.Under Article 1 of the Indian constitution,it is declared that ““Bharat means India shall be______””- (A) Union of States (B) Federal State of Unitary features (C) Federal State of Federal features (D) Federal state”

A

“(A) (SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2013) Exp: Article -1, under Part - I of constitution describes India as Union of States. It says,”” Bharat means India shall be Union of States.”” The term Union was suggested by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which indicates two things- first, Indian Union is not a result of agreement of sovereign states and second, states do not have right to secede from Union.”

179
Q

2.In which of the form, composite India has been described in the constitution? (A) A Union State (B) Semi-Federal (C) Federation of States and Territories (D) Partly Unitary and Partly Federal

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2005, CGL Exam, 2000) Exp: Same as above

180
Q

3.In which of the following form, India has been described in the constitution? (A) Confederation (B) Unitary (C) Union of states (D) Federation

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2014) Exp:Same as above

181
Q

4.Which one of the following is not an element of the State? (A) Population (B) Land (C) Army (D) Government

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2008) Exp: State is a physical entity which has four essential elements. These are Sovereignty, Territory or land, Government, Population or Citizens. Any Sovereign state uses Government to bring control over its Territory and Citizens. Army is not an element of state, rather it is an institution which functions under control of Government.

182
Q

5.Which of the following is an essential element of the State? (A) Sovereignty (B) Government (C) Territory (D) All these

A

(D) (SSC CGL Pre. 2013) Exp: Same as above

183
Q

6.Which of the following is not an essential element of the state? (A) Population (B) Administration (C) Sovereignty (D) Territory

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: Same as above

184
Q

7.Which of the followings is under the state? (A) Only external sovereignty (B) Only internal sovereignty (C) Internal and external sovereignty (D) Neither external nor internal sovereignty

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Sovereignty is one of the essential elements of state. A Sovereign state is free from any internal and external undue pressure. State is free to take any decision about its territory and the people.

185
Q

8.The state operates through: (A) Political Party (B) Party President (C) Government (D) President

A

(C) (SSC Multi-tasking 2014) Exp: State operates through government. Government is a set of institutions through which it exercises sovereign power over people and territory.

186
Q

9.Who admits a new State to the Union of India? (A) President (B) Supreme Court (C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament

A

(D) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2014) Exp: Article-2, under Part-I of constitution authorizes parliament to admit a new state into Union of India which was earlier not the part of Indian Union.

187
Q

10.Which of the following has the power to form new states or to change the borders of the states? (A) President (B) Parliament (C) Election Commission (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC LDC Exam 2005) Exp: Article-3, under Part-I of Constitution authorizes Parliament to form new states, increase or decrease the area of states. Parliament can also alter the boundary of states and change the name of any state by passing a law with simple majority in both the houses of parliament

188
Q

11.Who permits the formation of new state in Union of India? (A) President (B) Supreme Court (C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2014) Exp: Same as above

189
Q

12.Indian Parliament can rename or redefine the boundary of a State by (A) A simple majority (B) Absolute majority (C) 2/3rd majority of the members voting (D) 2/3rd majority of the members voting and an absolute majority of its total membership

A

(A) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2004) Exp: Parliament of India can rename or redefine the boundary of a state by simply passing the bill with simple majority in both the houses of parliament. And no such bill can be introduced in parliament except on recommendation of President.

190
Q

13.Which State enjoys the distinction of being the first linguistic state of India? (A) West Bangal (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2006) Exp: A Commission under S.K. Dhar and a Congress Committee under Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya (JVP Committee) examined the feasibility of re-organisation of states on linguistic basis. Both did not favour a linguistic base. But prolong agitation of people and the death of Potti Sriramalu after 56-day hunger strike forced government to create Andhra Pradesh as first linguistic state by separating the Telugu speaking areas from the state of Madras in 1953.

191
Q

14.In which year were the Indian states reorganised on the linguistic basis? (A) 1947 (B) 1951 (C) 1956 (D) 1966

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2007) Exp: After creation of Andhra Pradesh as first linguistic state, there were several other demands for reorganisation of states on linguistic basis. As a result of this, a commission was set-up under Justice Fazal Ali with H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar as members to study the demand. On the basis of this, State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. As a result, fourfold distribution of states was replaced by 14 States and six Union Territories via Seventh Constitutional Amendment.

192
Q

15.The States reorganization in 1956 created (A) 17 States and 6 Union Territories (B) 17 States and 9 Union Territories (C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories (D) 15 States and 9 Union Territories

A

(C) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2015) Exp: Same as above

193
Q

16.When was the comprehensive reorganisation of Indian States completed in accordance with the recommendations of States Reorganisation Commission? (A) 1953 (B) 1956 (C) 1960 (D) 1966

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2008) Exp: Same as above

194
Q

17.The unification of Karnataka was achieved in the year (A) 1956 (B) 1957 (C) 1958 (D) 1960

A

(A) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2014) Exp: Unification of Karnataka refers to formation of Indian state of Karnataka from Princely State of Mysore by State Reorganisation Act, 1956. Earlier it was created by the name of Mysore which was later renamed to Karnataka in 1973.

195
Q

18.Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab Reorganisation Act which created the states Punjab and Haryana? (A) Dhar Commission (B) Dass Commission (C) Shah Commission (D) Mahajan Commission

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: On the basis of recommendation of Shah commission, State of Haryana was carved out from the State of Punjab by Punjab (Reorganisation) Act, 1966.

196
Q

19.Sikkim was granted statehood in the year- (A) 1973 (B) 1974 (C) 1975 (D) 1976

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2008) Exp: Initially, Sikkim remained an independent country which was ruled by Chogyal. It was first given the status of Associate State in 1974 by 35th Constitutional Amendment. Later on, in 1975 by 36th Amendment Act, it was granted the status of a full state.

197
Q

20.In which year, the name of Laccadive, Minicoy and Am inidivi Is lands was changed in Lakshadweep by parliamentary act? (A) 1973 (B) 1971 (C) 1970 (D) 1972

A

(A) (SSC CHSL Exam 2015) Exp: ‘Laccadive’, ‘Minicoy and Amandivi’ which were two separate Union Territories, were merged and was formed as Union Territory of Lakshwadeep by an act of Parliament in 1973.

198
Q

21.Which State was formed after the amendment of Articles-239A and 240? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Uttrakhand (C) Sikkim (D) Chhattisgarh

A

(A) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2016) Exp: Arunanchal Pradesh which was earlier an Union Territory was given the status of a full State by State of Arunanchal Pradesh Act, 1986 after an amendment in Article 239-A and 240.

199
Q

22.Prov isions of citizenship in Indian Constitution, became applicable in (A) 1950 (B) 1949 (C) 1951 (D) 1952

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2013) Exp: Article 5,6, 7, 8 and 9 under Part-II of Constitution which deals with Citizenship in India became applicable on 26th November, 1949 only.

200
Q

23.Indian Citizenship is granted by (A) The President of India (B) The Prime Minister (C) The Ministry of Home Affairs (D) The Ministry of External Affairs

A

(C) (4 Sep. 2016 (Afternoon) Exp: Subject to the conditions and procedure for acquisition of Citizenship mentioned under Citizenship Act, 1955, Union Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for granting citizenship in India.

201
Q

24.Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate right of citizenship? (A) Article-8 (B) Article-9 (C) Article-10 (D) Article-11

A

(D) (SSC Multi-tasking 2014) Exp: Artical-11, under Part -II of constitution authorizes Paliamemnt to make any provision with respect to acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters related to it. Based on this, parliament passed Citizenship (acquisition and termination) act, 1955.

202
Q

25.Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? (A) Election Commission (B) President (C) Parliament (D) Parliament & Assemblies

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2010) Exp: Same as above

203
Q

26.Which body decides the conditions for getting the citizenship of India? (A) Election commission (B) President (C) Parliament (D) Parliament and legislative assemblies

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

204
Q

27.By which of the following modes can citizenship be acquired in India? i. By birth ii. Hereditary iii. By Registration iv. By Request (A) i and ii (B) i, ii, and iii (C) ii and iii (D) iv, ii and iii

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2007) Exp: A citizen is a person who enjoys full civil and political rights. Citizenship in India can be acquired by 5 ways. These are - by Birth, by Registration, by Naturalization, by descent (hereditry), and at the time of incorporation of a new territory into India.

205
Q

28.No person shall be a citizen of India if he has - (A) Lived in a foreign country for more than five years (B) Been convicted by a foreign court of law (C) Voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country (D) Accepted employment in another country

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2001) Exp: India is a country which has provision of Single Citizenship. If a citizen of India voluntarily acquires citizenship of other country, that person shall seize to be the citizen of India.

206
Q

29.In which of the following articles, citizenship rights of people who migrated from Pakistan to India is mentioned? (A) Article-4 (B) Article-8 (C) Article-6 (D) Article-10

A

(C) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2016) Exp: Article-6 contains the Citizenship rights of people who migrated from Pakistan to India. According to provisions under this article, any person who migrated from Pakistan to India before 19th July, 1948 and either of his/her parents or any of his grand parents were born in undivided India, shall be considered as citizen of India.

207
Q

30.Which of the following categories of citizens of the prescribed age may be registered as a voter? (A) Bankrupt (B) Convicted for certain crimes or corruption (C) Non-resident citizens (D) Mentally unsound

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer 2001) Exp: A non-resident citizen (NRI) is a person holding Indian passport and has stayed for more than 180 days outside India. A NRI has full civil and political rights. Thus, he may be a registered voter. SSC CGL & CPO - 2017

208
Q

31.Which of the following article describes India also as Bharat? (A) Article 1 (B) Article 2 (C) Article 3 (D) Article 4

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Article-1 of the constitution describes India as Bharat, shall be a Union of states. The territory of India, shall consist of Union Territories and territories of states.

209
Q

32.In how many ways Indian citizenship can be acquired? (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Indian citizenship can be acquired in five ways. (i) By Descent (ii) By Birth (iii) By Registration (iv) By Naturalisation (v) Incorporation or annexation of new territory in Indian union.

210
Q

33.In how many ways Indian citizenship can be lost? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Indian citizenship can be lost in three ways. (i) Renunciation (Voluntary giving up) (ii) Termination (One who acquired the citizenship of other country ceases to be citizen of India) (iii)Deprivation (It is a compulsory termination of citizenship by the central government if the citizenship has been acquired by fraud, showing disloyalty to the constitution etc.)

211
Q

34.Which type of federalism is seen in India? (A) Coming together federation (B) Holding together federation (C) Coming together federation and Holding together federation both (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Federation is a political unit in which central government has a strong influence on self governed states. In India, states cannot secede from union. Indian federalism hold federation together.

212
Q

35.Match the following: Column-I Column-II 1. Acquisition of Indian a. By deprivation Citizenship 2. Loss of Indian b. Equality before law Citizenship and equal protection of laws 3. Fundamental Right c. By Registration (A) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b (B)1-b, 2-a, 3-c (C)1-c, 2-b, 3-a (D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: By birth By Descent By Registration By Naturalization By Incorporation or annexation of any territory in Indian union. Acquisition of Indian citizens Renunciation Deprivation Termination Loss of Indian Citizenship

213
Q

36.Formation of a new state in India is done by _____. (A) Special Majority (B) Simple Majority (C) Without Majority (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Under Article-3 of the constitution, Parliament may by simple majority can create, diminish or alter the boundaries of state even without obtaining ratification from states. The Parliament can proceed even if states have any reservation over formation of new states out of existing states.

214
Q

1.Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees Indian citizens: (A) Equal protection of laws (B) Equality before law (C) Equal distribution of economic resources (D) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws

A

(D) (SSC CPO SI 2005) Exp: Article-14 of Indian constitution guarantees Indian citizens equality before law and equal protection of the law. Equality before law means everyone is equal before law and no one is above the law whereas equal protection of law signifies that only equals should be treated equally.

215
Q

2.Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality before Law? (A) Article-13 (B) Article-14 (C) Article-15 (D) Article-17

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier-I 2016) Exp: Same as above

216
Q

“3.In which of the following Articles, there is provision of ““Right to Equality””? (A) Article14 (B) Article19 (C) Article20 (D) Article21”

A

“(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: Constitution of India provides for ““Right to equality”” under Articles-14 to 18. Article-14 talks about two concepts of equality. One is equality before law and other is equal protection of law.”

217
Q

“4.Which of the following is opposite to the principle of ““Rule of Law””? (A) Equality before Law (B) Privileges and Immunity (C) Equal Opportunity (D) None of these”

A

“(B) (SSC Stenographer grade d Exam 2005) Exp: ““Rule of Law”” is a concept which originated in Britain and popularised by Lord Dicey. It means law is supreme and all are equal before law. Thus privileges and immunity contradict the principle of Rule of Law.”

218
Q

5.Of the various grounds below, which discrimination by the State is not prohibited in Article-15 of the Constitution? (A) Place of birth (B) Race (C) Language (D) Caste

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer 2005) Exp: Article-15 of Indian constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth. There is no mention of language as a ground for prohibition of discrimination under this article.

219
Q

6.What Constitutional provision enables the Central Government to provide reservations in jobs and educational institutions for the weaker sections of the society? (A) Article-14 (B) Article-16 (C) Article-46 (D) Article-19

A

(B) (SSC Tax Ass., Income Tax & Central Excise 2004) Exp: Though, Article-16 prohibits discrimination in public employment on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, descent and residence or any of them, It allows state to make provisions for reservation for weaker sections of society, if in opinion of state, they are not adequately represented.

220
Q

7.Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunities for all citizens in Public employment? (A) Article-22 (B) Article-16 (C) Article-20 (D) Article-25

A

(B) (SSC CAPFs SI & CISF ASI 2013) Exp: Article-16 of Indian constitution provides for equal opportunities in matter of public employment. There cannot be discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, descent, residence or any of them.

221
Q

8.The following article of the Indian Constitution abolished the practice of untouchability. (A) Article-14 (B) Article-18 (C) Article-17 (D) Article-19

A

(C) (SSC Sect. Offi. Audit 2001) Exp: Article-17 abolishes untouchability in all forms. But the constitution did not prescribe any punishment for violation of this right. Constitution also didn’t define what untouchability is. Civil Rights Protection Act, 1976 provides punishment for the practice of untouchability.

222
Q

9.The Articles-17 and 18 of constitution provide- (A) Social equality (B) Economic equality (C) Political equality (D) Religious equality

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2007) Exp:Article-17 and Article-18 of constitution provides for the prohibition of practice of untouchability and abolition of titles respectively. As per Article-18, state will not give any titles to further discriminate. This with abolition of untouchability under Article-17 is a social issue, prohibition of which brings social equality.

223
Q

“10.Article -19 of the Ind ian Constitution ““Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc”” deals with? (A) The Union Government (B) The State Government (C) The directive principles of state policy (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-19 of constitution deals with fundamental rights under Part-III of constitution. Provisions of this article deals with protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc.

224
Q

11.Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides: (A) 6 freedoms (B) 7 freedoms (C) 8 freedoms (D) 9 freedoms

A

(A) (CPO SI 2005) Exp: Article-19 of Indian constitution has provided 6 freedoms for Indian citizens. All citizens should have right to: (i) Freedom of speech and Expression. (ii) Assemble peacefully and without arms. (iii)Form associations or unions (iv) Move freely throughout the territory of India (v) Reside and settle anywhere within India (vi) Practise any profession

225
Q

“12.The ““Freedom of Press”” is mentioned in which of the following rights? (A) Equality before law (B) Right to expression (C) Union freedom (D) Work security”

A

(B) (SSC metric level Exam 1999) Exp: There is no direct mention of Freedom of Press in the constitution, rather it is a right inferred from right to freedom of speech and expression provided under Article-19(1)(a).

226
Q

“13.Article 20 of the Indian Constitution ““Protection in respect of conviction for offences”” deals with? (A) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen (B) The Union Government (C) The State Government (D) The Directive Principles of State Policy”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-20 of constitution deals with fundamental rights under Part- III of constitution. This article provides for protection while conviction for offences. This includes three different aspects under this article. These are Ex Post Facto Law, Double Jeopardy and Prohibition against self incriminating evidence.

227
Q

14.Right to Privacy comes under_______ (A) Article-19 (B) Article-20 (C) Article-21 (D) Article-18

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Right to privacy is not enumerated directly as a Fundamental right in constitution of India. Rather, it is an inferred right from Article-21 which talks about right to life and personal liberty. Right to privacy means right to be let alone or right to be free from any unwarranted publicity which is part of right to life and liberty.

228
Q

15.Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right? (A) Right to privacy (B) Equality before law (C) Abolition of untouchability (D) Right to form associations or unions

A

(A) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2003) Exp: Same as above

229
Q

“16.Article-21 of the Indian Constitution ““Protection of life and personal liberty”” deals with? (A) The Union Government (B) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen (C) The State Government (D) The Directive Principles of State Policy”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-21 of constitution deals with fundamental rights of Indian citizens under Part-III of constitution. This article provides right to citizens for protection of life and personal liberty and according to this article no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

230
Q

17.According to Indian constitution, Right to life is - (A) Political right (B) Economic right (C) Fundamental right (D) Religious right

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Same as above

231
Q

18.Right to education in our country is a _____right. (A) Political (B) Fundamental (C) Social (D) Legal

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21-A of constitution. This article was added into constitution by 86th amendment act of 2002, which provides for free and compulsory education to the children between the age of 6 to 14 years.

232
Q

19.Constitution of India considers free and compulsory education to children up to- (A) 10 years (B) 14 years (C) 18 years (D) 21 years

A

(B) (SSC Section Officer 2014) Exp: Same as above

233
Q

20.Preventive detention means- (A) Detention for interrogation (B) Detention after interrogation (C) Detention without interrogation (D) Detention for cognizable offence

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer 2008) Exp: A person can be detained under preventive detention, if there is suspicion or reasonable probability of that person committing some act, which is likely to cause harm to society and endangers the security of the society. Thus it is a detention without interrogation.

234
Q

21.Which of the following fundamental right can be controlled by preventive detention act- (A) Right to religion (B) Right to constitutional remedies (C) Right to freedom (D) Right to equality

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2005) Exp: Preventive detention infringes the right to freedom of the person who has been detained under preventive detention Act. Article - 22 provides for protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, including preventive detention cases.

235
Q

22.The Preventive Detention Act curtailed (A) Right to Freedom (B) Right to Equality (C) Right to Property (D) Educational Right

A

(A) (10 Sep. 2016 (Evening)) Exp: Same as above

236
Q

23.Which among the following is not a preventive detention act? (A) Terrorism and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) act (TADA) (B) Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) (C) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA) (D) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA)

A

(D) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2014) Exp: TADA, POTA and COFEPOSA along with Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) are related to preventive detention of a person. Though MISA, TADA and POTA have been repealed, COFEPOSA continues to be operative along with similar laws such as National Security Act etc. Foreign exchange regulation act is not an act related to preventive detention.

237
Q

24.Article 24 of the Ind ian Constitution ‘‘Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc’’ deals with? (A) The fundamental rights of the Indian citizen (B) The Union Government (C) The State Government (D) The Directive Principles of State Policy

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-24 of Indian constitution deals with fundamental rights under Part-III of constitution. As per provisions of Article-24, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or engaged in any hazardous work. Article-24 is not banning child labour.

238
Q

25.No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the age of - (A) 12 years (B) 14 years (C) 18 years (D) 20 years

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2001) Exp: Same as above

239
Q

“26.Article 27 of the Ind ian Constitution ““Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion”” deals with? (A) The Union Government (B) The State Government (C) The Directive Principles of State Policy (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-27 of Indian constitution deals with fundamental rights of Indian citizens under part III of constitution. This article provides freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.

240
Q

27.In which of the following articles, the interests of minorities are covered? (A) 14 (B) 19 (C) 29 (D) 32

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012) Exp: Article-29 safeguards the interests of minorities. It establishes that any section of citizens having a distinct language and scripts of culture of its own can conserve the same.

241
Q

28.What is the basis of recognition of minorities in Indian constitution? (A) Religion (B) Caste (C) Ratio of the community to total population (D) Colour

A

(A) (SSC CGL Exam 2006) Exp: Article-30 recognises religious and linguistic minorities. It provides right to all minorities whether religious or linguistic, to establish and administer educational institutions.

242
Q

“29.Article 31A of the Indian Constitution ““Saving of Laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc”” deals with? (A) The State Government (B) The Union Government (C) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen (D) The Directive Principles of State Policy”

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-31(A) of Indian constitution deals with fundamental rights under Part-III of constitution. As per provisions of Article-31(A), state legislature can enact a law for acquisition of private property. And any such law passed by state legislature needs assent of the President.

243
Q

“30.Article 31B of the Indian Constitution ““Validation of certain Acts and Regulations”” deals with the (A) State Government (B) Union Government (C) Directive Principles of State Policy (D) Fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-31(B) of Indian constitution deals with fundamental rights under Part-III of constitution. Article- 31(B) provides for validation of certain categories of acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged and invalidated on the grounds of contravention of any fundamental right.

244
Q

“31.Article-31(C) of the Indian Constitution ““Saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles”” deals with? (A) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen (B) The State Government (C) The Union Government (D) The directive principles of state policy”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-31(C) of constitution deals with fundamental rights of Indian citizens under Part-III of constitution. This article provides for saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles. To be specific if parliament enact a law giving effect to Article-39(B) and 39(C) and during the process if law violates fundamental right under Article-14, the law shall not be declared invalid merely on this ground.

245
Q

“32.Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the ““Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution””? (A) Article 14 (B) Article 19 (C) Article 356 (D) Article 32”

A

“(D) (SSC Graduate Level 2013) Exp: Just mentioning fundamental rights in constitution without providing provisions for their enforcement would have no meaning. Article-32 which is right to constitutional remedies ensures the enforcement of fundamental rights. That is why ““Father of Constitution”” Dr. B.R. Ambedkar termed this article as ““Heart and soul of constitution.”””

246
Q

33.By which of the following rights, fundamental rights are ensured in Indian constitution? (A) Right to equality (B) Right against exploitation (C) Right to constitutional remedies (D) Educational and cultural right

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2005) Exp: Same as above

247
Q

34.In the Constitution of India, the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ has been provided in Article- (A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 35

A

(C) (SSC Comb. Matric 2002) Exp: Remedies for enforcement of fundamental rights conferred by Part-III has been provided under Article-32 of constitution. This article provides the right to citizens to move directly to Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights and it gives Supreme Court, powers to issue writ to enforce fundamental rights of an individual.

248
Q

35.Under which Article of the Constitution can an individual move to the Supreme Court directly in case of any violation of Fundamental Rights? (A) Article-32 (B) Article-28 (C) Article-29 (D) Article-31

A

(A) (SSC (10+2) DEO & LDC 2013) Exp: Same as above

249
Q

36.Which of the followings issues a writ? (A) Any High Court and Supreme Court (B) Any Court (C) District Court (D) Administrative Tribunal

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier-1 Exam 2014) Exp: Both Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue writs under Article-32 and Article-226 respectively. Supreme Court can issue writs in case of violation of fundamental rights only but High court can issue writs in cases of violation of fundamental rights as well as legal rights.

250
Q

37.How many writs can be issued by supreme court? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer Exam 2007) Exp: Writ is an order issued by Supreme Court or High Courts to enforce rights. It is a concept originated under Roman law but developed under British. Both Supreme Court and High Court can issue 5 types of writs. These are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.

251
Q

38.Which type of writ is not issued under Indian constitution? (A) Mandamus (B) Prohibition (C) Injuction (D) Certiorari

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Exam 2012) Exp: Same as above

252
Q

“39.Which of the following writ’s meaning is -““to have the body of””? (A) Habeas corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Quo warranto (D) Certiorari”

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer 2005, SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Habeas Corpus literally means ‘to have the body of’. It can be issued to both public authority as well as private individual to produce the body of a person who has been illegally and wrongfully detained. Thus it protects personal liberty of an individual against arbitrary action of both state and private individual. That is why it is called Bulwark of Personal Freedom.

253
Q

40.Which of the following writs is called Bulwark of personal freedom? (A) Mandamus (B) Habeas corpus (C) Quo warranto (D) Certiorari

A

(B) (SSC LDC Exam 2005) Exp: Same as above

254
Q

41.In which of the following situations, Habeas corpus writ is issued? (A) Loss of property (B) Extra tax receipts (C) Faulty police detention (D) Violation of freedom of Expression

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2002, CHSL Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

255
Q

42.Under which of the following writs, a person is restricted to perform any duties for which he does not have the authority?(A) Mandamus (B) Quo warranto (C) Certiorari (D) Habeas corpus

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2002) Exp: Quo warranto writ is issued to ensure that person holding a public office is qualified to hold the office. It can be issued to restrict a person to perform duties or take action for which he does not have authority.

256
Q

43.Under which one of the following writs an official can be prevented from taking an action which he is officially not entitled? (A) Mandamus (B) Quo Warranto (C) Certiorari (D) Habeas Corpus

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2002) Exp: Same as above

257
Q

44.Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing? (A) Writ of Certiorari (B) Writ of Habeas Corpus (C) Writ of Mandamus (D) Writ of Quo Warranto

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2000) Exp:Mandamus which literally means ‘command’ is a writ issued by court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. This writ can be issued only against a government official and not against a private individual or body.

258
Q

45.A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to- (A) An official to perform public duty (B) The Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet (C) The company to raise wages (D) The Government to pay the salaries to employees

A

(A) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2005) Exp: Same as above

259
Q

46.Which of the following writs can be issued only against a government official? (A) Habeas corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Certiorari

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2011) Exp: Same as above

260
Q

47.Which among the following writs comes into the category of public litigation petition before High Court or Supreme Court? (A) A challenge to elections of the office-bearers of a political party (B) Against political interference (C) Against the decision of Lower Court (D) Against a general topic

A

(D) (SSC Section Officer 1997) Exp: Earlier, Article-32(1) which is right to move to Supreme Court was available only for those whose rights were violated. But later on, by late 1980’s Supreme Court has started entertaining matters in which interest of public at large is involved. Supreme Court through liberal interpretation of Article-32(1) said that anyone who is public spirited can approach to Supreme Court on behalf of those whose rights are violated. That was beginning of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India.

261
Q

48.Which of the following writs/orders of the High Court/Supreme Court is sought to get an order of an authority quashed? (A) Mandamus (B) Certiorari (C) Quo Warranto (D) Habeas corpus

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2003) Exp: Certiorari writ is issued to quash the order of a lower court or decision of a tribunal in excess of its jurisdiction. This is issued to ensure that jurisdiction of an inferior court is exercised properly.

262
Q

49.Who is the custodian of the implementation of the fundamental rights? (A) High courts (B) Supreme court (C) All courts (D) Both A and B

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Both Supreme Court and High Courts are custodian of implementation of fundamental rights. Supreme Court under Article-32 and High Courts under Article-226 issue writs for implementation of fundamental rights.

263
Q

50.Under which of the following article of Indian constitution, the fundamental rights of defence forces’ personnel can be restricted specially? (A) Article-21 (B) Article-25 (C) Article-33 (D) Article-19

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Article-33 of Indian constitution deals with fundamental rights of armed forces. It restricts certain fundamental rights for armed forces personnel by providing power to parliament to modify these rights.

264
Q

51.Which Article specifies the Fundamental Duties of every citizen? (A) Article-80 (B) Article-343 (C) Article-51A (D) Article-356

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-51A, under Part IV-A of constitution specifies fundamental duties of every citizen. These duties were added into constitution by 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 on recommendation of Sardar Swarn Singh committee.

265
Q

52.Fundamental duties are included in the Indian Constitution by the - Amendment (A) 44th (B) 42nd (C) 26th (D) 25th

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

266
Q

53.When were the fundamental duties inserted in Indian constitution? (A) 1971 (B) 1972 (C) 1975 (D) 1976

A

(D) (SSC metric level Exam 2001,SSC 10+2 Exam 2014) Exp: Same as above

267
Q

54.How many fundamental duties are there in Indian constitution? (A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2006) Exp: 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added ten fundamental duties under Article 51-A. But at present, there are eleven fundamental duties. Eleventh duty which is duty of every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his/her child between age of 6 to 14 years was added by 86th Amendment Act of 2002.

268
Q

55.The chapter on Fundamental Duties includes (A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement. (B) Duty to vote in General Election (C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people (D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election.

A

(A) (SSC Section Officer 2008) Exp: There are eleven fundamental duties under the constitution. These include- *to abide by and respect Constitution, National Flag and National Anthem, *to cherish and follow noble ideas of freedom struggle, *to uphold and protect sovereignity, unity and integrity of India, *to defend country and render national service.

269
Q

56.Which one of the following is an item included in the list of Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen in the Constitution? (A) To practice secularism (B) To develop scientific temper,humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform (C) To pay all taxes to government regularly and correctly (D) Not to assault any public servant during performance of his duties

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2014) Exp: To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of enquiry is a fundamental duty under constitution along with duty to promote brotherhood and establish dignity of women, to preserve rich cultural heritage, to protect environment, to safe guard public property and to strive for excellence.

270
Q

“57.Fill in the blank-““Rights _______duties- (A) disrupt (B) direct (C) Contain (D) Oppose”

A

(B) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2014) Exp: We have to follow our duties within the limits of our Constitutional and Legal rights, so it can be said that rights direct duties.

271
Q

58.From which of the following are the Fundamental duties adopted? (A) French Constitution (B) Indian Constitution (C) Spanish Constitution (D) USSR Constitution

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Fundamental duties which are mentioned under Part IV-A of constitution has been adopted from USSR.

272
Q

59.Fundamental rights can be suspended by- (A) Governor (B) President (C) Law Minister (D) Prime Minister

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: During the proclamation of National emergency under Article - 352, all fundamental rights except rights under Article - 20 and 21 can be suspended by President of India.

273
Q

60.The fundamental rights of Indian citizens can be suspended - (A) During National Emergency (B) During Financial Emergency (C) Anytime (D) In any situation

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: Same as above

274
Q

61.Who can restrict the fundamental rights of the citizens? (A) Council of Ministers (B) Parliament (C) Public (D) Cabinet

A

(B) Exp: Parliament of India can restrict the fundamental rights of citizens. Article-368 provides power to parliament to amend fundamental rights subject to basic structure of constitution.

275
Q

62.How many fundamental rights were there in the beginning? (A) Six (B) Seven (C) Four (D) Five

A

(B) (SSC multitasking Exam,2014) Exp: There were seven sets of fundamental rights in original constitution. These are right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to religion, cultural and educational rights of minorities, right to constitutional remedies and right to property. 44th Amendment Act repealed right to property. So currently there are only six sets of fundamental rights.

276
Q

63.Which fundamental right was abolished by the 44th Amendment? (A) Right to Liberty (B) Right to Property (C) Right to Equality (D) Right to Religion

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Right to property was earlier a fundamental right under the provision of Article-31. But after 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978, this fundamental right was abolished and it was made a legal right under Article- 300(A) under Part-XII of constitution.

277
Q

64.Which of the following is not a fundamental rights in Indian constitution? (A) Right to equality (B) Right to freedom (C) Right to property (D) Right against exploitation

A

(C) (SSC LDC 2005, SSC 10+2 2011, SSC CPO 2013) Exp: Same as above

278
Q

65.By which of the following constitutional amendment act, the Right to property ceases to be a fundamental right? (A) 44th (B) 42nd (C) 43rd (D) 45th

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013, SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam, 2013) Exp: Same as above

279
Q

66.According to Indian constitution, Right to property is- (A) Fundamental right (B) Natural right (C) Legal right (D) Moral right

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level 2002, SSC 10+2 level 2011) Exp: Same as above

280
Q

67.Right to property was deleted from the list fundamental rights in the regime of which of the followings- (A) Indira Gandhi government (B) Morarji Desai government (C) Narsimha Rao government (D) Vajpayee government

A

(B) (SSC Section Officer Exam, 2007) Exp: Right to property was deleted from list of fundamental rights through 44th Amendment Act, 1978 which was passed during the regime of Morarji Desai Government.

281
Q

68.Which of the followings is a Political right- (A) Right to freedom (B) Right to contest election (C) Right to equality before law (D) Right to life

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2005) Exp: Right to contest election is a political right whereas right to freedom, right to life and right to equality before law are fundamental rights.

282
Q

69.Which of the followings is not a fundamental right? (A) Right to equality (B) Right against Exploitation (C) Right to strike (D) Right to religious freedom

A

(C) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: Right to strike is not a fundamental right rather it can be termed as a legal right. Whereas right to equality, right against exploitation, right to religious freedom are part of fundamental rights provided to citizens.

283
Q

70.The Certain fundamental rights are not given to- (A) Insolvent persons (B) Foreigner (C) Deceased person (D) Political victims

A

(B) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2009) Exp: There are certain fundamental rights which are available to Indian citizens only and not to Foreigners or Aliens. These are rights provided under articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30.

284
Q

71.Fundamental Rights are not given to (A) Bankrupt persons (B) Aliens (C) Persons suffering from incurable diseases (D) Political sufferers

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2009) Exp: Same as above

285
Q

72.According to Indian constitution, which is not a fundamental right- (A) Right to education (B) Right to information (C) Right to Expression (D) Right to life

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Right to information is not a fundamental right rather it is a legal right provided through Right to Information Act, 2005. Right to education, Right to Expression and Right to life are fundamental rights under Articles-21(A), 19 and 21 respectively.

286
Q

73.When was the ‘Right to Information’ enacted in India? (A) 15 August 2005 (B) 15 March 2005 (C) 15 June 2005 (D) 15 July 2005

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp:Right to Information Act was enacted on 15th June 2005 and came into force on 12th October 2005. It aims at providing access to citizens of information under government control thereby promoting transparency and accountability. This act extends to whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir.

287
Q

74.Evaluate the following statementsI. The legal interpretation of equality is chiefly influenced by equality before law and equal protection of law II. Equality before law means rule of law (A) I is correct but II is incorrect (B) II is correct but I is incorrect (C) Both are correct (D) Both are incorrect

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2007) Exp: Rule of law which means law is supreme and no one is above the law, implies equality before law i.e. all are equal before law. And the legal interpretation of equality is influenced mainly by equality before law and equal protection of law provided under Article-14.

288
Q

75.In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that fundamental rights are unamendable? (A) A.K. Gopalan’s case (B) Keshavananda Bharti’s case (C) M.C. Mehta’s case (D) Golak Nath’s case

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2007) Exp: In Golaknath case, 1967, Supreme Court held that no authority including parliament can amend or upgrade fundamental rights. Later on, in Keshavananda Bharti case, Supreme Court reversed its decision and pronounced that fundamental rights can be amended subject to basic structure of constitution.

289
Q

“76.Why did one of the High Courts in Indian decree that ‘bandhs are unconstitutional and punitive””? (A) It infringes on the fundamental rights of some groups of people (B) It is not in exercise of a fundamental freedom (C) It adversely affects production (D) It is not part of a right to protest”

A

“(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2003) Exp: Kerela High Court in 1997 declared that ““Bandhs are unconstitutional and punitive”” because of misuse of it. Court said that it is not an exercise of fundamental freedom. Apart from being a huge blow to economy, they throw normal life out of gear, infringing the very concept of freedom.”

290
Q

77.What is the category in which the negotiating strategy of a strike by the Government employees falls? (A) Fundamental Rights of freedom of association and expression (B) Legal Right (C) Trade Union right as common law (D) There is no right

A

(D) (SSC Section Offeice 2003) Exp: According to the judgement pronounced by Supreme Court in 2003, Government employees have no right to strike. It said that no political party or organisation can claim a right to paralyse the economy and industrial activities of a state or nation or inconvenience citizens.

291
Q

78.The Basic Structure of our Constitution was proclaimed by the Supreme Court in (A) Keshavananda Bharti case (B) Golaknath case (C) Minerva Mills case (D) Gopalan case

A

(A) (SSC CPO-SI Pre. 2006) Exp:Keshavananda Bharti vs state of Kerela case, 1973 is one of the most important legal battle of Indian constitution. While pronouncing judgement Supreme Court proclaimed the concept of Basic Structure. It said parliament can amend fundamental rights subject to basic structure of constitution. At that time court did not define what is basic structure.

292
Q

79.Right to Education Act came into force on (A) March 15, 2010 (B) April 1, 2010 (C) July 17, 2010 (D) October 10, 2010

A

(B) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2011) Exp: Right to education act which was passed in 2009 to implement right to education, came into force on 1 April, 2010.

293
Q

80.In which year was the Prevention of terrorism Act (POTA) enacted? (A) 2000 (B) 2001 (C) 2002 (D) 2003

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2014) Exp: Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) was enacted in 2002 to deal with crimes like subversion, insurgency and terrorism. This act has now been repealed. SSC CGL- 2017

294
Q

“81.What is the literal meaning of the term ““QuoWarranto””? (A) We command (B) To forbid (C) By what authority (or) warrant (D) None of these”

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: The term Quo-Warranto means what is the authority. The writ restrains public officials from doing something for which he/she may not have the legal authority. It also challenges a person’s right to hold a public office.

295
Q

82.What is the literal meaning of ‘Certiorari’? (A) We command (B) To have the body of (C) To forbid (D) To be certified (or) to be informed

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Certiorari means to be certified. The writ is issued by Supreme Court or any higher court to overturn the decision passed by any subordinate court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.

296
Q

83.Wh ich of the fo l lowing is justic iable in nature? (A) Fundamental Duties (B) Directive Principles of State Policy (C) Fundamental Rights D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Fundamental Rights contained in Part-III of the constitution are justiciable in nature. DPSP in Part-IV and Fundamental Duties in Part-IV(A) of constitution are not justiciable.

297
Q

84.Which of the following right has been removed from fundamental rights and converted to a simple legal right? (A)Right to life and personal liberty (B)Right to property (C)Right to education (D)Right to freedom of religion

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: In 44th amendment, Right to property has been removed from list of Fundamental Rights. Now the right has been rendered as a legal right.

298
Q

85.Which of the following does not come under Fundamental Duty? (A)To safe guard public property (B) To protect and improve the natural environment (C)To promote harmony (D)To protect freedom of speech and Expression

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:To protect freedom of speech and expression is encompassed in the list of Fundamental Rights. Fundamental Duties are 11 in number and has been incorporated in the constitution on recommendation of Sardar Swarn Singh Committee through 42nd Amendment of Constitution.

299
Q

86.Which of the following is not a fundamental duty? (A)To abide by constitution and respect the National Flag (B)To promote harmony and brotherhood (C) To uphold and protect the sovereignty (D)Abolition of titles except military and academic

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Fundamental Duties are incorporated in Part-IV(A) of the Constitution. These were not part of original Constitution. It has been introduced through 42nd Amendment Act. The 11th duty has been embodied through 86th amendment of Constitution.

300
Q

87.__________ writ is issued by a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction. (A) Habeas Corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Quo Warranto

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Prohibition writ is issued by a higher court to lower court when latter has overstepped its jurisdiction. Other writs are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Quo Warranto and Certiorari.

301
Q

88.Which Fundamenta l R ight in the Ind ian Constitution includes equal access to shops, bathing, ghats, hotels etc? (A) Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom (B) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) Right to Equality (D) Cultural and Educational Rights

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Right to equality ensures everyone equal access to shops, bathing ghats, hotels etc irrespective to caste, religion, creed, sex etc. The article ensures social and economic equality.

302
Q

89.Which Fundamenta l R ight in the Ind ian Constitution states that all persons shall be equally protected by the laws of the country? (A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Freedom (C) Right against exploitation (D) Right to Freedom of Religion

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Right to Equality emphasize that all persons are equal before law irrespective of their economic or social status. However, this right is not absolute and are subject to some restrictions. President, Governors, Diplomats cannot be prosecuted during the time of holding office.

303
Q

90.Which Fundamenta l R ight in the Ind ian Constitution inc ludes abo l ition of untouchability? (A) Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom (B) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) Right to Equality (D) Cultural and Educational Rights

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Right to Equality under Article 17 of the constitution prohibited untouchability. However, constitution itself does not prescribe any punishment but Parliament has the freedom to legislate to make provision more stringent.

304
Q

91._______ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty and thereby is infringing on the right of an individual. (A) Habeas Corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Quo Warranto

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Mandamus is a writ issued by a superior court to any government official, corporation or public authority to do or refrain from doing something. Both Supreme Court and High Court have been empowered with writ jurisdiction. This particular writ is applicable only on public bodies.

305
Q

92.A writ of _________ means that the court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it. (A) Habeas Corpus (B) Mandamus (C) Prohibition (D) Quo Warranto

A

“(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Habeas Corpus literally mean ““that you have the body””. The writ protects the person against any illegal imprisonment. It is applicable both against public and private bodies.”

306
Q

93.Which of the following writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court? (A) Habeas Corpus (B) Quo Warranto (C) Prohibition (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: In Prohibition writ, a higher court restrained lower court from over stepping its jurisdiction. In India both Supreme Court and High Court have been empowered with writ jurisdiction.

307
Q

1.Ideas of welfare state are contained in (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principles of State Policy (C) Preamble of the constitution (D) Part-VIII

A

(B) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Part-IV of the Indian constitution provides for the Directive Principles of State Policy. They constitute the ideas of welfare state through a comprehensive programme of social and economic order.

308
Q

2.Which part of the constitution of India ensures the Social and Economic democracy? (A) Provision of emergency (B) Centre-state relation (C) Directive principles of state policy (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: The Directive Principles of State Policy denotes the ideals that State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These constitute a very comprehensive economic and social programme for a modern welfare democratic state.

309
Q

3.Which of the following ensures economic justice to Indian citizens? (A) Fundamental rights (B) Fundamental duties (C) Preamble (D) Directive principles of state policy

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam 2010) Exp: Though the Preamble makes an oath for providing Social, Economic and Political justice to all citizens, it is ensured by Directive Principles of State Policy under PartIV of constitution. Article-38 directs State to secure social order which ensures social, economic and political justice.

310
Q

4.If the Directive principles of state policy would have not been enforced by government, where can the citizens go? (A) High court (B) Supreme court (C) National human rights commission (D) None of these

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Directive Principles of State Policy is a positive obligation of State towards its citizens. These are nonjusticiable rights contained in Part-IV of constitution. This means that in case of non-enforcement of DPSP, citizens cannot move to courts for its enforcement unlike fundamental rights which are justiciable in nature.

311
Q

5.Which part of the constitution relates with the directive principles of the state policy? (A) Part-III (B) Part -IV (C) Part-I (D) Part-II

A

(B) (SSC Section Officer Exam 2007) Exp: Part-IV, Article-36 to 51 of the constitution is related to the Directive Principles of State Policy. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, these are noble features of constitution and instrument of instructions to the Government. Part-I of constitution is related to Union and its Territory, Part-II with Citizenship and Part-III with Fundamental Rights.

312
Q

“6.Who made this statement that-““the Directive Principles of State Policy are like Bank Cheque, whose payment is done by bank at his own will””? (A) K.T.Shah (B) K.M.Munshi (C) B.R.Ambedkar (D) Austin”

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam 2012, SSC Data Entry Operator Exam 2008) Exp: Directive Principles of State Policy are ideals which state should keep in mind while enacting laws. But in case of its non-enforcement by State, there is no such remedy available to enforce it. That is why K.T. Shah who is known for his active role in Constituent Assembly, described DPSP as Bank Cheque whose payment is done by Bank at its own will.

313
Q

7.Which of the article ensures that Directive principles of state policy cannot be enforced by any court? (A) Article-31 (B) Article-38 (C) Article-37 (D) Article-39

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013) Exp: Article-37 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution talks about the application of the Directive Principles of State Policy. According to this article, directives under Part-IV are non-enforceable by any court but they are fundamental in governance of the country. State should keep these principles in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.

314
Q

8.Which of the following article of Indian constitution is related with the declaration of a welfare state? (A) Article 99 (B) Article 39 (C) Article 59 (D) Article 69

A

(B)Exp: Article-36 to 51 under Part-IV of constitution provides for Directive Principles of State Policy. It is a set of philosophy to make India into a welfare state. Article-39 contains certain principles of policy which are to be followed by the state. These include adequate means of livelihood to men and women equally, equal pay for equal work to both men and women and healthy environment for children to develop etc.

315
Q

“9.Article-39A of the Indian Constitution ““Equal justice and free legal aid”” deals with? (A) the State Government (B) the directive principles of state policy (C) the Union Government (D) the fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

“(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-39(A) which deals with Directive Principles of State Policy ensures ““Equal justice and free legal aid”” by the State to its citizens. 42nd Amendment act,1976 added this article into the constitution. According to this article, State shall ensure that equal opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.”

316
Q

10.Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj? (A) Artilce-36 (B) Article-39 (C) Article-40 (D) Article-48

A

(C) (SSC Sec. Off. Audit 2006) Exp: Article-40 of the Indian constitution provides directive for the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers to enable them to function as units of self government.

317
Q

11.Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State Governments to organise Village Panchayats? (A) Article-32 (B) Article-37 (C) Article-40 (D) Article-51

A

(C) (SSC (10+2) DEO & LDC 2013) Exp: Same as above

318
Q

“12.Who said about ““Ram rule through village rule””? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Vinobha bhave (C) Jayaprakash Narayan (D) Jawaharlal Nehru”

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam 2013) Exp: Mahatma Gandhi described Ram Raj or Ram rule as a divine raj i.e. Kingdom of God. Ram rule signifies participatory democracy and maximum benefits to the people. Mahtama Gandhi was firm believer of participatory democracy through decentralization of power. According to him, it will lead to development of villages, bring harmony and promote justice which inturn will develop India into a prosperous country.

319
Q

“13.Article-41 of the Indian Constitution ““Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases”” deals with? (A) The Union Government (B) The directive principles of state policy (C) The State Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-41 of the Indian constitution which talks about right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases, deals with Directive Principles of State Policy. As per the article, State shall make effective provisions for securing these rights in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in other cases of undeserved want.

320
Q

14.Which Article of the Indian constitution provides for the employer to give maternity benefits to its employees? (A) Article-14 (B) Article-42 (C) Article-43 (D) Article-44

A

(B) (SSC Sect. Off. Audit 2003) Exp: Article-42 of the Indian constitution under Directive Principles of State Policy provides for directive of just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. Article-43 and Article-44 talks about living wage etc. for workers and uniform civil court respectively. Article-14 talks about right to equality.

321
Q

“15.Article-43A of the Indian Constitution ““Participation of workers in management of industries”” deals with? (A) The State Government (B) The Union Government (C) The directive principles of state policy (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

“(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-43A of constitution provides for directive of ““Participation of workers in management of Industries”” and it falls under Part-IV which is related to Directive Principles of State Policy. This article was added into the constitution through 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.”

322
Q

“16.Article 44 of the Indian Constitution ““Uniform civil code for the citizens”” deals with- (A) The directive principles of state policy (B) The Union Government (C) The State Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-44, under Directive Principles of State Policy deals with uniform civil court for citizens. Uniform civil court is an idea of having same personal law irrespective of religion.

323
Q

17.Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in which article of Indian Constitution? (A) 44 (B) 4 (C) 14 (D) 34

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

324
Q

18.In which state of India is there a uniform civil code?(A) Meghalaya (B) Kerala (C) Haryana (D) Goa

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Goa, the smallest state in India, was colony of Portuguese. During Portuguese rule in Goa, they codified and implemented law of inheritance, property and marriage for all religious groups. After independence, youths in Goa protested against any change in uniform civil law. Uniform civil code in Goa includes no concept of Polygamy, no verbal divorce, sharing property with spouse, parents can’t disinherit children from the property etc.

325
Q

19.Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, up to what age of the children, they are expected to be provided free and compulsory education? (A) 14 years (B) 15 years (C) 16 years (D) 18 years

A

(*) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Article-45 under Directive Principles of State Policy provides for directive of early chilhood care and education to children below the age of six years. Based on this directive, Union Government has passed Right to Education Act, 2010 which provides for free and compulsory education to children between the age of 6 to 14 years. Article-21(A) under Part-III also provides for fundamental right to education till the age of 14 years.

326
Q

20.Article 48A of the Indian Constitution ‘‘Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life’’ deals with? (A) The state Government (B) The Union Government (C) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen (D) the directive principles of state policy

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-48 (A) of Indian constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy under Part-IV of constitution. This article was added into constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 to include a directive for protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

327
Q

21.Which directive principle has the direct impact of the moral philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi? (A) Equal pay for equal work (B) Free Legal Aid and Advice (C) Ban on Cow Slaughter (D) Conservation of Historical Monuments

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2008) Exp: Gandhi believed in the philosophy of non-violence and according to him violence on animals is also a gruesome act of brutal force. Hurting others for the sake of our benefit was against the philosophy of Gandhi. That is why he took initiative to protect and preserve the milch animals and its progeny.

328
Q

22.Where is the Constitutional power located enabling the Central Government to legislate on cow slaughter? (A) Entry 17, List III in Schedule VII- Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (B) Residuary Powers under Article 248 (C) Emergency Powers (D) Article-48 in the Directive Principles

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2004) Exp: Article-48 under Directive Principles of State Policy enables the Central Government and State Governments to legislate on cow slaughter. According to this article, state shall endeavour to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern scientific lines and shall take steps to improve breed and prohibition of slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.

329
Q

23.Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution- (A) The Preamble (B) The Fundamental Right (C) The Directive Principles of State Policy (D) The Seventh Schedule

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2000) Exp: Article-50 under Directive Principles of State Policy provides for the directive of separation of judiciary from executive. According to this article, State shall take steps to seperate judiciary from executive in public services of State.

330
Q

24.Which constitutional amendment has made Directive principles of state policy more important than fundamental rights? (A) 42nd (B) 44th (C) 52nd (D) 56th

A

(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2007, SSC FCIExam 2012) Exp: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 through Article-31(C) gave precedence to all Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights. Later on, in Minerva Mills case,1980, Supreme Court struck down 42nd Amendment act related to Article-31(C) and upheld the importance of Fundamental Rights over DPSP except directives under Article-39(b) and 39(c), which are given primacy over Fundamental Rights under Article-14.

331
Q

25.In which of the following matter, the Supreme Court upheld the importance of fundamental rights over directive principles of state policy? (A) Golaknath case (B) Keshavananda Bharti case (C) Minerva Mills case (D) All of these

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

332
Q

26.Reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the services has been provided in the Indian Constitution under- (A) Article-375 (B) Article-315 (C) Article-335 (D) Article-365

A

(C) Exp: Article-335 provides for the directive of reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in public services. This is one of the directives outside Part-IV. Other directives outside Part-IV are directive under Article-350(A) and Article-351 which talks about instruction in mothertongue at primary stage of education and duty of Union to promote the spread of Hindi language respectively.

333
Q

1.Who is the constitutional head of the Indian government? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Chief justice of India(D) Attorney general

A

(A) (SSC CGL Exam 2008) Exp: Since Article-53(1) confers executive powers of Union of India to the President, he or she is the constitutional head of Indian government. But the real powers of governance are vested in the office of Prime Minister. That is why, Prime Minister in India is called the real head of government.

334
Q

2.Who organizes the election process for the post of President of India? (A) Vice-President of India (B) Election Commission of India (C) Chief Justice of India (D) Attorney General of India

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer Grade C Exam 2005) Exp: Article-324 of constitution authorizes Election Commission of India for superintendence, direction and control of elections to the office of President, VicePresident, Parliament and Legislatures of every State.

335
Q

3.The Electoral College that elects the President of India consists of- (A) Elected members of all the State Legislatures (B) Members of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies (C) Elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies (D) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2005) Exp: President of India is elected through an Electoral College provided under Article-54. Electoral College consists of elected members of both the houses of Parliament, elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry.

336
Q

4.The winning candidate in the Election of President of India should secure- (A) Majority number of votes polled (B) Sixty six percent of votes polled (C) Fifty percent of votes polled (D) More than fifty percent and majority of the total votes polled

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2012) Exp: Provisions dealing with election of President are provided in Articles-54 and 55 and President and VicePresident(elections) Act,1952. Accordingly, President of India is elected through Proportional Representation by Means of Single Transferable Vote system. The winning candidate in this method of election must secure more than 50 percent of total valid votes.

337
Q

5.Article 60 of the Indian Constitution refers to: (A) Election of the president of India (B) Oath of the President (C) Impeachment of the President (D) Vice President of India

A

(B) (SSC CPO SI, ASI 2016) Exp: Article-60 of the constitution provides for the Oath of the President. According to this article, Oath of the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India. In the absence of CJI, senior most judge of Supreme Court available administers it.

338
Q

6.Who administers the oath of office to the President? (A) Chief Justice of India (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) Vice-President (D) Prime Minister

A

(A) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2015) Exp: Same as above

339
Q

7.The impeachment process of President of India is adopted from- (A) USA (B) UK (C) USSR (D) France

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: Article-61 of Indian Constitution provides for impeachment process of President of India, which has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A. As per provisions of this article, resolution seeking impeachment of President can be brought in either house of Parliament and it can be brought only if one fourth of membership of house in which it is proposed, have given signed approval.

340
Q

8.President of India can be removed from his office by- (A) Prime Minister of India (B) Chief Justice of India (C) Parliament (D) Lok Sabha

A

(C) (3 Sep. 2016 (Afternoon) Exp:Constitution of India under Article-61 has conferred power to Parliament to impeach President of India for violation of constitution. Any resolution seeking impeachment of President must be passed by both the houses of Parliament with special majority of not less than two-third of total membership of the house. So far, no President has been impeached.

341
Q

9.What is the age limit to contest for the post of the president of India? (A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 35 years (D) 18 years

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: Article-58 of Constitution mentions the qualifications required to get elected as President of India. Essential qualifications include - he or she must be a citizen of India, must have completed the age of thirty-five years and must be qualified for election as a member of House of People i.e. Lok Sabha.

342
Q

10.What is the retirement age of the President? (A) 70 years (B) 75 (C) 80 (D) No age limit

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Article-56(1) mentions the tenure of President which is of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. But the constitution does not prescribe the retirement age of President. There is no such age limit till he or she can serve as President.

343
Q

11.What is the maximum age limit for the President post of India? (A) 58 years (B) 60 years (C) 62 years (D) No age limit

A

(D) (SSC Data Entry Operator Exam 2009) Exp: There is a provision of minimum age which is 35 years to become President of India. But there is no such provision of maximum age limit for the post of President.

344
Q

12.What is the salary per month of the President of India? (A) Rs 1,50,000 (B) Rs 1,00,000 (C) Rs 75,000 (D) Rs 50,000

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: President of India is entitled to a salary of Rs. 1.5 lakhs per month and a pension of 50 percent of his salary per month. As per Second Schedule of constitution, the salary, emoluments and allowances of President is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

345
Q

13.President can forward his resignation to whom? (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Prime Minister (C) Vice-president (D) Chief justice of supreme court

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2008, SSC Com. Higher Secon. 2015) Exp: As mentioned under Article-56(1), President of India can resign from his office by writing a letter addressing to Vice-President. And as per Article-56(2), any resignation addressed to Vice-President shall be communicated to the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

346
Q

14.According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within- (A) 1 month (B) 6 months (C) 3 months (D) 1 year

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 1999) Exp: Under normal circumstances, election process to fill the vacancy caused by expiration of the term of office of President which is of 5 years, shall be completed before Expiration of that term. But an election to fill the vacancy in office of President occuring due to his death, resignation or impeachment or otherwise, shall be held within 6 months from the date of occurance of such vacancy.

347
Q

15.How many members can be nominated for both houses of parliament by the president? (A) 16 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2014) Exp: President of India can nominate total 14 members to both the houses of Parliament. Out of these 14 members, 12 members can be nominated in Rajya Sabha and 2 members of Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in the Lok Sabha.

348
Q

16.Who is the Supreme Commander in Chief of Defence Forces of the country? (A) Defence Minister (B) Prime Minister (C) Senior of all three forces (D) President

A

(D) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: According to the provisions under Article-53(2), President of India is the Supreme Commander in Chief of Defence Forces of Union of India. Defence forces in India include Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force.

349
Q

17.Who appoints and dismisses the gazetted officials of the Union Government? (A) The President of India (B) The Prime Minister of India (C) The Home Minister of India (D) The Finance Minister of India

A

(A) (28 Aug. 2016 (Morning)) Exp: President is the executive head of Union of India. All important appointments in India are done by the President of India. Most of them are removed from their office by the President and some of them hold the office till the pleasure of President. Gazetted officials of Union Government are appointed and dismissed by President only.

350
Q

18.Which of the following appointments are not made by President of India? (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Chief justice of India (C) Chief of air force (D) Chief of army

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: Chief Justice of India, Chief of all the three defence forces in India i.e. Indian Army, Navy and Air Force are appointed by President of India. Whereas Speaker of Lok Sabha is not appointed by President rather he or she is elected by newly constituted Lok Sabha from among its members.

351
Q

19.Which of the following appointment is not in the Jurisdiction of President? (A) Chief justice of India (B) Chairman of finance commission (C) Chief of army (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

A

(D) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

352
Q

20.A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force (A) For three months (B) For six months (C) For nine months (D) Indefinitely

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2010) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-123, President can promulgate Ordinance to deal with matters of urgent national importance. It can be promulgated anytime except when both the houses of Parliament are in session. An Ordinance issued by President must be approved by Parliament within 6 weeks of its reassembly otherwise it will cease to operate. And since maximum time gap between two sessions of Parliament can be 6 months, the maximum time upto which an Ordinance can remain in force is 6 months and 6 weeks.

353
Q

21.The ordinance issued by president is applicable for the period of - (A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 9 months (D) Uncertain time

A

(B) (SSC CGL Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

354
Q

22.Which of the following does not hold his post after the approval of the President? (A) Prime Minister (B) Governor (C) Election Commission (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Prime Minister of India, Governor of State and Election Commissioners in India, all are appointed by President or hold his post after approval of President. Whereas there is no need of approval of President in case of appointment of Speaker of Lok Sabha as he or she is elected by the members of Lok Sabha from among themselves.

355
Q

23.Who held the post of President twice? (A) S.Radhakrishnan (B) K.R.Narayanan (C) Neelam Sanjeev Reddy (D) Babu Rajendra Prasad

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2002,SSC CPO Exam 2007) Exp: Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, held the office of President from 1950 to 1962. In 1957 he was re-elected to the office of President, becoming the only President to hold the post twice. S. Radhakrishnan was second President of India whereas K.R. Narayanan was the first candidate to get elected as President from marginalised section of society.

356
Q

24.Which of the following person was elected unopposed for the post of president? (A) Rajendra Prasad (B) S.Radhakrishanan (C) N.Sanjeev Reddy (D) Shankar Dayal Sharma

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer grade d Exam 2005) Exp: Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy is the only President who got elected unopposed. He served as President of India from 1977 to 1982. He was the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and a two-time Speaker of Lok Sabha. He became the youngest Indian President ever.

357
Q

25.Who was the first Non-Political President of India? (A) Jakir Hussain (B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (C) S.Radhakrishanan (D) Rajendra Prasad

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: The renowned scientist, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was the first non-political President of India. He served as 11th President of India from 2002 to 2007. He is also known as Missile Man of India for his work on the development of ballistic missile and launch vehicle technology. Dr. Jakir Hussain was first candidate to get elected as President from religious minority community.

358
Q

26.Supreme Court has the right to mitigate the dispute regarding the election of President and Vice-President. It is- (A) Fundamental right (B) Discretionary right (C) Advisory right (D) Multifaceted right

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level 1999,SSC CGL 2006) Exp: Supreme Court of India under Article-71 has exclusive and fundamental right to settle the dispute regarding election of President and Vice-President. Any dispute regarding election can be challenged in Supreme Court only after completion of the process of election and not during the process.

359
Q

27.Rashtrapati Bhavan was built in- (A) 1852 (B) 1910 (C) 1947 (D) 1986

A

(*) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Rashtrapati Bhawan, formerly known as Viceroy’s House, is the official residence of President of India located in New Delhi. Its architect was Edwin Landseer Lutyens. Its construction started in 1912 and it was completed in 1929 during the Viceroyality of Lord Irwin.

360
Q

28.The power to grant pardon or suspend or remit the sentence of any convicted person is vested in the- (A) President (B) Vice President (C) Supreme Court Judge (D) Defence Minister

A

(A) (SSC Section Off. Exam 2006) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-72, President of India enjoys certain judicial powers. He has the power to pardon, reprive, respite, remit or commute any sentence by the Court. Governor of States enjoy similar powers under Article-161 except power to pardon death sentences.

361
Q

29.Which of the following statement is not correct? (A) Vice-President is the chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) Vice-President of India acts as President at the time of a vacancy is occurred suddenly(C) While acting as President, Vice-president does not perform the duties of the office of Rajya Sabha (D) When Vice-President acts as the President, the duties of President are performed by a person nominated by President in consultation with Prime Minister.

A

(D) (SSC LDC Exam 2005) Exp: Article-63 establishes the office of Vice-President. He is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. At the time of vacancy in the office of President, Vice-President acts as President and while acting as President, he or she does not perform the duties of Chairman of Rajya Sabha and exercises all powers of the President. During this VicePresident receives salary and emoluments of President.

362
Q

30.Who completed two successive regimes of the Vice-President of India? (A) S.Radhakrishnan (B) V.V.Giri (C) B.D.Jatti (D) M.Hidaytullah

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2001, SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012, SSC CPO Exam 2009) Exp: Dr. Radhakrishnan served for two successive tenures as Vice- President of India from 1952-57 and 1957-62. He became the second President of India in 1962 and served till 1967. After him, Mohd. Hamid Ansari has also served two successive tenures as Vice-President. He served from 2007 to 2017.

363
Q

31.The second most senior office in the country is of______. (A) Office of the President of India (B) Office of the Prime Minister of India (C) Office of the Vice President of India (D) Office of the Chief Justice of India

A

(C) (SSC CGL Exam 2008) Exp: Office of President is the most senior office in country whereas office of Vice-President comes second in the table of precedence. Office of Prime Minister is ranked third which is followed by office of Governor within concerned State and former Presidents. Thereafter comes the office of Deputy Prime Minister in table of precedence which is followed by Chief Justice of India along with Speaker of Lok Sabha.

364
Q

32.The Vice-President of India is elected by - (A) The members of Parliament (B) Members of Rajya Sabha (C) Elected members of Parliament (D) Members of State Legislature and Parliament

A

(A) (SSC CGL Exam 2008) Exp: As per the provisions of Article-66, Vice-President of India shall be elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both the houses of Parliament through the method of Proportional Representation by Means of Single Transferable Vote (PRSTV) system.

365
Q

33.The Vice-President is the ex-officio chaiman of- (A) Rajya Sabha (B) Lok sabha (C) Planning commission (D) National development council

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: As mentioned under Article-64 and 89(1), VicePresident shall be the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Here ex-officio means that by virtue of one office you are authorized to hold another. And the moment you loose one office, you will loose the other one too.

366
Q

34.Vice-President is- (A) Member of Lok Sabha (B) Member of Rajya Sabha (C) Member of any house (D) Not a member of any house

A

(D) (SSC CGL Exam 2013) Exp: Article-66(2) of Constitution prohibits Vice-President from being a member of either house of Parliament or of State Legislature. But he or she shall be qualified for election as a member of Council of States to become Vice-President as provided under Article-66(3).

367
Q

35.Wh ich of the fol lowing can bring the impeachment process of Vice-President? (A) Legislative Council (B) Legislative Assembly (C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam 2015) Exp: Removal of Vice-President is a special power of Rajya Sabha. Article-67 provides for the procedure of removal of Vice-President. A resolution seeking removal of VicePresident can only be brought first in Rajya Sabha. And it must be approved by a majority of all the then members of Rajya Sabha and must be agreed by Lok Sabha with simple majority.

368
Q

36.By which of the following method, Prime Minister of India is selected? (A) Election (B) Appointment (C) Nomination (D) Selection

A

(B) (SSC CGL Exam 2010) Exp: After General Election i.e. election to the Lok Sabha, the newly elected members of Parliament in Lok Sabha belonging to Party or Coalition having majority, select a person as their leader to become Prime Minister. And as per provisions under Article-75, Prime Minister in India is appointed by President.

369
Q

37.In India, Prime Minister can hold his post till, he has - (A) Support of armed forces (B) Confidence of Rajya Sabha (C) Confidence of Lok Sabha (D) Support of people

A

(C) (SSC CGL Exam 2006) Exp: According to Article-75(3), Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister shall be collectively responsible to the lower house i.e. Lok Sabha. Collective responsibility here signifies that the existence of Council of Ministers with Prime Minister is only till they enjoy majority or confidence of Lok Sabha.

370
Q

38.What is the minimum age for the post of Prime Minister of India? (A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 25 (D) 35

A

(C) (SSC metric level Exam 2008) Exp: To become the Prime Minister of India, a person should be a member of either house of Parliament. In case of his membership in Rajya Sabha, minimum age required is 30 years whereas in case of membership in Lok Sabha, it is 25 years.

371
Q

39.Who chairs the meeting of Council of Ministers? (A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Cabinet Secretary (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: According to the Article-74, Prime Minister is the head of Council of Ministers. He presides over the meetings of Council of Ministers and decides the agenda and venue of the meeting too.

372
Q

“40.In parliamentary democracy ““he is the first among all””. Who is he- (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Leader of opposition (D) Chairman of lower house”

A

“(B) (SSC Data Entry Operator Exam 2009) Exp: Prime Minister is the chief crisis manager of the country. According to Lord Morley, head of the Government in parliamentary form of government i.e. Prime Minister is ““Primus Inter Pares””, meaning, ““first among all of his equals””. The kind of authority which is enjoyed by Prime Minister in parliamentary form of government is immense and can never be equated even with the authority of all the members of Council of Ministers put together.”

373
Q

41.Who is the chairman of planning commission? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) Vice-President

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2011) Exp: Planning Commission was established on 15th March 1950. Prime Minister is the Chairman of Planning Commission. He is also the Chairman of NITI Aayog which replaced Planning Commission as Government of India policy think-tank in 2015.

374
Q

42.Who was the first deputy Prime Minister of India? (A) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Guljari Lal Nanda

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2015) Exp: Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India. He held this post from 15th August 1947 to 15th December 1950. There is no such post of Deputy Prime Minister in constitution. So, he is not liable to take any salary and allowances as Deputy PrimeMinister. That is why, he has to hold a post of Cabinet Minister too. Unofficially he is declared 2nd in rank in Council of Ministers after Prime Minister at first

375
Q

43.How many maximum terms, a person can serve as Prime Minister of India? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) No limit

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constitution does not prescribe any limit with respect to the number of terms a person can serve as Prime Minister of India. A person can remain as Prime Minister till the time Council of Ministers headed by him enjoys majority or confidence of Lok Sabha.

376
Q

44.What is the retirement age of the Prime Minister of India? (A) 60 years (B) 70 years (C) 80 years (D) No limit

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Constitution does not prescribe the retirement age of Prime Minister. There is no age limit till he/she can serve as Prime Minister. But there is provision for minimum age of 25 years, if he/she is a member of Lok Sabha and 30 years in case of his/her membership in Rajya Sabha.

377
Q

45.Who has served maximum time as the Prime Minister of India? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Indira Gandhi (C) Manmohan Singh (D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Jawaharlal Nehru of Indian National Congress was sworn-in as the first Prime Minister of the Independent India on 15th August 1947. He has served maximum time as Prime Minister till his death in 1964.

378
Q

46.Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of- (A) Council of Ministers (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) President of India (D) Cabinet Ministers

A

(A) (SSC Com. Matr. 1999) Exp: Article-74 and 75 of Indian constitution deal with the Council of Ministers. Article-74 states that the Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister will aid and advice the President. Whereas Article-75 contains provisions with respect to appointment, oath, tenure, responsibilities and salaries of Ministers.

379
Q

47.According to Article-75(3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the- (A) President (B) Parliament (C) Lok Sabha (D) Rajya Sabha

A

(C) (SSC Com. Matric 2002) Exp: India has parliamentary form of government and collective responsibility is one of the important features of this system. As per provisions of Article-75(3), Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha or House of the People. Collective responsibility here signifies that any action or decision of a minister will be considered as decision of Council of Ministers and will be subjected to scruitney of Parliament.

380
Q

48.According to Indian constitution, Central Minister will hold his post at the will of- (A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Parliament (D) Supreme Court

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: As per provisions of Article-75(1), Ministers at Central/Union level are appointed by President on the advice of Prime Minister. And according to Article-75(2), they hold office during the pleasure of President and can be removed anytime by the President without any process and ground.

381
Q

49.If the Prime Minister of India submits his resignation to the President, it will mean the resignation of the (A) Prime Minister only (B) Prime Minister and the Cabinet Ministers (C) Entire Council of Ministers (D) Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers and the Speaker

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: Prime Minister is considered to be the lifeline of Council of Ministers. Council of Ministers comes to existence with the appointment of Prime Minister and it ceases to exist with the death or resignation of Prime Minister.

382
Q

50.Narendra Modi is the________ Prime Minister of India- (A) 5th (B) 10th (C) 14th (D) 18th

A

(C) (SSC CGL Exam 2008) Exp: Former Chief Minister of Gujarat, Narendra Modi is 14th Prime Minister of Independent India. He is leading the Government formed by 16th Lok Sabha.

383
Q

51.The Council of Ministers does not include- (A) Cabinet Minister (B) State Minister (C) Cabinet Secretary (D) Minister without ministry

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: Article-75 establishes that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister to aid and advice the President. Council of Ministers in India includes Prime Minister, Cabinet Minister, Minister of State and Minister of State (Independent Charge). Cabinet Secretary is not the part of Council of Ministers rather he/she is part of permanent executive and the senior most civil servant in India.

384
Q

52.The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers- (A) with the consent of the Speaker (B) only under emergency conditions (C) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister (D) on his own

A

(C) (30 Aug. 2016 (Evening)) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-75(1), Ministers of Union/Central Government are appointed by President after an advice from Prime Minister. They are also dismissed from Council of Ministers by President only after Prime Minister recommends so.

385
Q

53.Who appoints the Attorney General of India? (A) Chief Minister of India (B) President of India (C) Law Minister (D) Prime Minister of India

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer grade C and D Exam 2014) Exp: According to the provisions under Article-76, any person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court can be appointed as Attorny General of India by President.

386
Q

54.Who is the first law officer of the country? (A) Chief Justice of India (B) Attorney General (C) Law Minister (D) Solicitor General

A

(B) (10 Sep. 2016 (Morning)) Exp: Attorney General of India is said to be the first law officer of the country. He is appointed by President to advice Union Government on legal matters, to represent the Government of India in Courts during trial in important cases and to perform any other legal duty assigned.

387
Q

55.The Attorney General of India has the power to appear in- (A) Supreme Court (B) Any High Court (C) Any Session Court (D) Any Court in India

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013) Exp: Article-76(3) authorizes Attorney General of India to audience or appear in any Court in the territory of India while performing his duties.

388
Q

56.Attorney General of India has the right to audience in (A) any Session Court (B) High Court (C) Supreme Court (D) any Court of law within the territory of India

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2010) Exp: Same as above

389
Q

57.Who can be invited to the Parliament for any suggestion or advice? (A) Attorney General of India (B) Chief Justice of India (C) Chief Election Commissioner of India (D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

A

(A) (SSC Section Off.Exam 2006) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-88, Attorney General of India being the first law officer of country can be invited to Parliament for any suggestion or advice. He has the right to participate in the proceedings of both the houses of Parliament. He also has the right to speak but no right to vote in either house of Parliament.

390
Q

58.Which of the follwing non-members of Parliament has the right to address it? (A) Attorney General of India (B) Solicitor General of India(C) Chief Justice of India (D) Chief Election Commissoner

A

(A) (SSC Section Officer 2000) Exp: Same as above

391
Q

59.What is the term of the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (A) 6 years (B) Upto the age of 65 years (C) 6 years or upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier (D) Upto the age of 64 years

A

(C) (SSC CGL Exam 2005) Exp: Article-148 establishes that there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor General of India appointed by President. He is appointed for a period of 6 years or upto 65 years of his age, whichever is earlier. He can also resign from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the President.

392
Q

60.For whom, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India works as a friend, philosopher and guide? (A) Public Accounts Committee (B) Estimates Committee (C) Finance Ministry (D) Committee on Public Undertakings

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level Exam 2014) Exp: CAG has been conferred with the authority to audit all accounts of Government of India and to submit a report in this regard to the President, who causes the report to be tabelled in Parliament. This report is immediately referred to Public Accounts Committee(PAC) of Parliament which after a detailed study, prepares another report. This new report of PAC is placed before Parliament for discussion. That is why it is said that CAG works as friend, philosopher and guide for Public Accounts Committee.

393
Q

61.The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the- (A) Union Government (B) State Government (C) Union and State Governments (D) Neither Union nor State Governments

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2003) Exp: CAG’s (Duties, powers and conditions of service) Act, 1971 has mentioned the duties of CAG. It includes auditing all accounts of Government of India and Government of States. He also acts as chief accountant for the Government of State as he prepares and maintains the accounts of State Governments.

394
Q

62.In single transferable voting system, each member can Express its verdict by- (A) Two options (B) Only one option (C) One less than the filled members (D) Voting for all

A

(D) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2011) Exp: In single transferable voting system, each voter can Express its verdict by voting for all the candidates. He or she has to write preferences among the candidates while voting. Approximately in all indirect elections in India like election of President, Vice-President, Rajya Sabha etc., this system is followed.

395
Q

63.Implementing laws is the function of (A) Executive (B) Legislature (C) Judiciary (D) Local list

A

(A) (SSC CHSL Pre. 2001) Exp: Legislature in India has been conferred with the function to make laws. But function of its implementation is with executive. There are two types of executives in India - Temporary or Political and Permanent. Political executive includes members of Council of Ministers including Prime Minister. Whereas permanent executives are members of bureaucracy or civil services. Judiciary in India has been provided with the function to adjudicate laws.

396
Q

64.Who is the Supreme Civil Officer of Central Government- (A) Attorney General (B) Cabinet Secretary (C) Home Secretary (D) Principle Secretary of Prime Minister

A

(B) (SSC Section Off. Exam 2006) Exp: Cabinet Secretary is the Supreme Civil Officer of Central Government. Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of Cabinet Secretariat. He acts as chief advisor to Prime minister. He is the senior most civil servant and therefore acts as a friend, conscience keeper and guide to all civil servants. SSC CGL & CPO 2017

397
Q

65.Who among the following is the executive head of state in India? (A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Cabinet Secretary (D) Finance Secretary

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: President is the executive head of state in India. All decisions made by Government are taken in the name of President. However, the real head of state is the Prime Minister.

398
Q

66.Under which pardoning power of the President, duration of sentence is reduced without changing its character? (A) Commutation (B) Remission (C) Respite (D) Reprieve

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Under Article 72 of the constitution, The President of India is authorised to grant pardon, reprieve, respite or remission of punishment. Remission is reduction in prisoner’s sentence without changing the character or nature of punishment.Commutation - changing the character of punishment. Reprieve - its a temporary relief or postponment of punishment, specially in death sentence. Respite - Awarding lesser sentence than prescribed because of special circumstances eg. Pregnancy of women offender.

399
Q

67.In Pocket Veto, the President of India can keep a bill for how much duration? (A) 1 month (B) 6 months (C) 12 months (D) Indefinite period

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Pocket veto enables the President to keep a bill on its table for an indefinite period of time. This privilege was once used by the President Zail Singh in case of Indian post office (amendment) Bill in 1986.

400
Q

68.What is the maximum period for which the Vice President can act as the President in case of vacancy in the the President’s office? (A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 1 year (D) 2 years

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: The Vice President of India can act as the President of India only for a period of 6 months. V.V. Giri became the acting President and remains the only person to have held office both as a President and Acting President.

401
Q

69.Which among the following is not appointed by the President of India? (A) Vice-President of India (B) Judge of Supreme Court (C) Attorney General of India (D) Chief Justice of India

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Other than Vice President all others are appointed by the President. Vice President after being elected by collegium becomes the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha. President only administer the oath but do not appoint him.

402
Q

70.How is the President of India elected? (A) Directly by public voting (B) By single transferable vote (C) By secondary voting system (D) All options are correct.

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: President of India is elected by collegium comprising of elected MLA and MPS of all States and Union Territories. However, nominated MP do not participate in election of President.

403
Q

71.Under which pardoning power of the President, one form of punishment is substituted by a lighter form? (A) Commutation (B) Remission (C) Respite (D) Reprieve

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Under Article-72, President is empowered to substitute one form of punishment with lighter one. It is called commutation of sentence.

404
Q

1.Parliament includes- (A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (C) Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly (D) Legislative Assembly, Legislative Council and Lok Sabha

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2007, SSC Matric Level 2008, SSC CGL 2011) Exp: According to Article-79, there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of President and two houses to be known as House of People and Council of States. Council of States also known as Rajya Sabha is the Upper house of Parliament whereas House of People i.e. Lok Sabha is the Lower house.

405
Q

2.The most important feature of Indian Parliament is- (A) It is the union legislature in India (B) It includes the President (C) It is bicameral (D) Its Upper house never dissolves

A

(B) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: Parliament of India is the Union legislature in India which has a bicameral set-up and its Upper House i.e. Rajya Sabha can never be dissolved. These features are mostly prevalent in all countries having Union legislature. But the distinctive and most important feature of Union legislature in India is the inclusion of President in Parliament. No law in India can be enacted until President assents to it.

406
Q

3.Which of the following makes law in India- (A) President and Council of Ministers (B) High Court and Supreme Court (D) President and both houses of Parliament (D) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2012) Exp:Parliament which is the Union legislature in India, has the power to make laws. It consists of President and two houses which are known as Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Any law can be enacted at Union level only if the bill consisting provisions of law has been passed by both the houses and has got assent of the President.

407
Q

4.The main duty of the legislature is- (A) Central administration (B) Enforcement of law (C) Execution of judicial matters (D) Execution of laws

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Legislature is the legislative body of a country or state. It is a deliberative assembly with the authority to make laws for a political entity such as a country. Its main function is enforcement or enactment of laws whereas execution of laws is the function of executive in India i.e. government and bureaucracy.

408
Q

5.Parliament and Constitution are not mode of - (A) Legal Justice (B) Political Justice (C) Economic Justice (D) Social Justice

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2010, SSC Stenographer 2011) Exp: Indian democratic system was formed with an objective of providing its citizen social, economic and political justice. Preamble of India takes oath to provide justice which is ensured by Directive Principles of State Policy. Therefore Parliament and Constitution are mode of political, economic and social Justice. But the authority to ensure legal justice has been vested in the judiciary in India.

409
Q

6.Bicameral Legislature means (A) Primary and secondary legislature (B) Lower and Upper Chamber (C) Lok Adalats and Courts (D) Elected as well as selected members

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Bicameral legislature is a legislature with two houses or chambers. One is called Lower house and second as Upper house of legislature. Indian Parliament is a bicameral legislature consisting of Lower house and Upper house i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively.

410
Q

7.Answer the name of two temporary houses of parliamentary structure of India- (A) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assembly (B) Lok Sabha and Legislative Council (C) Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council (D) Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly

A

(D) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2014) Exp: Constitution has provided for Bicameral set-up(two houses) at both state and central level. At central level, there are two houses known as Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha is a temporary house which normally dissolves after every five year. On the other hand, Rajya Sabha is a permanent house which can never be dissolved. A similar set up has been provided at State level where State Legislative Assembly is a temporary house and State Legislative Council is a permanent house.

411
Q

8.Building of the Parliament of India is called___. (A) Sansad Bhavan (B) Lok Sabha Bhavan (C) Rajya Sabha Bhavan (D) Sarkar Bhavan

A

“(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Building of Parliament is called as “” Sansad Bhavan””. It is a circular building designed by British architects Sir Edward Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker in 1912- 1913.”

412
Q

9.Lok Sabha is the ___________ House of the Parliament of India. (A) Lower (B) Upper (C) Left (D) Right

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As mentioned under Article-79, Parliament consists of President and two houses that are known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of People (Lok Sabha). Lok Sabha is called as Lower house of Parliament whereas Rajya Sabha is the Upper house of Parliament.

413
Q

10.What is the name of Upper house of Indian Parliament? (A) Senate (B) Rajya Sabha (C) House of Lords (D) Legislative Assembly

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam, 2015) Exp: Same as above

414
Q

11.Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha? (A) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) The President (C) The Joint-session of Parliament (D) None of these

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2003) Exp: As per provisions of Article-83(1), Rajya Sabha is the permanent house of Parliament that can never be dissolved. But there is a provision that one-third of its members shall retire every second year.

415
Q

12.Rajya Sabha is dissolved- (A) After every five year (B) After every six year (C) On the advice of Prime Minister (D) None of these

A

(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2008) Exp: Same as above

416
Q

13.What is the maximum number of Members of the Rajya Sabha? (A) 150 (B) 200 (C) 250 (D)300

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As per provisions under Article-80, Rajya Sabha can have maximum of 250 members. Out of 250, 238 shall be representatives of States and Union Territories while remaining 12 members shall be nominated by President. At present, it has 245 members, out of which 233 represents States and Union Territories and rest are nominated.

417
Q

14.What is the total number of members in Rajya Sabha from States and Union Territories? (A) 218 (B) 228 (C) 238 (D) 248

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

418
Q

15.How many Rajya Sabha members, the President of India can nominate? (A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 15

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As per provisions of Article-80, President of India can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Any person having special knowledge and practical experience in Art, Science, Literature and Social service can be nominated.

419
Q

16.For what duration, the election of member of Rajya Sabha is done? (A) Two years (B) Four years (C) Five years (D) Six years

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2011) Exp: Rajya Sabha is a permanent house in Parliament whose members are elected indirectly for a period of 6 years through the method of proportional representation by single transferable vote system.

420
Q

17.How many members of the Rajya Sabha are elected every two years? (A) All (B) One fourth (C) Half (D) One third

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and is not subject to dissolution. But its members have a fixed tenure of 6 years. This house was constituted for the first time in such a manner that one-third of its members retire every 2nd year after completing the tenure of 6 years. And in their place new one-third members are elected.

421
Q

18.Who elects the members of Rajya Sabha? (A) Elected members of the Legislative Council (B) The People (C) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly (D) Lok Sabha

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As per provisions under Article-80, members of Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Pondicherry, in accordance with system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote system.

422
Q

19.Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? (A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Vice-President of India (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

A

(C)Exp: According to the provisions under Article-64 and 89(1), Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. In his absence the house is presided by a Deputy Chairman elected by the members of Rajya Sabha from among themselves.

423
Q

20.In which house, the chairman of that house is not a member of house- (A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Legislative Assembly (D) Legislative Council

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2013) Exp: Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member of the house. Whereas Chairman or presiding officers of Lok Sabha, Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council are elected by the respective houses from among the members.

424
Q

21.Who will be elected as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha- (A) Any person who is eligible for member of Rajya Sabha (B) Any member who is working as a member of Rajya Sabha (C) Any member of the Parliament (D) A person nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President

A

(B) (SSC LDC Exam 2005) Exp: Rajya Sabha elects one Deputy Chairman from among its members to preside over the proceedings of the house in the absence of Chairman. Deputy Chairman has no fixed tenure. He or She can serve as a Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha till he/she remains a member of Rajya Sabha.

425
Q

22.What is the minimum age to become the Prime Minister of India if he or she is a member of Rajya Sabha? (A) 18 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: President of India appoints a person as Prime Minister who has completed the age of 30 years in case he or she is a member of Rajya Sabha and 25 years in case of his or her membership in Lok Sabha.

426
Q

23.Rajya Sabha is assisted by the Secretary General, who holds the rank equivalent to? (A) Cabinet Minister of the Government of India (B) Member of Parliament (C) Member of Legislature (D) Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Rajya Sabha is assisted by the Secretary General who holds the rank equivalent to Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India. Under rules of business of Government of India, Cabinet Secretary is ex-officio head of Indian Administrative Services, the Cabinet Secretariat and All India Civil Service.

427
Q

24.To become a member of the Rajya Sabha a person must be at least_______years old. (A) 18 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D)24

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As per provisions of Article-84(b), minimum age to become a member of Rajya Sabha is 30 years as against 25 years in case of Lok Sabha.

428
Q

25.What is the minimum age to qualify for Lok Sabha Elections? (A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 21 years (D) 18 years

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

429
Q

“26.In which year, ““House of People”” was named as Lok Sabha- (A) 1954 (B) 1964 (C) 1974 (D) 1984”

A

“(A) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2010, SSC Stenographer 2011) Exp: Lok Sabha which is the lower house of Parliament, is a house elected directly by the people. That is why it is known as ““House of People””. Lok Sabha, the Hindi nomenclature was adopted on 14th May, 1954.”

430
Q

27.Which house of the Indian parliament is a house elected by the people- (A) Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha (C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: Same as above