op zoo 2 Flashcards

1
Q

1.How many bones found in human skeletal or body? (A) 212 (B) 206 (C) 202 (D) 200

A

(B) [SSC MTS, 2011, 1999, 2002] Exp: The Human Skeletal system is comprised of 206 bones. Each bone is made up of many cells, protein fibres and minerals. Skeletal system support and protect the soft tissues, help in movement of the joint, calcium storage and endocrine regulation.

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2
Q

2.In human body total bones are- (A) 187 (B) 287 (C) 206 (D) 306

A

(C) [SSC CGL, 2008, 2011] Exp: The Skeletal system in an Human adult body is made up of 206 bones. The bones are arranged into two major divisions as the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton. The axial skeletal includes skull, hyoid, Auditory ossicles, Ribs, Sternum and vertebral column and is made up of 80 bones. The appendicular skeleton is made up of 126 bone.

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3
Q

3.How many bones are found in adult human? (A) 210 (B) 260 (C) 206 (D) 300

A

(C) [SSC MTS Exam, 2011] Exp: See the exaplanation of above Question

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4
Q

4.In human body longest bone is- (A) Human (B) Spinal corad (C) Femur (D) Hip bone

A

(C) [SSC CGL, CPO Exam, 2011] Exp: The longest bone in Human body is femur and is the only bone of thigh region. Femur forms the ball and socket hip joint with the hip bone and forms the knee joint.

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5
Q

5.In human skeletal Examination is generally done for- (A) Brain Power (B) Internal age (C) Internal height (D) Destensis

A

(B) [SSC MTS Exam, 2014] Exp: Human skeletal Examination is generally done for calculating Internal age. It can be determined from eruption of teeth, length of long bones, closures of skull sutures, calcification, osteoporosis. Skeletal examination can help in identification of race, sex, age and cause of death etc.

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6
Q

6.How many muscles are found in our body? (A) 565 (B) 656 (C) 665 (D) 556

A

(B) [SSC CHSL (10+2) -2011] Exp: Muscles are connective tissues derived from mesodermal layer. Muscles contain actin and myosin protein, that helps in contraction and movement. There are approximately 656 Skeletal muscles in the human body. There are three types of muscle tissue skeletal, visceral and cardiac muscle. E. Skeletal System

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7
Q

7.How many no of skeletal muscle found in our body? (A) 206 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 700

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) Exam, 2015] Exp: There are 700 skeletal muscles found in human being. [Note:- Both 656 and 700 option are correct

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8
Q

8.What is the hard animal layer of teeth. (A) Calcium hydro-Oxide (B) Calcium Hydroxyapatite (C) Calcium Oxide (D) Calcium Phosphate

A

(B) [SSC CHSL (10+2) - 2015] Exp: Teeth animal is made of a kind of hard substance. Which is known as hydroxyl apatite. It is a salt made up from calcium phosphate and hydroxyle.

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9
Q

9.Which part of elephant convert in form of elephant teeth? (A) Internal Teeth (B) Posterior Teeth (C) Secondary Teeth (D) Jaw

A

(C) [SSC CGL Exam, 2011] Exp: Elephants have total 26 teeth.12 deciduous premolars and 12 molars and 2 incisors known as tusk teeth. In elephants upper teeth of Jaw grow life time and secondary teeth convert in form of teeths.

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10
Q

10.The average weight of human brain about- (A) 1.64 kg (B) 1.36 kg (C) 1.46 kg (D) 1.63 kg

A

(B) [SSC CPO Exam, 2010] Exp: On an average weight of human brain is 1.2 - 1.4 kg and 2% of the total body weight Cerebrum is the largest part of Brain. Brain is the muscular organ made up of neuron, and is protected by skull.

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11
Q

11.Which are contractile protein in any muscle- (A) Actin and Myosin (B) Actin and Tropomyosin (C) Myosin and Troponin (D) Troponin and Tropomyosin

A

(A) [SSC CHSL (10+2) - 2010] Exp: Muscle cells are made up of contractile protein filaments of actin and myosin. These filaments are parallely arranged in sarcoplasm called myofibrils. Each myofibrils has a dark and light band known as Anisotropic or myosin and Isotropic or Actin.

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12
Q

12.In which following muscular organism do not have Exo-Skeleton- (A) Amphibean (B) Mammalia (C) Aves (D) Chondrichthyes

A

(A) [SSC CHSL (10+2) Exam, 2010] Exp: Exo-skeleton is a hard covering that supports and protects the body. Shells, bones, chitin, calcium carbonate are some of the exoskeleton found in animals and other organisms. Amphibians do not have exo-skeleton.

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13
Q

13.Which of the following have maximum no of ribs- (A) Crocodile (B) Snake (C) Ray fish (D) Flying Mammals

A

(B)Exp: Mammals have the maximum number of ribs. There are total 12 pair or 24 ribs are found in mammals. Snakes have around 200-400 veretebrae with same number of ribs attached to them, this makes the snakes flexible.

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14
Q

14.Odontology is branch of sicence, it study relocated to- (A) Bone (B) Effect of time (C) Teeth (D) Personality

A

(C) [SSC CHSL (10+2) - 2012] Exp: Odontology is the branch of science which deals with the study of structure, development and abnormalities of the teeth.

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15
Q

15.Wisdom molar is- (A) First molar (B) Second molar (C) Third molar (D) Forth molar

A

(C) [SSC FCI Exam, 2012] Exp: Wisdom tooth is third molar out of the total 3 molars present in human dental. Humans have four types of teeth incisors, canines premolars and molars.

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16
Q

16.Osteocyte found in- (A) Bone (B) Bood (C) Cartelage (D) Lymph

A

(A) [SSC Steno Exam, 2011] Exp: Osteocytes are the most abundant cells in nature found in bone tissues. Osteocytes derive from Osteblasts, or bone forming cells. These cells are responsible for the synthesis and mineralization of bone formation and bone remodelling.

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17
Q

17.The transverse colon is part of- (A) Large intestine (B) Ilium (C) Small intestine (D) Anus.

A

(A) [SSC CHSL Exam, 2013] Exp: The human alimentary canal consist of oral cavity ,oesophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine. Large intestine accumulates the waste released after digestion. Large intestine is segmented into three parts colon, cacum and rectum. Colon further has three parts according to its arrangement named as ascending colon, transverse colon and descending colon.

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18
Q

18.The Occipital is region which is found in- (A) Ear (B) Lungs (C) Macula (D) Skull

A

(D) [SSC CGL Exam, 2014] Exp: Skull is the protective covering of brain. The skull is composed of two parts the cranium and the mandible. There are total 8 cranial bones named as occipital, parietal, frontal and temporal.

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19
Q

19.The Wings of birds are- (A) Integumentary Outgrowth (B) Modified Forelimbs (C) Modified Hindlimbs (D) New Structure

A

(B) [SSC MTS Exam, 2013] Exp: The wings of birds are modified forelimbs. Wings help. the birds to flight by exerting a downward force. This modification of forelimbs is the structural adaptation of birds to suit their aerial life.

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20
Q

20.Osteocytes are found in- (A) Bone (B) Blood (C) Cartilage (D) Lymph

A

(A) [SSC Stenographer Exam 2011] Exp: Osteocytes are the bone forming cells in all chordates. These are star-shaped cells that form network through cytoplasmic extensions. The space occupied by these cells are known as lacuna.

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21
Q

21.In human body, cartilage is found in- (A) Tongu (B) Nose (C) Chin (D) Nail

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level -2002] Exp: In human body cartilaginous tissues are found in nose, ear pinna, rib cage etc. Cartiliaginous tissues are dense connective tissues, composed of specialized cells called chondrocytes. Cartilage is classified in three types, elastic cartilage, hyaline cartilage and fibro cartilage.

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22
Q

22.The types of vertebrate animals which creep and crawl are called- (A) Mammalians (B) Amphibians (C) Molluscs (D) Reptilians

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) Exam 2012] Exp: Reptiles are vertebrate animals which creep and crawl with their hind and fore limb Reptiles are cold blooded, tetrapod animals with horny epidermal scales.

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23
Q

23.Jaws are absent in- (A) Birds (B) Fishes (C) Protochordates (D) Reptiles

A

(C) [SSC (10+2) Exam 2012] Exp: Protochordata or acraniata are the invertebrates belong to phylum chordata and non vertebrate organisms have a rod-like structure called notochord, which provide skeletal to the body. Have the paired pharyngial gill slits for circulation of water. Post-anal tail is present. The phylum is divided into urochordata and cephalochordata. Eg, Balanoglosssus, Herdmania and Amphioxus.

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24
Q

24.An invertebrate does not have- (A) Notochord (B) Body Cavity (C) Haemocoel (D) Gills

A

(A) [SSC (10+2) Exam 2012] Exp: An invertebrate does not have the presence of notochord and vertebral column. Notochard is a stiff rod like structure which serves as internal skeleton, during any stage of their life.

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25
Q

25.The tusk of the elephant is an enormously enlarged- (A) Upper Incisor (B) Upper Canine (C) Lower Canine (D) Lower Incisor

A

(A) [SSC FCI Exam 2012] Exp: The tusk of elephant are incisors of upper jaw. The incisors of rodents grow throughout life and are worn by gnawing. In cats, incisors are small and help in biting.

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26
Q

26.Bones are pneumatic in- (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Birds

A

(D)Exp: Pneumatic bones are present in birds. Bones are hollow with many air cells. Due to the presence of air spaces bone become lighter, this helps the bird in easy flight.

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27
Q

27.In which of the following group, animals bear no teeth? (A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise (B) Owl, Loris, Crow (C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise (D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

A

(A) [SSC SO Exam 2008] Exp: Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise are the group of animals with no teeth. Peacock and Ostrich belongs to phylum Aves and tortoise belongs to phylum Reptiles. Although reptiles have the teeth but the tortoise is an exception.

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28
Q

28.Which one of the following creature has maximum number of ribs? (A) Crocodile (B) Snake (C) Ray Fish (D) Flying Mammal

A

(B) [SSC Tax Asst. -2007] Exp: Snakes have around 200-400 vertebral bones with the same number of ribs joining these vertebrae on either side. This structure of skeleton provide the immense flexibility to the snake for movement.

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29
Q

29.Syrinx is the voice box in- (A) Amphibians (B) Reptiles (C) Birds (D) Mammals

A

(C) [SSC CGL Exam 2011] Exp: Syrinx is the vocal organ of birds. Sound is produced by vibration of all the membrane tympaniform (the walls of the syrinx), syrinx enables some species of birds to mimic human sound.

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30
Q

30.Which of the following vertebrates lack exoskeleton? (A) Amphibia (B) Mammalia (C) Aves (D) Chondrichthyes

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) Exam 2010] Exp: Cartilaginous fishes or Chondrichthyes appeared on Earth almost 450 millions years ago. They lack true bones and have endoskeleton made up of cartilages. Only their teeth and sometimes their vertebrae are calcified, which are different from true bones.

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31
Q

31.Which of the following has no skeleton at all? (A) Star Fish (B) Sponge (C) Jelly Fish (D) Silver Fish

A

(D) [SSC CGL Exam 2007] Exp: Silver fish are nocturnal, wingless insects. These insects lacks any additional appendages and has no skeleton at all. They move in a wiggling motion like that of fish. [Note: Scientific Name of silver fish- Lepisma Saccharina]

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32
Q

32.Flat footed camels can walk easily in sandy deserts because- (A) Pressure on the sand is decreased by increasing the area of the surface in contact (B) Pressure on the sand is increased by increasing the area of the surface in contact (C) Pressure on the sand is decreased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact (D) Pressure on the sand is increased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact

A

(A) [SSC CPO Exam 2007] Exp: Camels feet are wide so they can walk on sand more easily. Flat and wide foot decrease the pressure on sand by increasing the surface area of contact which prevent them sinking into it. So, camel is also called as Plane of desert.

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33
Q

33.Taenia solium (tapeworm) lives as a parasite in- (A) Pig (B) Abdomen of man/woman (C) Intestine of man/woman (D) Liver of man/woman

A

(C) [SSC SO Exam 2005] Exp: Taenia solium is an endoparasitic worm, belongs to phylum Platyhelminthes. Taenia solium completes its life cycle by passing through pigs as intermediate hosts and residing in intestine of humans, as definitive hosts.

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34
Q

34.Which of the following structure present in mammalian skin directly helps in keeping the body warm? (A) Pigmented Cells (B) Sweat Glands (C) Lymph Vessels (D) Blood Capillaries

A

(B) [SSC CGL Exam 2005] Exp: Sweat glands help in thermo regulation by reducing the body temperature. Sweat glands also help in maintaining the concentration of electrolytes sodium and chloride. Sweat glands act as exocrine gland and also known as sudoriferous glands.

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35
Q

35.How many feet has a crab got? (A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 6

A

(C) [SSC CPO Exam 2003] Exp: Crabs belong to category crustaceans of phylum Arthropoda. Crabs can live in oceans, fresh water and on land. The body is covered with thick exoskeleton with four pair or eight legs.

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36
Q
  1. Wisdom teeth is the- (A) 1st molar teeth (B) 2nd molar teeth (C) 3rd molar teeth (D) 4th molar teeth
A

(C) Exp: Wisdom teeth are officially known as third molar, which errupted between the age of 17-25 years, when the person gains maturity and wisdom.

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37
Q

36.Which of the following is used for wrapping of fractured bones? (A) White cement (B) White lead (C) Zinc oxide (D) Plaster of Paris

A

(D) [SSC CISF Exam 2011] Exp: Plaster of Paris is a hard white substance made by the addition of water to powered and partly dehydrated gypsum. It is used for holding broken bones.

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38
Q

37.The number of teeth which are replaced in man are- (A) 12 (B) 20 (C) 32 (D) 16

A

(B)Exp: Human beings are diphodont with two successive sets of teeth initially the deciduous and later permanent. Deciduous teeth are 20 in numbers and also known as milk teeth or temporary teeth. These 20 deciduous teeth are replaced by permanent teeth.

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39
Q

38.The total number of bones in the human body is- (A) 206 (B) 260 (C) 306 (D) 360

A

(A) [SSC MTS Exam, 2011) Exp: Human skeleton is made up of about 300-350 bones at the time of birth, but at adulthood, there are 206 bones present in body. This is because some bones get fused together. All bones of human skeleton can be categorised into axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton. The six major function of human skeleton are support movement, protection, production of blood cells, storage of ion and Endocrine regulation.

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40
Q

39.The longest bone in the human body is- (A) Ulna (B) Humerus (C) Femur (D) Tibia

A

(C) [SSC CGL Exam 2011] Exp: Femur or thigh bone is the longest, heaviest & strongest bone of the human skeleton. It extends from hip to the knee. Main function of femur is to transmit forces from tibia to hip joint.

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41
Q

40.Which are not included in the milk-teeth in a child of 3-4 years? (A) Incisors (B) Canines (C) Molars (D) Premolars

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level Exam 2006] Exp: Molars are not the part of milk teeth in childrens. Molars are the most posterior and complex type of teeth. Their primary function is to grind food during chewing.

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42
Q

41.What does enamel cover? (A) Crown of the tooth (B) Dentin on all sides (C) Cementum (D) Cementum and partly dentin

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level Exam 2006] Exp: Tooth enamel is the hardest part of the human body. It covers the crown of the tooth sides. Four major tissues in teeth formation are dentin, cementum, dental pulp and enamel. Tooth enamel protects the tooth from degradation by acids, foods and drinks.

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43
Q

42.The total number of vertebrae in a human being is- (A) 26 (B) 30 (C) 29 (D) 33

A

(D) [SSC SO Exam 2003] Exp: Vertebral in human skeleton is a part of Axial skeleton. There are total 33 bones present in human vertebrae.

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44
Q

43.In a human body, the longest bone is in the- (A) Vertebral column (B) Thigh (C) Rib cage (D) Arm

A

(B) [SSC CPO Exam 2003] Exp: The longest and strongest bone of human body is Femur or thigh bone. It can bear the pressure of about 1500-2300 pound. The bone joint hip and knees. This is the only bone in thigh region of human.

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45
Q

44.Which of these joints is a hinge joint? (A) Hip (B) Elbow (C) Shoulder (D) Wrist

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level Exam 2003] Exp: Hinge joints are a class of synovial joint that includes ankle, elbow and knee joints. Hinge joints are formed between two or more bones where the bones can only move along one axis to other extended axis.

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46
Q

45.Wh ich of the fol low ing is the hardest substance in the human body? (A) Bone (B) Enamel (C) Dentine (D) Nail

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level Exam 2002] Exp: Enamel is the hardest substance in the human body. It covers the crown of teeth. It protects the teeth against degradation.

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47
Q

46.The strongest bone of the body is present in the- (A) Thigh (B) Jaw (C) Arm (D) Neck

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level Exam 2002] Exp: The femur or thigh bone is the strongest bone in the body. It is the hardest bone and can bear up to 1500- 2400 pound load/ pressure

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48
Q

47.An adult human normally has- (A) 6 molar Teeth (B) 8 molar Teeth (C) 10 molar Teeth (D) 12 molar Teeth

A

(D) [SSC Matric Level Exam 2002] Exp: Adult humans have 12 molar teeth. Mammals have 4 kinds of teeth: incisors (i) canines (C), premolars (PM) and molars (M). These teeths are arranged in 4 sets with a dental formula = 2I.1C.2PM.3M 2I.1C.2PM.3M 2× The teeth are present in maxilla and mandible jaw.

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49
Q

48.The total number of ear bones is- (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level -2001] Exp: There are total 6 bones present in both ears of human beings. The ear bone has three sections Malleus, incus and stapes, joined together to form ossicles. Stapes is the smallest bone in human boby.

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50
Q

49.The connective tissue that connects a muscle to a bone is (A) Cartilage (B) Ligament (C) Tendon (D) Interstitial fluid

A

(C) Exp: Connective tissues are connect to system by collagenous fibrous that vary only in their density and cellularity. Tendon connects a muscle to bones, and ligament connect bone to bone.

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51
Q

50.The hardest part of the body is ______. (A) Bones (B) Tooth Enamel (C) Skull (D) Spinal Cord

A

(B) Exp: The hardest part of the body is tooth enamel. It covers the crown of tooth sides. Enamel contains the highest percentage of minerals (96%) with water and organic material. The primary mineral is hydroxyl apatite which is a crystalline calcium phosphate.

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52
Q

51.How many types of teeth are there in humans? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3

A

(A) Exp: There are four types of teeth present in hum There teeth are named as incisors, canines, premolars and molars. These are present in 4 equal set in maxilla and mandibles jaw.

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53
Q

52.Our bones and teeth are generally made of__ (A) Tricalcium phosphate(B) Fluoropetite (C) Chloropetite (D) Hydrolith

A

(A) (SSC Sec. Offier 1997) Exp: Bones and teeth are made of Tricalcium phosphate bones and teeths are made of calcium and phosphate which together form the salts of Tricarboxylic phosphate [Ca3(Po4) 2]. It is also referred as calcium orthophosphate.

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54
Q

53.Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with (A) Removal of excess salts (B) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes (C) Thermoregulation (D) Sex-attraction

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2008) Exp: Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with process that allows body to maintain its core internal temperature and maintain homeostasis.

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55
Q

54.The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin (A) A (B) B1 (C) D (D) E

A

(C) (SSC Tax Assistant 2009) Exp: Deficiency of Vitamin D or Cholocalciferol cause the deficiency disease named as rickets and osteomalacia. Rickets leads to bone deformation i.e. bent in the limbs of childrens.

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56
Q

55.Bones are pneumatic in (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Birds

A

(D) (SSC FCI 2012) Exp: The skeleton of birds consists of very light weighted bones, with large air filled cavities called pneumatic cavities. These bones makes the body of birds lighter and helps of flight for longer distance

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57
Q

“56.”“Sodium Pump”” operates in (A) Muscle contraction (B) Heart beat (C) Nerve impulse (D) None of the baove”

A

“(C) (SSC CML-1999) Exp: ““Sodium pump”” operates in nerve impulse. The mechanism is the transmission of neuron singal by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. When the neurotransmitter travels through never the sodium and potassium ion exchange their position through the ionic gates or channals.”

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58
Q

57.What does enamel cover? (A) Crown of the tooth (B)Dentin on all sides (C) Cementum (D) Cementum and partly dentin

A

(A) (SSC CML-1997) Exp: Enamel covers the crown of the tooth area. Enamel does not contain collagen but contain two unique classes of proteins- amelogenens and enamelins.

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59
Q

58.The contractile proteins in a muscle are (A) Actin and Myosin (B) Actin and Tropomyosin (C) Myosin and Troponin (D) Troponin and Tropomyosin

A

(A) (SSC 10+2 -2010) Exp: Skeletal muscles have the muscle bundle made up of contractile proteins actin and myosin. Actin and myosin are arranged parallely and their movement generate the ATP for muscles contraction and relaxation.

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60
Q

59.Osteocytes are found in (A) Bone (B) Blood (C) Cartilage (D) Lymph

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer 2011) Exp: Ostecoytes are the bone cells. Ostecoytes reside inside spaces called lacunae. Ostecocytes/osteoblasts develope in mesenchyma.

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61
Q

60.Fat present below the skin surface in our body acts as a barrier against (A) Loss of heat from the body (B) Loss of essential body fluids (C) Loss of salt from the body (D) Entry of harmful micro-organisms from the environmental

A

(A) (SSC Sec. Offier 2011) Exp: Fats are deposited in adipose tissues and lie beneath the layer of skin and org Adipose are loose connective tissues and acts as a subcutaneous layer, providing insulation from heat and cold.

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62
Q

61.Of which tissue nails, hoofs and and horns are made of? (A) Cuticle (B) Chitin (C) Keratin (D) Tunicin

A

(C) (SSC 10+2 -2011) Exp: Keratin is a fibrous structural proteins keratin protects the epithelial cells from damage and stress. Nails, hoofs and horns are made of - keratin. The b kertains is harder and are found only in living reptiles and birds. They form the shells, feathers, beaks and claws of the birds.

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63
Q

62.Jaws are absent in: (A) Birds (B) Fishes (C) Protochoradates (D) Reptiles

A

(D) (SSC (10+2) -2012) Exp: Protochordata or acraniata are the invertebrates belongs to phylum chordate and non vertebrate Organism have, a rod -like structure called notochord, which provided skeletal to the body. Have the paired pharyngeal gell slits for circulation of water. past- B-anal tail is present. Jaw is not present the phylum is divided into urochordata and cephalochordata. Eg, Balanoglosssus Herdmania and Amphioxus.

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64
Q

63.Grey hair is caused due to (A) Aging of epidermal cells (B) Death of dermal cells(C) Loss of sebum in epidermal cells (D)Loss of melanin in epidermal cells

A

(D) (SSC DPSI 2012) Exp: Melanin is a complex polymer derived from amino acid tyrosine. Melanin is responsible for determining skin and hair colour skin cells have Melanocyte cell which produce melanin in the body.

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65
Q

64.Wings of a bird and an insect are (A) Homologous organs (B) Analogous organs (C) Vestigial organs (D) Rudimentary organs

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Staff 2013) Exp: Wings of a bird and an insects are analogous org Analogous organs are those organs whose structural and embryological derivation is different but the function they perform is same.

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66
Q

65.The skin biting mosquito has legs as locomotory organ which are (A) Four pairs (B) Three paris (C) Two pairs (D) One pair

A

(B) (SSC Constable 2013) Exp: Mosquito belongs to phylum Arthropoda and category insect. Arthropoda has the characteristic features which includes the three pairs of legs, A pair of antennae and wings.

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67
Q

66.Teeth and Bones acquire strength and rigidity from (A) Calcium (B) Flourine (C) Chlorine (D) Sodium

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Teeth and bones are made of calcium and phosphorous. Calcium provides the strengthening and rigidity to teeth and bones. Vitamin D helps in absorption of Calcium.

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68
Q

67.The type of tail found in Shark is (A) Protocercal (B) Homocercal (C) Heterocercal (D) Diphycercal

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Tail found in shark is Heterocercal caudal fins. The tail of shark consists of the caudal peduncle and the caudal fin. This type of tail provided the main source of thrust for the shark.

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69
Q

68.Bone osification test is conducted to as certain human (A) Brain efficiency (B) Tentative age (C) Tentative height (D) Drug addiction

A

(B) (SSC MTS-2014) Exp: Ossification is the process of formation of new bone by cells called osteoblosts. Ossification test is based on the fusion of joints in the human body.

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70
Q

69.Water flows off the wings of birds and insects due to the presence of (A) Waxes (B) Sugars (C) Proteins (D) Minerals

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Wings of a birds and insects have the coating of waxes which helps in resistance of water and easy flight of birds and insects.

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71
Q

70.Which one of the following chemicals is associated with muscle fatigue? (A) Uric acid (B) Acetic acid (C) Pyruvic acid (D) Lactic acid

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Muscle helps in conversion of lactic acid into ATP during the respiration process. Muscle fatigue refers to the decline in muscle force generated over time. Glycogen is an intramuscular storage form of glucose, after generating energy it produce lactic acid as a metabolic byproduct.

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72
Q

71.Approximate number of skeletal muscles is: (A) 500 (B) 700 (C) 200 (D) 206

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Approximate number of skeletal muscle in human body are 700. Muscles joins with bones to provide flexibility and movement. Tendon helps to attach the muscles to a bone.

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73
Q

72.To reduce tooth decay most toothpastes contain a (A) Bromide (B) Fluoride (C) Iodide (D) Chloride

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Fluoride helps in dental health by strengthening the teeth enamel. Making it more resistant to tooth decay. Flouride reduces the amount of acids produce by bacteria.

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74
Q

73.The parts of human body affected by Pyria are: (A) Eyes (B) Small intestine (C) Teeth and gums (D) Large intestine

A

(C) (SSC CPO SI, ASI 2016) Exp: Pyria is a severe teeth disease, which damages teeth and gums and generate foul smell from the breathing of the person suffering from the disease. Symptoms of Pyria resultant in bleeding, swelling, foul smell from teeth.

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75
Q

74.The name of the longest muscle in human body is (A) Sartorius muscle (B) Massete muscle (C) Stapedius muscle (D) Gluteus Maximis muscle

A

(A) (SSC CPO SI, ASI 2016) Exp: Sartorius muscle is the longest muscle in human body. It runs from the anterior superior iliac spine to the proximal tibia of thigh bone. It helps in the rotation of thigh and knee.

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76
Q

75.What causes the mottling of the dental enamel? (A)High levels of chlorine in water (B) High levels of nitrate in the water (C) High levels of fluorides in the water (D) High levels of calcium in the water

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Fluoride although helps in strengthing of tooth enamel and prevents tooth decay but excess level of fluorides in water causes the mottling of the dental enamel. i.e. irregular spots or marks.

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77
Q

76.Which of the following is an example of Ball and Socket joint in humans? (A) Wrist Joint (B) Hip Joint (C) Finger Joint (D) Neck Joint

A

(B)Exp: Ball and socket joint are special class of synovial joints. Due to their structure it posess the easy motion of skeletal. Hip joint and pectoral girdle are the types of Ball and socket joint. They are also known as ‘spheroidal joints’.

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78
Q

77.Which of the following is the longest bone in human body? (A) Forearm bone (B) Chest bone (C) Femur bone (D) Shoulder bone

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Femur or thigh bone is the largest and strongest bone in human body. It connects with the pelvic bone in upper part and tibia and fibula in knee region.

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79
Q

78.Where is Stapes bone found in human body? (A) Fingers (B) Nose (C) Ears (D) Thumb

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Stapes bone is present in ears. The ear ossicles of middle ear is comprises of three bones named as stapes, malleus and lncus. Stapes is the smallest bone of human body.

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80
Q

79.Two Bones are connected to each other by connective tissue called as _____. (A) Tendon (B) Ligament (C) Neuron (D) Adipose

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Ligaments are the connective tissues which connects two bones together. It helps in easy movement of bones

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81
Q

80.Muscles are connected to bones by connective tissue called as _____. (A) Tendon (B) Ligament (C) Neuron (D) Adipose

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Tendons are the types of fibrous connective tissues. Tendons connects the msucle to bones. Tendons are made up of collagen.

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82
Q

81.Which of the following is not a connective tissue? (A) Adipose Tissue (B) Compact Bone (C) Cardiac Muscle (D) Areolar Tissue

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Cardiac muscle are the type of muscular connective tissues. There are four different types of connective tissues present in animals. They are named as epithelial tissues, connective tissues, muscular tissues and nervous tissues.

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83
Q

82.Which is the longest bone in human body? (A) Febula (B) Tibia (C) Stapes (D) Femur

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Femur (thigh bone) is the longest and strongest bone in the human body. Femur connects the pelvic girdle to the patella or knee cap. Femur have the bone marrow tissue on the upper part.

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84
Q

83.How many pairs of ribs are there in human body? (A) 13 (B) 11 (C)12 (D) 14

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: There are total 12 pairs of ribs present in human body. These ribs are divided into two types, true ribs or fixed rib are first seven pairs attaches to the sternum directly and other five are known as false ribs.

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85
Q

84.In how many parts is the human brain divided? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Human brain is divided into three types fore brain, mid brain and hind brain. The largest part of the brain is fore brain. Brain recieves the maximum amount of blood and oxygen.

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86
Q

1.Which of the following release sex hormone- (A) Adrenal gland (B) Thyroid gland (C) Pituitary gland (D) Sebaceous gland

A

(A) [SSC CHSL 2011] Exp: Adrenal is a hormone secreting gland present on the upper & outer part of kidney and is divided into adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla. Adrenal gland releases thirty hormones, including androgen, estrogen, corticostatin etc.

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87
Q

2.Lactation hormone release from the- (A) Mammary gland (B) Placenta (C) Testis (D) Pituitary

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) 2013] Exp: Lactation hormone release from the pituitary gland. It activate the mammary gland for the secretion of milk. The mechanism starts from hypothalamus, which signals the posterior pituitary gland to produce oxytocin.

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88
Q

3.Where Pituitary gland found in body- (A) On the base of heart (B) In base of the brain (C) In neck (D) Abdomen

A

(B) [SSC CGL 2010, SSC MTS 2002] Exp: Pitutary is the smallest gland of human endocrine system found in the base of brain. Pituitary is divided into two types anterior pituitary or adenohypophysis and posterior pituitary or neurohyphysis.

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89
Q

4.Which of the following gland regulate the body temperature or thermoregulatory. (A) Pineal gland (B) Pitutory gland (C) Avatu gland (D) Hypothalamus

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2002, SSC MTS 2006] Exp: Hypothalamus is the of part fore brain hypothalamus connects the nervous system to the endocrine system by pituitary gland. Hypothalamus regulate the body temperature or thermoregulation. Hypothalamus controls the hunger, thirst and sexual arousal.

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90
Q

5.Which is the center of human body regulate angry, water balance and body temperature- (A) Veins (B) Medula oblongata (C) Thalamus (D) Hypothalamus

A

(D) [SSC LDC 2005] Exp: Same as above

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91
Q

6.Which gland of human body regulates the recreation of the hormone of pituitary gland? (A) Hypothalamus gland (B) Thymus gland (C) Thyroid gland (D) Adrenal gland

A

(A) [SSC CHSL (10+2) 2013] Exp: Hypothalamus is responsible for the involuntary and regulation of metabolic processes. It releases hypothalamic hormone and controls body temperature, hunger, thirst, fatigue, sleep and circadian rhythms.

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92
Q

7.In which following Not act both Exorine and endocrine gland- (A) Pitutary gland (B) Pancrease (C) Kidney (D) Testis

A

(A) [SSC CHSL 2013] Exp: Pitutary is an endocrine gland. It is a pea sized gland protected in bony enclosure called the sella turcica. Hormones secreted from pituitary gland helps in controlling growth, blood pressure, function of sex organ, thyroid gland, water/salt concentration of kidney temperature regulation & pain relief.

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93
Q

8.In human body largest heterocrine gland as- (A) Thymus (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Spleen

A

(C) [SSC Steno 2010] Exp: Pancreas is largest heterocrine gland and are known heterocrine because they act as both exocrine and endocrine gland. It acts as endocrine gland by producing several hormones in blood such as Insulin, glucagon and somatostation. It act as exocrine by releasing digestive enzymes.

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94
Q

9.In mammal largest gland found- (A) Hyroid gland (B) Liver (C) Pancrease (D) Spleen

A

(B) [SSC Steno 2014] Exp: Liver is a large bilobed glandular organ in the abdomen of vertebrates. It is the largest gland found in mammals and involved in many metabolic processes. It is the only organ in human body which can increase its size upto three times.

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95
Q

10.The largest gland which found in our body? (A) Muscle (B) Neuron (C) Liver (D) Non of above

A

(C) [SSC Steno (Grade D) 2005] Exp: Liver is the largest gland found in human body. It helps in regulation of glycogen, secrete the bile juice from gall bladder which helps in emulsification of fats and detoxification.

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96
Q

11.In body which largest endocrine gland- (A) Thyroid (B) Parathyroid (C) Adrenal (D) Pituitary

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2011] Exp: Thyroid is the largest endocrine gland. Thyroid is present in upper part of larynx in neck. It is a shield shaped, bilobed structure. Thyroid controls the body metabolic rate (BMR) and protein synthesis.

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97
Q

12.In which following endocrine gland found in neck? (A) Pancreas (B) Thyroid (C) Pituitary (D) Adrenal cortex

A

(B)Exp: Thyroid gland is found in Larynx region of neck. Thyroid gland is stimulated by thyroid stimulation hormone (TSH) released from pitutary gland and release thyroid hormones such as triodothyroxine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4).

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98
Q

13.For the proper functioning of thyroid gland in salt iodine taken in form of- (A) KL (B) KIO3 (C) ICI (D) IBR

A

(A) [SSC MTS 2014] Exp: In salt iodine, sodium chloride (NaCl) and potassium iodide are added, which maintain the proper functioning of thyroid gland. Due to deficiency of Iodine Goiter disease occur in body.

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99
Q

14.When one or single gene control more than one character then its known as - (A) Saprophic (B) Autotrophs (C) Symbiosis (D) Pleiotropic

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2014] Exp: Pleiotropic effect is ‘one gene many effect’. When one gene or allele controls more than one character. For eg., skin colour and blood groups.

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100
Q

15.Who discovered insulin- (A) A.F. Bating (B) Edvard Jener (C) Ronald Ros (D) S.A. Vaxmen

A

(A) [SSC MTS 2011] Exp: Insulin was discovered by Bating and Best in 1932. Insulin is a glucose controlling hormone secreted from Beta cells of Pancreas.

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101
Q

16.Which is the Example of hormone, heat in form of protein- (A) Trypsin (B) Oxytocin (C) Keratine (D) Caesin

A

(B) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: Oxytocin is a hormone, which act in form of protein. Oxytocin is also known as pregnancy and delivery hormone released from posterior pituitary.Oxytocin was discovered by Henry Dale in 1906.

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102
Q

17.Which chemical is involved in attraction between one species of animals to another own species animals- (A) Hormone (B) Nucleic acid (C) Pheromone (D) Steriods

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst 2009] Exp: Pheromones are the chemical substances produced and released into the environment by an animal, to attract its own species. These chemical messenger affects the nervous system, hormonal system, inflammatory and immune system.

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103
Q

18.Which gland in human body is not related to excitement of body? (A) Thyroid Gland (B) Panerease (C) Adrenal cortex (D) Pitutary

A

(C) [SSC CPO 2011, SSC MTS 2011] Exp: Adrenal cortex in human body is related to excitement of body. Adrenal gland is located on the upper part of kidney. Adrenal gland releases adrenalin hormone, steroids aldosterone and cortical hormone. Adrenal gland is also known as emergency gland.

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104
Q

19.During excitement, which hormone release higher amount- (A) Cortison (B) Serotonin (C) Adrenaline (D) Esterogen

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2006] Exp: Adrenaline released from Adrenal gland, it is secreted during excitement and releases mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoid and androgens. Adrenal gland is also known as emergency gland.

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105
Q

20.Which is male sex hormone? (A) Progestron (B) Esterogen (C) Testestrone (D) Insulin

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2014] Exp: Testosterone is a male sex hormone. Testosterone plays an important role in development of male reproductive tissues such as testis and prostate and development of secondary sexual characters.

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106
Q

21.In which of the following known as emergency hormone- (A) Adrenaline (B) Thyroxine (C) Vasopressin (D) Insulin

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2015] Exp: Adrenaline is known as emergency hormone because it prepares the body for fear, flight and fright, response in times of stress i.e. for vigorous and sudden action.

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107
Q

22.Which harmone secreation from the corpus lutcum- (A) Progesteron (B) Testosterone (C) Estrogen (D) Haemoglobin

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2014] Exp: Corpus luteum is the resultant of secondary follicle generated after the formation of ovum in ovaries of female. After the ovulation (releasing of eggs), the degeneration of corpus luteum results in secretion of progesteron.

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108
Q

23.The production of growth hormone is occurs. (A) By thyroid gland (B) By Pituitary gland (C) By Gonad (D) By bone

A

(B) [SSC MTS 2014] Exp: Pityitary gland is also called as ‘Growth hormone’ (GH) or somatotropin. GH is a peptide hormone it stimulates growth, cell reproduction and cell regeneration. Protein encoded by Growth Hormone plays an important role in growth control.

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109
Q

24.Grave disease occurs due to- (A) Hyper secretion of thymus (B) Hyper secretion of thyroid (C) Hypo secretion of thymus (D) Hypo secretion of thyroid

A

(B) [SSC (10+2) 2012] Exp: Hyperthyroidism or hyper secretion of thyroid leads to a disease called Graves diseases. It is an autoimmune disease results in enlarged goitre. Symptoms include muscle weakness, sleeping disorder, fast heart beat and weight loss. Graves disease also known as toxic diffuse goitre.

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110
Q

25.Which is pepsin releasing cells of stomach? (A) Acidic cell (B) Inlite cells (C) Main cells (D) Spincter cells

A

(C) [SSC (10+2) 2012] Exp: Pepsin is a digestive enzyme which helps in degradation of proteins in stomach. Enzyme pepsin is released from main cells of stomach.

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111
Q

26.In mammal receptor or sense gland related to- (A) Removal of extra mineral (B) Elimination of nitrogenous wastes (C) In temperature regulation (D) In sex attraction

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2008] Exp: Receptor or sense gland is related to temperature regulation. Receptors are the group of specialised cells. These receptors helps in detecting the environmental change.

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112
Q

27.In Human throat, which is known as Adam’s apple- (A) Ciuoroid or Laryme Cartilage (B) Throat (C) Laryme (D) Thyroid Cartilage

A

(D) [SSC CPO 2012] Exp: Adam’s apple is related to the deepening of the voice. During adolescent stage the thyroid cartilage grows together with larynx. Thyroid cartilage grow in size in males.

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113
Q

28.During single Menstural cycle, generally the no of mature egg- (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: Menstrual cycle is a series of natural process that occurs in female reproductive system. At the time of female ovaries has 80,000 egg, which are released after puberty. Due to hormonal changes every month ovaries releases around 8 to 10 Egg out of which only single egg get matured and released for the fertilisation by a process called ovulation .If the ovum (egg) get fertilised, it results into zygote, if not, then unfertilised egg with blood released out of the uterus, by the process called menstrual cycle.

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114
Q

29.Which of the following deficiency causes Goitre- (A) Iron (B) Sodium (C) Potassium (D) Iodine

A

(D) [SSC MTS 2006, SSC FCI 2012] Exp: Iodine is an important mineral nutrient required for the proper functioning of Thyroid gland. Deficiency of Iodine causes goitre disease in which thyroid gland enlarged in size and results into improper functioning.

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115
Q

30.Which is caused by deficiency of iodine- (A) Hyperthyroidism (B) Goitre (C) Grave (D) Diabites

A

(B) [SSC (10+2) 2011] Exp: Goitre occurs due to deficiency of iodine in this thyroid gland enlarged in size, which cause swollen of neck. The recovery of iodine deficiency occurs after intake of iodine salt, fish and green and leafy vegetable.

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116
Q

31.Iodine-less salt is useful for- (A) For slow blood pressure (B) For prevention of dehydration (C) For activity of thyroid gland (D) For salivary gland

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2006] Exp: If the body is getting enough iodine then there is no requirement of consumption of iodised salt Iodine is a vital micronutrient required by Human body. Deficiency of Iodine cause goitre.

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117
Q

32.The Pigment which given colour to Human body- (A) Melanin (B) Rhodopsin (C) Iodopsin (D) Anthrocyanin

A

(A) [SSC CPO 2007, SSC MTS 2002] Exp: Pigment melanin gives colour to skin and hair. Melanin is produced by pituitary gland named as Melancyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH). The different forms of MSH belongs to a group called the melanocortins.

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118
Q

33.A.C.T. hormone release by- (A) From Adernal cartex(B) From Adernal medulla (C) From pituitary gland (D) From pineal

A

(C) [SSC CHSL (10+2) 2012] Exp: Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH), is released from pituitary gland. Its principal effects are release of corticosol from adrenal gland.

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119
Q

34.Diabetes mellitus occur due to lack of synthesis of hormone- (A) Insulin (B) Glucogon (C) Thyroxine (D) Androgen

A

(A) [SSC MTS 2014] Exp: Diabetes mellitus is a condition of high blood sugar level. Insulin secreated from Beta cells of pancreas which controls the blood sugar level.

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120
Q

35.Which phenomenon do bats or dolphins use to find prey, predators or obstacles? (A) Refraction of Sound (B) Formation of Beats (C) Scattering of Sound (D) Echolocation

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2011] Exp: Echolocation works in similar way as sonar. Bat make noise as they fly and listen to the returning echoes to build up a sonic map of their surrounding. Individual bat species can echolocate within specific frequency range that suit their environment and prey types.

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121
Q

36.In which one of the following is swim bladder absent? (A) Cuttlefish (B) Bony fish (C) Cartilaginous fish (D) Silverfish

A

(C) [SSC Steno. 2011] Exp: Swimbladder or air bladder are absent in cartilagenous fishes. These fishes are mostly found in benthic regions of water bodies.

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122
Q

37.The Example of hermaphrodite animal in which cross fertilisation occurs in- (A) Hydra (B) Ascaris (C) Earthworm (D) Silkworm

A

(C) [SSC (10+2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Hermaphrodite animals are those animals in which the single organism produces both egg and sperm i.e., female and male reproductive organ. Earthworms belongs to phylum annelida is a hermaphrodite animals and shows the cross fertilisation.

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123
Q

38.’Pigeon Milk’ is produced by- (A) Crop (B) Birds (C) Mammals (D) All of these

A

(A) [SSC Steno. 2011] Exp: Pigeon milk is secreted by the crop of parent bird where the regurgitation of grains and mixing of saliva with other enzymes takes place. Crop represents the thin-walled expanded portion of alimentary tract used for storage of food prior to digestion.

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124
Q

39.Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with- (A) Removal of excess salts (B) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes (C) Thermoregulation (D) Sex-attraction

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2008] Exp: Sweat gland in mammals helps in thermoregulation. Thermoregulation helps in maintaining the body temperature by excreting the electrolytes & water.

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125
Q

40.A substance that stimulates the production of antibodies when introduced into a living organism is known as- (A) Carcinogen (B) Androgen (C) Antigen (D) Oestrogen

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2004] Exp: Antigen are the foreign agents such as viruses or bacteria that stimulates the antibodies generation. Antigen induce the immune system. Antigen binds to specific site on antibodies.

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126
Q

41.The Sigmoid Colon is part of- (A) Anal Canal (B) Large Intestine (C) Ileum (D) Small Intestine

A

(B) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: Large intestine is divided into three segments ceacum, colon and rectum. The colon further has three parts tranverse colon, ascending colon and descending colon. Sigmoid colon is the S-shaped region of colon near rectum and anus.

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127
Q

42.Which one of the following gland is responsible for secretion of sex hormones? (A) Adrenal Gland (B) Thyroid Gland (C) Pituitary Gland (D) Sebaceous Gland

A

(A) [SSC (10 +2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Sex hormone or sex steroid are produced by gonads ovaries and testis as oestrogen and testosterone. Sex hormone is released from adrenal gland as androgen. Sex hormones helps in development of primary and secondary sexual character.

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128
Q

43.The largest organ of human body is- (A) Heart (B) Brain (C) Liver (D) Kidney

A

(C) [SSC MTS 2011] Exp: The liver is the largest glandular organ of the body and perform many vital function to keep the body devoid of toxins and harmful substances. It is a vital organ that support almost every organ in the body. Without a healthy liver a person cannot complete its metobolic activities.

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129
Q

44.Which one of the following is the smallest endocrine gland in human body? (A) Adrenal (B) Thyroid (C) Pituitary (D) Pancreas

A

(C) [SSC (10 +2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Pituitary gland or hypophysis is the smallest endocrine gland in human body. Pituitary gland is located below hypothalamus at the base the brain. It is the peasized gland weighing 0.5 gm. Pituitary gland is also known as master gland.

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130
Q

45.The ability of the eye to see in the dark, is due to the production of a purple pigment known as- (A) Carotene (B) Rhodopsin (C) Iodopsin (D) Retinene

A

(D) [SSC CISF.ASI 2011] Exp: Retinaldehyde or Retinene is a purple pigment which is fundamental pigment in the transduction of light into visual signals at the photoreceptor level of the retina.

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131
Q

46.Which one of the following organ excretes water, fat and various catabolic wastes? (A) Kidney (B) Skin (C) Spleen (D) Salivary Glands

A

(A) [SSC (10 +2), 2006] Exp: Kindney are the pairs of excretory organs located in the abdomen. Kidney helps in excretion of nitrogenous waste and functions to maintain the osmotic balance and concentration of salts.

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132
Q

47.Pituitary gland is situated in the- (A) Base of the heart (B) Base of the brain (C) Neck (D) Abdomen

A

(B) [SSC CGL 2010] Exp: Pituitary gland is a pea-shaped gland, present just below the brain and behind the bridge of nose. Pituitary gland release various hormones like growth hormone and sex stimulating hormone.

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133
Q

48.The colour of the eye depends upon the pigment present in- (A) Cornea (B) Iris (C) Rods (D) Cones

A

(B) [SSC CISF 2010] Exp: The eye colour depends on the amount of pigment found in Iris. Iris consists of two layer, the front pigmented fibro vascular and pigmented epithelial cells. The iris is strongly pigmented with colour like blue, green, brown etc.

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134
Q

49.Enzymes are- (A) Microorganisms (B) Proteins (C) Inorganic Compounds (D) Moulds

A

(B) [SSC Steno. 2010] Exp: Enzymes are the proteins. All enzymes are biocatalyst which enhance the chemical reactions. Enzymes increase the reaction rate by lowering its activation energy. Activity of enzymes depends on temperature, pH and substrate.

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135
Q

50.The largest mixed gland of human body is- (A) Thymus (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Spleen

A

(C) [SSC Steno. 2010] Exp: Pancreas are the largest heterocrine gland. Pancreas acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland and are located in the abdominal cavity.

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136
Q

51.A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine is called- (A) Adrenaline (B) Monouretic (C) Diuretic (D) Triuretic

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2009] Exp: A Diuretic is any substance that promote the production of urine. This includes forced Diuresis. There are several categories of Diuretics. The antidiuretic such as vasopressin is an agent or drug which reduce the excretion of water in urine and vasodilator which dilates the blood vessels and increase the secretion of urine by increasing the blood pressure.

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137
Q

52.The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are- (A) Hormones (B) Nucleic acids (C) Pheromones (D) Steroids

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2009] Exp: The pheromones are specialised hormones secreted mostly lower organisms to attract the member of same species. The ants and cockroaches shows the best Example in this regard. Sometimes it released by some fungi as well.

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138
Q

53.The source of the enzyme, diastase is- (A) Salivary Gland (B) Stomach (C) Liver (D) Pancreas

A

(A) [SSC (10+2), DEO & LDC 2008] Exp: Enzyme diastase is released by salivary gland and it initiate the breakdown of starch into maltose. Diastase was the first enzyme to be discovered. It was extracted from malt solution in 1833 by Anselme Payen and Jean-Francois Persoz.

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139
Q

54.Blood pressure is controlled by- (A) Adrenal Gland (B) Thyroid Gland (C) Thymus (D) Corpus Luteum

A

(A) [SSC CPO 2008, Matric Level 2002] Exp: Blood pressure is controlled by Adrenal gland or suprarenal gland. The adrenal gland produces aldosterone, a mineralo-corticoid, which is important in salt balance, blood volume and regulation of blood pressure.

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140
Q

55.Vitamin-E is particularly important for- (A) Development of teeth (B) Carbohydrate metabolism (C) Normal activity of sex glands (D) General health of epithelial tissues

A

(C) [SSC CPO 2008, -2001] Exp: Vitamin-E or Tocopherol is fat-soluble antioxidant hormone which is involved in immune function. VitaminE protects the cells from the damaging effects of free radicals. It also helps in normal activity of sex glands or sex hormones.

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141
Q

56.In which of the following generally hormone is not found? (A) Rat (B) Monkey (C) Bacteria (D) Cat

A

(C) [SSC SO 2005] Exp: Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular organisms which do not have hormones like vertebrates. Bacterias are the first to appear on earth.

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142
Q

57.The colour of human skin is produced by- (A) Haemoglobin (B) Insulin (C) Adrenaline (D) Melanin

A

(D) [SSC CPO 2008] Exp: Melanin is a natural substance secreted by, melanocyte stimulation hormone (MSH) form pituitary gland, Melanin is the primary determinant of skin colour in human. Three basic types of melanin are eumelanin, pheomelanin and neuromelanin.

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143
Q

58.The enzyme that is present in the saliva of man is- (A) Pepsin (B) Renin (C) Amylase (D) Trypsin

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2007] Exp: Saliva is secreted from salivary gland. Saliva is composed of several components including amylase, which helps in breakdown of starch into maltose and glucose. Amylase helps in digestion of Carbohydrate.

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144
Q

59.Which one of the following does not secrete any digestive enzyme? (A) Liver (B) Salivary Gland (C) Glands of small intestine (D) Pancreas

A

(A) [SSC Tax Asst. 2007] Exp: Liver is the large glandular organ in the abdomen of vertebrates. The liver is the largest gland of body, weight around 3.2-3.7 pound. Liver does not secrete any enzyme rather it stores the bile juice secreted from bilirubin and biliverdin cells in gall bladder.

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145
Q

60.The function of Trypsin is to- (A) Breakdown Fats (B) Synthesise Proteins (C) Breakdown Proteins(D) Breakdown Carbohydrates

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level 2006] Exp: Trypsin, is an enzyme secreted from pancreas. It helps in the breakdown of protein to synthesis amino acid. Trypsin breaks the peptide bond.

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146
Q

61.The trace metal present in insulin is- (A) Iron (B) Zinc (C) Cobalt (D) Manganese

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level 2006] Exp: Insulin is a peptide hormone secreted from Beta cells of pancreas. Insulin is a molecular compound comprises of two alpha and two Beta chains with zinc in centre. Insulin helps to maintain the glucose concentration in blood.

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147
Q

62.The body temperature is regulated by- (A) Pituitary gland (B) Hypothalamus (C) Pineal gland (D) Thyroid gland

A

(B) [SSC SI 2006] Exp: Hypothalamus is the region of the brain that controls an immense number of body functions. It is located in the middle of the base of the brain and encapsulate the ventral portion of the third ventricle. The pituitary gland is situated just beneath the Hypothalamus.

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148
Q

63.Which of the following hormone is released in excess quantity during excitement? (A) Cortisone (B) Serotonin (C) Adrenaline (D) Oestrogen

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2006, SSC CPO 2005] Exp: Adrenalin secreted from adrnal gland is an emergency hormone. Adrenalin is responsible for various metabolic rate like heart rate, pulse rate, blood pressure, blood glucose level. Adrenalin controls the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

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149
Q

64.A person will have brown eyes, blue eyes or black eyes depending on the particular pigment in the- (A) Pupil (B) Cornea (C) Iris (D) Choroid

A

(C) [SSC SI 2005] Exp: Iris is highly pigmented with the colour typically ranging from brown, blue or black eyes. Colour of eye is a phenotypic trait and is determined by two factors pigmentation of Iris and scattering of light in stroma of iris.

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150
Q

65.Which of the following structure present in mammalian skin directly helps in keeping the body warm? (A) Pigmented Cells (B) Sweat Glands (C) Lymph Vessels (D) Blood Capillaries

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2005] Exp: Lymphatic system is a circulatory system in which blood plasma ooze into tissues through the thin walls of the capillaries. Blood plasma contains oxygen, glucose, amino acid and nutrients needed by tissue cells.

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151
Q

66.Which of the following makes the skin layer impervious to water? (A) Collagen (B) Melanin (C) Keratin (D) Chitin

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2005] Exp: Keratin is the protein fibrils structure, it protects the epithelial cells from damage. Structurally Keratin is of two types -Keratin and -Keratin. Alpha Keratin forms the hair, horns, nails, claws and hooves.

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152
Q

67.The development of an egg without fertilisation is called- (A) Gametogenesis (B) Parthenogenesis (C) Oogenesis (D) Metamorphosis

A

(B) [SSC Tax Asst. 2005] Exp: Parthenogenesis is the development of embryo without fertilisation. It is a type of asexual reproduction. Particularly common amongst arthropods and rotifers.

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153
Q

68.Sea sickness is due to the effect of the motion of ship on- (A) Internal Ear (B) Heart (C) Stomach (D) Eyes

A

(A) [SSC CPO 2005] Exp: Sea sickness is a form of motion sickness characterised by a feeling of Nausea and in extreme cases vertigo spending time on a craft on water. It is due to cristae and macula of internal ear which are concerned with balance and endolymph of cochlea.

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154
Q

69.What part of the eye gets inflamed and becomes pink when dust gets into? (A) Cornea (B) Choroid (C) Conjunctiva (D) Sclerotic

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2004] Exp: Conjuctiva is the inner surface of eylids and outer surface of the eyeball. Conjuctive is composed of stratified squamous epithelial and stratified columnar epithelial cells. Conjuctive helps in lubricating the eye by producing mucus and tear.

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155
Q

70.Out of the following glands which is referred to as the master gland? (A) Thyroid (B) Adrenal Gland (C) Pituitary (D) Pancreas

A

(C) [SSC Tax Asst. 2004] Exp: Pitutary is referred to the master gland because it control all the other six glands like adrenal, thymus, thyroid, parathyroid and gonads. It controls the secretion of other glands.

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156
Q

71.Which one of the following is found only in women? (A) Thyroid (B) Pituitary (C) Ovary (D) Adrenal

A

(C) [SSC CPO 2003] Exp: Ovaries are the part of female reproductive organ, located on either side of abdomen. Ovaries helps in maturation of ovum (egg) and secretion of estrogen and progesterone.

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157
Q

72.Which is the gland that holds the body’s thermostat? (A) Pineal (B) Pituitary (C) Thyroid (D) Hypothalamus

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2003] Exp: Hypothalamus is the centre located in the brain. It is the part of Fore Brain Hypothalamus is centre of thirst, food and sexual arousal. Hypothalamus regulate the body temperature.

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158
Q

73.Where is the pineal gland situated? (A) In the Liver (B) In the Brain (C) In the Kidneys (D) In the Uterus

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Pineal gland is situated in the brain. The pineal gland produces melatonin a serotonin derived hormone which modulates sleep patterns in both circadian rhythm.

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159
Q

74.Which one of the endocrine gland is known as Master Gland? (A) Pituitary (B) Adrenal (C) Thyroid (D) Parathyroid

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Pituitary gland which is located at the centre of the skull, just behind the bridge of the nose. It is about the size of the pea. It is a connecting point between nervous system and endocrine system of the body. As it control various other glands, it is known as ‘Master gland’.

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160
Q

75.Estrogen and progesterone control and stimulate the growth of- (A) Pituitary Gland (B) Thyroid Gland (C) Mammary Gland (D) Supra renal Gland

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Development of mammary gland is the secondary sexual characteristics and it matures at the time of puberty. Hormones estrogen and progesterone control and stimulate the growth of mammary gland.

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161
Q

76.The membrane covering the lungs is a- (A) Pleura (B) Pericardium (C) Peritoneum (D) Mesothelium

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Pleural membrane is a fluid filled double layered wall. It protects the lungs during exhalation and inhalation in respiration.

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162
Q

77.The acid present in gastric juice is- (A) Hydrochloric (B) Nitric (C) Sulphuric (D) Ascorbic

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: The parietal or oxyntic cells present in epithelial cell secrete hydrochloric acid. Hydrochloric acid performs two functions • Conversion of pepsin from pepsinogen • To kill the microbes present in food.

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163
Q

78.The organ which stores carbohydrates as glycogen in the human body is- (A) Intestine (B) Stomach (C) Pancreas (D) Liver

A

(D) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Liver stores the glycogen. Glycogen is a polysaccharide unit, which is stored and converted into glucose and made accessible to the other organs by the process called glycogenolysis.

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164
Q

79.Bile is stored in the- (A) Gall bladder (B) Duodenum (C) Liver (D) Spleen

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Gall bladder is a small organ where bile is stored before it released into the small intestine. Humans can live normal without a gall bladder. The surgical removal of gall bladder is called as cholecystoctomy.

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165
Q

80.Which of the following cells secrete insulin? (A) Alpha Cells (B) Delta Cells (C) Nerve Cells (D) Beta Cells

A

(D) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Insulin is secreated from Beta cells of pancreas located in islets of Langerh Pancreas have three different types of cells i.e. Beta, alpha and gamma. Alpha cells releases glycogen and gamma cells releases somatostatin.

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166
Q

81.Which of the following is not a gland? (A) Thyroid (B) Stomach (C) Liver (D) Pancreas

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Stomach is not a gland, it is the broadest part of alimentary canal in Human beings stomach helps in digestion of food and secretion of Hydrochloric acid

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167
Q

82.Metabolism is referred to as- (A) Synthesis of biomolecules (B) Breaking down of biomolecules (C) Synthesis and breaking down of biomolecules (D) Recycling of biomolecules

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level 2000] Exp: Metabolism is a chemical process in which either the synthesis or breakdown of molecules takes place by the help of enzymes or catalyst. Metabolism is categorized into two type catabolic and anabolic.

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168
Q

83.The functional unit of ‘kidney’ is- (A) Axon (B) Neuron (C) Nephron (D) Artery

A

(C) [SSC (10 +2), DEO & LDC 2011, 2008] Exp: Nephron is structural and functional unit of kidney its main function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances like salt and glucose. Nephrons are divided into four main parts called as Glomerulus, Bowan’s capsule, tubules and collecting duct.

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169
Q

84.An antibiotic is- (A) A chemical synthesised by a human cell against an microorganism (B) A chemical synthesised by a microorganism against another microorganisms (C) A substance produced by blood cells against bacteria (D) A substance produced by blood cells against infection

A

(B) [SSC SO 2006] Exp: Antibiotics are medicines that inhibits the growth or destroy microorganism. Antibiotics are prepared form the micro organisms especially by bacteria. The first antibiolic. Penicillin was prepared form bacteria Pencilium notatum.

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170
Q

85.Allosomes are- (A) Cell organelles (B) Plant hormones (C) Alleles (D) Sex chromosomes

A

(D) [SSC Steno. 2011] Exp: Allosomes are sex chromosomes present in Human beings. The total 23 pairs of chromosomes are divided into two groups i.e. Autosome and Allosomes represents X and Y chromosome in males and X-chromosomes in females.

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171
Q

86.The number of chromosomes present in normal human being are- (A) 23 (B) 46 (C) 22 (D) 48

A

(B) [SSC SI 2010, CPO 2006] Exp: The total number of chromosomes present in normal human beings are 46 in diploid stage. Out of which 22 pairs of chromosome are know as autosome and 23rd pair is known a Allosome.

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172
Q

87.Amniocentesis is a method for (A) Determination of foetal health conditions (B) Determination of the amino acids sequence (C) Inducing abortion (D) Artificial insemination

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2002] Exp: Amniocentesis is a medical test that is done during the pregnancy period. It helps to determine birth defects due the chromosomal aberrations Amniocentesis test includes the amniotic fluid.

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173
Q

88.Which cells in pancreas produce Insulin? (A) Thymus (B) Estrogen (C) Corpus epididymis (D) Islets of Langerhans

A

(D) Exp: Insulin is a hormone that control the glucose concentration in blood. Insulin is produce by islets of Langerhans cells of pancreas.

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174
Q

89.The hormone that stimulates heart beat is (A) Thyroxine (B) Gastrin (C) Glycogen (D) Dopamine

A

(A) Exp: Thyroxin is a hormone that stimulates the heart beat which is secreted by Thyroid gland.

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175
Q

90.Which of the following is an emergency hormone in humans? (A) Thyroxine (B) Insulin (C) Adrenaline (D) Progestrone

A

(C) Exp: Adrenaline is a hormone secreted by adrenal medulla during stress. This is called as emergency hormone because it initiate quick reaction and increase metabolic rate. Adrenalene hormone also increase fat metabolism thereby synthesizing more energy

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176
Q

91.Which is the second largest gland of Human body? (A) Liver (B) Large Intestine (C) Thorax (D) Pancreas

A

(D) Exp: Pancreas is the second largest gland of Human body of about 15cm in length. Pancreas are termed as heterocrine gland i.e. it acts as both exocrine (secretes digestive enzymes) and endocrine (recreates hormones) gland.

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177
Q

92.What does Trypsin do? (A) Breaks down Carbohydrates (B) Synthesizes proteins (C) Breaks down fats (D) Breaks down proteins

A

(C) Exp: Enzymes Trypsin is released from pancreas and small intestine. The Trypsinogen present in small intestine is converted into trypsin, by a process refers as trypsin proteolysis. Trypsin help is breakdown of proteins into peptides.

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178
Q

93.What may be the cause of malfunctioning of thyroid gland? (A) Iodine deficiency (B) Iron deficiency (C) Calcium deficiency (D) Vitamin C

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2002) Exp: Thyroid is a shield shaped endocrine gland present in the neck region. Thyroid gland releases thyroxin hormone, which helps in overall development of body. Deficiency of iodine cause the disease goitre in which thyroid gland get swelled up and cause the malfunctioning of thyroid glands.

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179
Q

94.Which was the first enzyme isolated in pure crystalline form? (A) Amylase (B) Catalase (C) Lipase (D) Urease

A

(D) (SSC Tax Assistant 2004) Exp: Urease was the first enzyme isolated in pure crystalline from in 1926. James B. Summer showed that urease is hydrolysis urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia.

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180
Q

95.What is true about viruses without exception? (A) They contain a core of RNA (B) They can infect bacteria (C) They cannot produce antibodies (D) They cannot multiply only in host cells

A

(A) (SSCCombined Matric Level 2000) Exp: Virus are the microorganism, infectious agent. Viruses infect the living cells by multiplying its single stranded genetic strand in host cells. D. Ivanovsky discovered the virus in 1892.

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181
Q

96.Which are not included in the milk-teeth in a child of 3-4 years? (A) Incisors (B) Canines (C) Molars (D) Premolars

A

(C) (SSC CML- 2006) Exp: Molars are the three posterior most teeth present in jaw of 3-4 years child. Molars help in chewing and mastigation of food.

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182
Q

97.Bile is secreted by: (A) Gall bladder (B) Liver (C) Bile duct (D) Pancreas

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking 2011) Exp: Bile is a yellowish-green fluid secreted from bilirubin and biliverdin cells of liver. It is stored in gall bladder and secreted from liver through bile duct.

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183
Q

98.Which one of the following is the smallest endocrine gland in human man body? (A) Adernal (B) Thyroid (C) Pituitary (D) Pancreas

A

(C) (SSC (10+2) -2011) Exp: Pituitary gland is the smallest endocrine gland about the size of a pea weighing 0.5 gm in human. Pituitary regulates several physiological processes, hormones and controls the activity other hormones.

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184
Q

99.Which one of the following organs converts glycogen into glucose and purifies the blood? (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Lungs (D) Spleen

A

(A) (SSC (10+2) -2012) Exp: Liver is the largest endocrine gland, main functions of liver. • Secretion of bile juice • Conversion of glycogen into glucose • Detoxification and purification of blood.

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185
Q

100.Which of the following is not an endocrine gland? (A) Pituitary (B) Thyroid (C) Adrenal (D) Spleen

A

(D) (SSC DPSI 2012) Exp: Spleen in not an endocrine gland, spleen is an abdominal organ which involved in the production and removal of blood cells and forms the part of the immune system.

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186
Q

101.An example of protein which acts as a hormone is: (A) Trypsin (B) Oxytocin (C) Keratin (D) Casein

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Hormones are released from endocrine gland and function for specific purpose at the target site. Oxytocin is a protein derivative hormone oxytocin functions as birth and sexual reproductive hormone.

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187
Q

102.The hormone used as an oral contraceptive is: (A) Cortisone (B) Progesterone (C) Testosterone (D) Aldesterone

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Progesterone hormones use as an oral contraceptive and use to avoid unwanted pregnancy. High level of progesterone does not allow the fertilization of egg.

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188
Q

103.Conglobate gland is a leaf like structure found in (A) Female Cockroach (B) Male Cockroach (C) Male Ascaris (D) Female Ascaris

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Conglobate glands or phallic glands is a long club shaped accessory gland present in males. It helps in storage of spermatozoa.

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189
Q

104.Lactogenic hormone is secreted by (A) Mammary glands (B) placenta (C) Ovary (D) Pituitary

A

(D) (SSC Level Data Entry 2013) Exp: Loctogenic hormone is secreted by anterior pituitary gland Lactogenic is gonad tropic hormone which stimulate the production of milk after parturition. It also stimulates the gonads and controls reproductive activity.

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190
Q

105.Which glands in the human body regulates the secretion of hormones from the pituitary glands? (A) Thymus gland (B) Thyroid gland (C) Adrenal gland (D) Hypothalamus gland

A

(D) (SSC Level Data Entry 2013) Exp: Hypothalamus gland is a part of forebrain. Hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormones from pituitary gland. Hypothalamus link the nervous system to the endocrine system through pituitary.

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191
Q

106.Insulin: (A) Increase blood sugar (B) Decrease blood sugar (C) Constricts blood vessels (D) Stimulates lactation

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking 2014) Exp: Insulin regulate the concentration of sugar (glucose) from carbohydrates in the food. Insulin help to keeps blood sugar level from getting too high (hyperglycemia) or too low (hypoglycemia)

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192
Q

107.An example of hormone is (A) Cytosine (B) Renin (C) Oxytocin (D) Peprin

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Oxytocin is a powerful hormone that acts as neurotransmittor in the brain. Oxytocin is a birth hormone and generally stimulated during sex, birth, lactation and parturition.

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193
Q

108.The hormone that stimulates heart beat is: (A) Thyroxine (B) Gastrin (C) Glycogen (D) Dopamine

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Thyroxin hormones is secreted from thyroid gland. Thyroxin regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR) by stimulating heart rate, respiratory rate and control body temperature.

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194
Q

109.Which of the following cells secret insulin? (A) A cells (B) B cells (C) G cells (D) Nerve cells

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Insulin is secreted from beta cells of pancreas. Insulin helps in maintaining the level of glucose in the blood.

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195
Q

110.Which of the following glands secret growth hormone? (A) Adrenal (B) Pituitary Gland (C) Gonads (D) Pancreas

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Pituitary gland is known as master gland. It controls the quantity of secretion of all other glands present. It secretes the growth hormone and stimulate the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

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196
Q

111.Which of the following drug is used to get pain relief in muscles? (A) Analgesics (B) Antibiotic (C) Antiseptics (D) Antidotes

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Analgesics are drugs which is used as painkiller. It acts on central and peripheral nervous system without loss of consciousness. Common analgesics are ibuprofen, naproxen and morphine.

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197
Q

112.Which of the following gives colour to human skin? (A) Adenosine (B) Thymine (C) Melanin (D) Guanine

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Melanin is the pigment present in the hair, eyes and skin of human. Melanin is produced by cells called melanocyte which are stimulated by Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) released from pituitary gland.

198
Q

113.Which of the following human gland produces Insulin? (A) Spleen (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Pituitary Gland

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Beta cells of pancreas secreted insulin. Insulin maintains the glucose level in blood. Less secretion of insulin results in diabetes melitus.

199
Q

114.At which period of life, body undergoes changes leading to reproductive maturity? (A) Adulthood (B) Adolescence (C) Adrenaline change (D) Target period

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: During the adolescence phase, body undergoes changes due to release of hormones from pituitary glands. These changes are primary sexual characteristic and secondary sexual characteristic which leads to reproductive maturity

200
Q

115.Neurons are part of which system of human body? (A) Circulatory system (B) Excretory system (C) Reproductive system (D) Nervous system

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Neurons are the structural and functional unit of nervous system. Neurons are composed of two parts cyton with dendrites and axon with nerve ending. Neurons forms the synapse which transmit the chemical signal in the form of neurotransmitter.

201
Q

116.Where is pituitary gland situated? (A) Near stomach (B) Near lungs (C) Near kidney (D) Near brain

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Pituitary gland is situated in the lower part of brain. Pituitary gland is a protrusion at the bottom of hypothalamus. It is the smallest gland of the endocrine system. Pituitary gland is known as the ‘master gland.’

202
Q

117.Synapse gap is present between which of the following? (A) Two neurons (B) Brain and Spinal Cord (C) Two Kidneys (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Synapse gap is present between dendrites of two neurons. Synapse is a structure that allows a neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron. These signals or neurotransmittor pass in the form of chemical called as acetylcholine.

203
Q

118.Which of the following is not a plant hormone? (A) Gibberellic (B)Auxins (C) Cytokinins (D)Thyroxin

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Thyroxin is an animal hormone secreted from Thyroid gland, Thyroxin helps in regulation of metabolism and control the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). Deficiency of iodine cause the disease goitre.

204
Q

119.What is the name of the hormone produced by thymus gland? (A) Thyroxine (B) Auxins (C) Cytokinins (D) Thymosin

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Thymus is an endocrine gland which release the hormone thymosin. Thymus gland helps to generate immunity by maturing the T-lymphocyte cells.

205
Q

120.Insulin is a kind of _____ (A) Hormone (B) Protein (C) Enzyme (D) Vitamin

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Insulin is a kind of hormone release from b (beta) cell of pancreas. Insulin helps to maintain concentration of glucose in the blood. Low secretion of insulin results in the disease diabetes mellitus.

206
Q

121.Which of the following is responsible for giving colour to human skin? (A) Luciferin (B) Haemoglobin (C) Flavonoids (D) Melanin

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Melanin is responsible for giving colour to the human skin, hair and eyes. it is stumulated by the hormone released from pituitary gland. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) control the release of melanin in body.

207
Q

122.Which among the following is/are female hormones? (i) Estrogen (ii) Progeste rone (iii)Testosterone (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (iii)

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Estrogen and progesterone are female hormones. Estrogen helps in maturity and development of ovum and progesterone prepare the female uterus for pregnancy.

208
Q

123.Which of the following is the largest gland in human body? (A)Thyroid (B) Liver (C) Kidney (D) Pancreas

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Liver is a bilobed organ and the largest gland of the human body. Liver gland secretes the bile juice through the bile duct. Liver detoxify the chemicals present in blood.

209
Q

124.In which of the following class can we put Adrenaline? (A) Hormone (B) Enzyme (C) Protein (D) Fat

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Adrenaline is a hormone released from adernal gland. Adrenal glands are present on upper part of both kidney Adrenaline is known as emergency hormone, as it released during the fear and flight.

210
Q

1.’Linkage’ was discovered by- (A) Blakslee (B) Morgan (C) Muller (D) Bateson

A

(D) [SSC (10+2)- 2014] Exp: When gene are close together on the same chromosome, they are said to be linked and this process called as linkage. In genetics, linkage was first discovered British geneticist Bateson, Saunder and Punnett. Genetic linkage was expanded by the work of Morgan.

211
Q

2.The virus without capsid but only with nucleic acids is called- (A) Capsomere (B) Nucleoid (C) Prion (D) Virion

A

(B) [SSC (10+2) - 2014] Exp: Virus is a pathogenic micro-organism. Virus have four main components 1. Nucleoid 2. Capsid 3. Envelope 4. Enzymes. Nucleoid represent the viral chromosome made up of single molecule of Nuclic Acid. It may be Linear or circular with various degrees of coiling. It is the infective part of virus.

212
Q

3.Thymidine dimer formation in DNA is caused by- (A) X-rays (B) P and y-rays (C) UV rays (D) Infrared rays

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: Thymidine dimers are produced when adjacent thymidine residues are covalently linked by expose of Uiltraviolet radiation. Covalent linkage may result in the dimer being replicated as a single base, which results in a Frame shift mutation

213
Q

4.How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea were selected by Mendel? (A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: Garden pea (Pisum sativum) have diploid chromosome number (2n) as 14 so pea have 7 pairs of contrasting characters. Gregor Johann Mendel is known as Father of classical Genetics. He took 7 pair contrasting character in Pea.

214
Q

5.DNA differs from RNA in having nitrogenous base- (A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Cytosine (D) Thymine

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: DNA (Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid) have four nitrogenous base Adenine, Thymine. Cytosine, Guanine and same as RNA (Ribose Nuclic Acid) have four bases as Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine and Adenine. In RNA Uracil replace the Thymine.

215
Q

6.Who coined the term ‘Gene’? (A) Mendel (B) Johannsen (C) Watson (D) Beadle

A

(B) [SSC MTS 2013] Exp: Gene is a segment of DNA or unit DNA which is heritable in living organism. Gene term was first coined by Johannsen.

216
Q

7.The sugar present in DNA is- (A) Pentose (B) Xylulose (C) Hexose (D) Heptulose

A

(A) [SSC MTS 2013] Exp: DNA (De-Oxyribose Nucleic Acid) contain a nucleotide chain which formed by Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate. DNA is double stranded having hydrogen bond between nitrogenous bases.

217
Q

8.Who among the following analysed DNA for the first time? (A) Arthur Kornberg (B) Hargobind Khorana (C) MW Nirenberg (D) Watson and Crick

A

(D) [SSC SO, 2013] Exp: Watson and Crick primarily explained the DNA double helical structure by X-Ray crystalography method.

218
Q

9.A cross between homozygous recessive and heterozygous plant is- (A) Back cross (B) Test cross (C) Monohybrid cross (D) Dihybrid cross

A

(B) [SSC (10+2). DEO & LDC 2012] Exp: Test cross was first introduced by Greger Johann Mendal as the resultant of heterozygous. F1 generation is crossed with homozygous recessive parent which results in the identification allelic pair.

219
Q

10.Transfer of genetic information from one generation to the next generation is by- (A) RNA (B) Codon (C) DNA (D) Messenger RNA

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2012] Exp: DNA is a genetic material of most of the organism that transfer the genetic information from one generation to another generation that is called as inheritance.

220
Q

11.Which of the following correctly explains the phenomenon of ‘Test-tube baby’? (A) When every process of embryo formation is in the test-tube (B) When the embryo develops in a test-tube (C) When the fertilisation is external and development is internal (D) When the fertilisation is internal and development is external

A

(C)Exp: Test-tube body developed through IVF (in vitro fertilization) in which fusion of women’s egg and men’s sperm occur in test tube or in laboratory. IVF is a form of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).

221
Q

12.Chromosomes consist of- (A) DNA and Lipids (B) RNA and Amino acids (C) DNA and Proteins (D) RNA and Sugar

A

(C) [SSC (10+2) DEO & LDC 2012] Exp: Chromosome is the condensed form of DNA with histone protein. They are present in different number in different animals for their genetic constitution or genetic information, eg- In human 46 chromosome.

222
Q

13.Which chromosomal combination is responsible for maleness in man? (A) XO (B) XXX (C) XX (D) XY

A

(D) [SSC (10+2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: XY is a combination for maleness. In testis determining facter is coded by Y- chromosome, hence only presence of Y - chromosome lead to maleness. The combination of XY lead to maleness and XX lead to femaleness.

223
Q

14.The coding segment of DNA is called in- (A) Codon (B) Muton (C) Intron (D) Exon

A

(D) [SSC (10+2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Exon is the coding segment of DNA molecule containing gene which are responsible for transcription of DNA to RNA for protein synthesis by translation.

224
Q

15.DNA fingerprinting is used to identify the- (A) Parents (B) Rapist (C) Thieves (D) All of the above

A

(D) [SSC CPO 2011] Exp: DNA fingerprinting is a technique which helps in identifying the DNA to link between biological evidence. It is used to identify the parents, rapist and thieves. It is also known as DNA profiling or DNA testing. It was developed in 1984 by Alec Jaffreys.

225
Q

16.’Dolly’, the world’s first cloned animal was a- (A) Sheep (B) Cow (C) Goat (D) Pig

A

(A) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Dolly was the first mammal cloned of sheep from an adult cell. Dolly was cloned at Rosalin Institute, Scotland. Dolly was born by the technique called as somatic cell nuclear transfer.

226
Q

17.Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of- (A) Reproduction (B) Research (C) Therapeutics (D) Genetics

A

(C) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Cloning is the production of genetically identical copy of an organism. In Britain Human cloning is permitted only for therapeutic purpose including transplant tissue damage and other genetic modification.

227
Q

18.HYV refers to- (A) Hybrid Yielding Variety (B) Human Yellow Virus (C) High Yielding Variety (D) Human Yellow Vaccine

A

(C) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: HYV refers to ‘high yielding variety’. High yielding varieties are crops with better traits, high productivity per area and less use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides

228
Q

19.DNA test was developed by- (A) Dr Alec Jeffreys (B) Dr VK Kashyap (C) Watson and Crick (D) Gregor Mendel

A

(A) [SSC Tax Asst. 2007] Exp: DNA profiling or DNA testing or DNA fingerprinting is a process determining an individual’s DNA characteristics. DNA profiling was developed by Dr. Alec Jeffrey in 1984.

229
Q

20.Gregor Johnn Mendel is famous for propounding- (A) Theory of Mutation (B) Laws of Heredity (C) Cell Theory (D) Theory of Acquired Characters

A

(B) [SSC CGL 2007] Exp: Gregor Johann Mendal is the ‘Father of Genetics’. He discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance. He deduced that genes come in pairs and are inheritance as distinct units, one from each parent mendal’s Law of Heredity stated as- • Law of Segregation • Law of Dominance. • Law of independent assortment

230
Q

21.The term ‘GM food’ refers to the food- (A) That grows under genetic measures (B) That is genetically modified (C) That grows under geographical modification (D) With greater glucose metabolism

A

(B) [SSC Tax Asst. 2007] Exp: GM food refers to ‘genetically modified’ organisms or crops. GM crops are those crops whose DNA has been modified using genetic engineering methods. These crops include resistance to certain pests, disease, reduction of spoilage etc.

231
Q

22.What determines the sex of a child? (A) Chromosome of the father (B) Chromosomes of the mother (C) Rh factor of the parents (D) Blood group of the father

A

(A) [SSC Matric Level 2006] Exp: Sex of the child is determined by chromosomes of father. The male gamete (sperm) has a pair of X and Y chromosome. If the sperm carrying X- chromosome fertilise the egg, the resultant is female child (XX) and if the sperm carrying Y- chromosome fertilised the egg, the resultant is (XY)- male child.

232
Q

23.The name of the first cloned sheep was- (A) Molly (B) Dolly(C) Jolly (D) Roly

A

(B) [SSC CPO 2006] Exp: Dolly sheep was the first mammal to be cloned. Dolly was cloned by Ian wilmeet and Keith Campbell at Roslin Institute. Dolly sheep took birth on 5 July 1996 and died from a progressive lung disease after 5 months.

233
Q

24.A test tube baby means- (A) A baby grown in a test-tube (B) Embryo fertilised in uterus and developed in test-tube (C) Embryo fertilised and developed in uterus (D) Fertilisation in vitro and then transplantation in the uterus

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2004] Exp: Test tube baby is an in-vitro fertilisation of sperm and egg and the resultant zygote is then transplanted in the uterus. The zygote at the stage of 16-32 called, or Blastocyst in transferred in mothers womb for further development. It is a method of Assistant reproductive technology (ART).

234
Q

25.The hybrid between horse and donkey is called- (A) Pony (B) Colt (C) Mule (D) Zebra

A

(C) [SSC SO 2003] Exp: Mule is resultant offspring of hybrid between horse and donkey. It is the type of inter specific hybridisation i.e., mating of two species within the same genus. The offspring display traits and characteristics of both parents.

235
Q

26.What is the chromosome number in a human ovum? (A) 24 (B) 46 (C) 48 (D) None of these

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2003] Exp: There are total 46 chromosome present in human cells. During the formation of gametes i.e., ovum in female and sperm in male, the chromosome number reduced to half i.e. 23 by the meiosis cell division.

236
Q

27.Genes, the hereditary units are located in the- (A) Nuclear membrane (B) Chromosomes (C) Lysosomes (D) Cell membrane

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: Genes are the hereditary unit located on chromosomes. Genes controls the specific trait or characters which pass on from one generation to the other

237
Q

28.Of the total number of genes inherited by a child- (A) More from the father (B)More from the mother (C) There are an equal number from each parent (D)There is never a constant number from the parents

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: During the formation of gametes the chromosomes number reduced to half i.e., 23 from 46. These gametes when fuse together forms the zygote and embryo. Thus, the total number of genes inherited by a child are an equal number from each parent.

238
Q

29.In test-tube babies, the- (A) Ovum is fertilised and developed in test-tubes (B) Ovum is fertilised in the test-tubes and developed in uterus (C) Ovum is fertilised in the uterus and developed in test tubes (D) Ovum is developed without fertilisation in testtubes

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level 2002] Exp: In test tube babies, the gametes from male and female are fertilised in vitro. Later at the Blastomere stage fertilised egg or zygote is transferred in female uterus for development. On 25 July 1978, the first test tube baby, Louise Brown was born. Robert Edward and Patrick Steptac are the pioneer of IVF.

239
Q

30.Which one of the following is a hereditary disease? (A) Haemophilia (B) Myopia (C) Anaemia (D) Leukaemia

A

(A) [SSC Matric Laval 2002] Exp: Haemophilia is a hereditary genetic disorder occur due to the recessive gene on chromosome number 17. Recessive gene lacks blood clotting factor IX, which lacks coagulant factor thrompolastin in blood. So minor injuries cause continuous bleeding and death of the person due to haemorrhages.

240
Q

31.By which of the following the sex of a child is determined before birth? (A) Sperms of father (B) Foetus of mother (C) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (D) Nutrition of mother

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2002] Exp: The sex of the child is determined by the chromosome carried by the sperm of male. If the sperm contain X chromosome then the resultant is (XX), female child. If the sperm contain Y chromosome, then the resultant is XY, male child.

241
Q

32.Which of the following is correct? (A) DNA is the genetic material in most of the organism (B) RNA is the genetic material in most viruses and bacteria (C) DNA is the genetic material in all the viruses (D) RNA is the genetic material in all the viruses

A

(A) [SSC SO 2001] Exp: DNA or deoxyribose nucleic acid is a hereditary material in most of the living organisms. DNA is present inside the nucleus of the cell, where it gets the replication during the cell division.

242
Q

33.Anglo Nubian is a breed of- (A) Sheep (B) Goat (C) Poultry (D) Cattle

A

“(B) [SSC CGL 2000] Exp: Anglo-nubian is a breed of domestic goat. It was originated in England. Its distinguishing characteristics includes large, pendulous ears and a Roman nose. Nubian has a nickname ““Lop-eared goat’s Rabbit goat”

243
Q

.34. The drone in honeybee are- (A) Fertile male (B) Fertile female (C) Sterile male (D) Sterile female

A

(A) [SSC (10+2) 2011] Exp: Drone is a fertile male honeybee. Female Honeybee (Queen) produces the eggs in large number. Egg which are fertilised by the sperm developed into female and unfertilised egg develops into male by the process of parthenogenesis.

244
Q

34.Breeding and management of bees is known as- (A) Sericulture (B) Silviculture (C) Pisciculture (D) Apiculture

A

(D) [SSC MTS 2011] Exp: Bee- Keeping or apiculture is the breeding and management of bees. An apiary is a place where beehives of honey bees are kept. Apiarist are beekeepers and extract the honey.

245
Q

35.What is an antibiotic? (A) A chemical compound produced by a living organism that inhibits the growth of other organisms (B) A compound synthesised by a living organism that inhibits the growth of microbes (C) A synthetic compound inhibiting the growth of other organisms (D) A synthetic compound inhibiting the growth of bacteria

A

(D) [SSC Tax Asst. 2004] Exp: Antibiotics is a medicine prepared from bacteria that inhibit the growth or destroys microorganism. These antibiotic either kill the bacteria or inhibit their cell wall growth. The first antibiotic named as penicillin was isolated by Alexander Fleming in 1940.

246
Q

“36.According to your text, ““what can be thought of as the genetic library that keeps life going on Earth””? (A) A bio-engineering lab (B)Human genes (C) The human genome project (D) Biodiversity”

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) Nov. 2014] Exp: Biodiversity or Biological diversity is the variety of plant and animal life in the world or in a particular habitat which are unique in their characteristics. Biodiversity are of three types Species, Genetic and Ecosystem.

247
Q

37.Polyploidy arises due to change in the (A) Number of chromatids (B) Structure of genes (C) Number of chromosomes (D) Structure of chromosomes

A

(C) Exp: Polyploidy refers to a numerical change in a whole set of chromosomes. Polyploidy occur due to abnormal cell division either during Mitosis, or commonly during Metaphase I in meiosis.

248
Q

38.A genetically engineered form of brinjal known as the BT-brinjal has been developed. The objective of this is (A) To make it pest resistant (B) To improve its taste and nutritive value (C) To make it drought resistant (D) To make its shelf-life longer

A

(A) Exp: Bt-Brinjal is a genetically engineered crop developed by the use of bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis. BT gene is effective for pest resistant.

249
Q

39.Which of the following is a Dominant Autosomal Disorder? (A) Albinism (B) Cystic Fibrosis (C) Phenyl Ketorunia (D) Alzheimer’s Disease

A

(D) Exp: In Autosomal Dominant only one infected gene from any one parent is enough to cause the disease in the child. It is a Inheriting disease trait depends on the type of chromosome affected.

250
Q

40.Mendel is known as (A) Father of Physiology (B) Father of Geology (C) Father of Genetics (D) Father of Biology

A

(C) Exp: Mendel is known as ‘Father of Genetics’. Mendel performed the experiment on the pea plant and gave the theories of hereditary. He proved that many physical traits can be passed from one generation to the other.

251
Q

41.The primary function of RNA is (A) Photosynthesis (B) Protein Synthesis (C) Replication (D) Translation

A

(B) Exp: Primary function of RNA is protein synthesis from DNA, in the series known as central dogma. The first step of converting DNA into RNA by transcription and RNA into by protein translation.

252
Q

42.In a Punnett Square with the cross AaBb, AaBb, how many Aabb genotypes would be created? (A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 3

A

(C) Exp: Punnett square is a representation of mendilian inheritance. It determine the probability of an offspring having particular genotype.

253
Q

43.The Mutation Theory was proposed by _____. (A) Charles Lyell (B) William Smith (C) Hugo De Vries (D) Harrison Schmitt

A

(C) Exp: Mutation theory was proposed by, Dutch botanist Hugo de vries. De-Vries proposed the mutation theory in order to explain the mechanism of evolution. This theory was based on his observation on evening primrose.

254
Q

44.RNA is a polymeric molecule. What does RNA stand for? (A)Rado Nuclear Acid (B)Ribo Nucleic Acid (C)Rhino Nuclear Acid (D) Resto Nucleus Acid

A

(B) Exp: RNA stands for Ribo Nucleic Acid. It is a genetic hereditary material present in some living organism. RNA is a chain of nucleotide with base pair Adenine (A) Uracil(U), Cytosine(C) and Guanine (G).

255
Q

45.Which of the following constitute to form a gene? (A) Polynucleotides (B) Hydrocarbons (C) Lipoproteins (D) Lipids

A

(A) Exp: Polynucleotide is a linear polymer whose molecule are composed of many nucleotide units, constitute a section of a nucleic acid molecule. Polynucleotide constitute to form a gene.

256
Q

46.The term ‘gene’ was coined by (A) T.H. Morgan (B) W.L. Johannsen (C) G. Mendal (D) De Vries

A

(B) (SSC Tax Assistant 2007) Exp: The term ‘gene’ was introduced by Danish botanist, plant physiologist W. Johannsen in 1905. Gene are the inheritance unit of phenotypic traits present on the chromosome.

257
Q

47.The number of chromosomes present in the somatic cell of the human cell is (A) 23 (B) 44 (C) 46 (D) 92

A

(C) (SSC CML.-2006) Exp: Human body is made up of two types of cells Somatic cell ie. Growth and development cell and Germ cell i.e. Reproductive cell. Somatic cell contains 46 Chromosomes and Germ cell reduces the number of chromosome to half i.e., 23.

258
Q

48.DNA contains (A) Pentose sugar (B) Hexose sugar (C) Erythrose sugar (D) Sedoheptulose sugar

A

(A) (SSC 10+2) -2012) Exp: DNA is a polynucleotide double helical structure consists of pentose sugar called Deoxyribose, phosphoric acid molecule and pyrimidine and purine with base pair as Adenine, Thymine, cytosine and Guanine.

259
Q

49.Transfer of genetic information from one generation to the next generation is by (A) RNA (B) Codon (C) DNA (D) Messenger RNA

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2012) Exp: Genetic information is carried by DNA (Deoxyribose Nucleic acid) from one generation to the next generation. DNA contains the hereditary unit as Genes and have the information on the base pairs present.

260
Q

50.The term ‘genetics’ was coined by (A) Morgan (B) Mendal (C) Bateson (D) Water

A

(C) (SSC Sec. Offier 1997) Exp: The biological science which deals with mechanism of heredity and causes of variations in living beings (virus, bacteria, plants and animals) is known as genetics. Gregor Johann Mendel is the father of genetics. Bateson coined the term genetics.

261
Q

51.The sum of genes in a population is called- (A) Phynotype (B) Karyotype (C) Genotype (D) Gene pool

A

(D) (SSC MTS–2013) Exp: Gene pool is the sum of all genes or total genetic material present in any population of the same species. it refers to the sum of all the alleles within the genes of a population This is the basis of natural selection.

262
Q

52.Which base in place of thymine is present in RNA? (A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Uracil (D) Cytosine

A

(C) (SSC MTS–2013) Exp: RNA (Ribos Nucleic acid) is a heredity material present in some micro organisms. RNA contains a pentose sugar (D-ribose); a molecule of phosphate group and nitrogen base. In RNA, Thymine which pairs with Adenine in DNA is replaced with Uracil.

263
Q

53.Transcription means the synthesis of- (A) Lipids (B) Protein (C) DNA (D) RNA

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Transcription is a process of cellular mechanism in which DNA transcribed in to RNA.

264
Q
  1. Thiamidine dimer formation in DNA is caused by (A) IR-rays (B) X-rays (C) b and g-rays (D) UV-rays
A

(D) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Thiamidine dimer formation in DNA takes places from Thymine bases via photo chemical reaction. Ultraviolet rays to induce the formation of covalent linkages.

265
Q

56.Coupling and repulsion are the two states of: (A) Linkage (B) Chiasma (C) Mutation (D) Crossing over

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: Coupling and Repulsion hypothesis are the two states of linkage. Bateson and Punnett formulated this hypothesis to explain the unexpected results of dihybrid cross. Further T.H. morgan explained this theory while performing experiment with Drosophila in 1910.

266
Q

57.When a single gene controls the expression of more than one character, it is said to be (A) Heterotrophic (B) Autotrophic (C) Allotropic (D) Pleiotropic

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: Pleiotropism is defined as when gene influences multiple, Unrelated phenotypic traits. Pleiotropy describes the genetic effects of a single gene on multiple phenotypic traits.

267
Q

58.Genes are not found in pairs (A) In body cells (B) In ovary after fertilization (C) In gametes (D) In zygotes

A

(C) (SSC CAPFs SI, 2014) Exp: Paired genes are found in somatic cells, Zygote and fertilised ovary because all these cells contains diploid set of chromosome with paired genes, while gemetes of male and female contains haploid set of chromosome with unpaired genes.

268
Q

59.Which of the following Genetically Modified vegetable is recently being made available in Indian market? (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Brinjal (D) Potato

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: Bt Brinjal is a genetically modified crop and is resistance against lepidopteron insects. It was approved for commercialization in India in 2009 but after debate it was banned in India. Bt cotton was available in India from 2002. The state of Maharashtra banned the sale of Bt cotton in 2012.

269
Q

60.The hydrophilic nature of DNA is due to the presence of: (A) Thymine base (B) A number of hydrogen bonds (C) Phosphate group (D) Deoxyribose sugar

A

(C) (SSC CAPFs SI, 2015) Exp: Hydrophilic nature is the attraction of any molecule towards the water and bond formation between them. The negatively charged phosphate group on DNA make bonds with water.

270
Q

61.The gene which exhibites multiple effects is known as: (A) Pseudogene (B) Pleiotropic (C) Complementary (D) Polygene

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Pleiotropic effects are the genes which are capable of producing more than one benefit or single gene affects the number of phenotypic traits. Example of pleiotropic effects is phenylketonuria disease.

271
Q

62.When one gene pair hides the effect of the other unit,the phenomenon is referred to as: (A) Epistasis (B) Mutation (C) None of the options (D) Dominance

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: When one gene hides or masks the effect of the other unit (gene), the phenomena is referred as epistasis. These are effects of mutations with different symptoms.

272
Q

63.People with Down’s syndrome invariably affected by: (A)Huntington’s disease (B)Alzheimer’s disease (C) Meningitis (D) Brain haemorrhage

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality arises due to trisomy of chromosome number 21. Chromosome Number 21 is associated with physical growth, abnormalities in facial feature. Down syndrome also cause the Alzheimer’s disease, which is a type of dementia i.e., memory loss.

273
Q

64.The enzyme which catalyzes the unwinding of DNA helix during replication is: (A) Primase (B) Topoisomerase (C) Helicase (D) DNA polymerase

A

(C) (SSC CPO SI, 2016) Exp: Unwinding of the DNA helix during replication; this process is completed by the enzyme topoisomerase.

274
Q

65.Webbed neck is a characteristic of (A) Down’s syndrome (B) Turner’s syndrome (C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Cri-du-chat syndrome

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Turner syndrome is a chromosomal condition that affects the development in females. In this disease the X chromosome of 23rd pair get completely missing. It affects the development of secondary sexual characteristics with some abnormality like Webbed neck disease.

275
Q

66.Which of the following human genetic disorders is sex-linked? (A) Haemophilia (B) Cystic fibrosis (C) Albinism (D) PKU

A

(A) (SSC CAPFs 2016) Exp: Haemophilia is a sex-Linked genetic disorder, occurs due to the presence of recessive gene for haemophilia on chromosome number 17. The affected person do not generate the clotting substance (Thromboplastin) in blood. This disease is also known as Royal’s disease or Bleeder’s disease.

276
Q

67.DNA shows hyperchromicity on: (A) Heating (B) Cooling (C) Crystallizing (D) Replication

A

(A) (SSC CPO SI, 2015) Exp: Hyperchromacity of DNA is done by heating the DNA strand, which leads to denaturation. Denaturation is the process by which the hydrogen bond get weak and finally break. The hyper chromic effect is the striking increase in absorbance of DNA upon denaturation.

277
Q

68.Which of the following branch of biology is related with study of heredity and variations? (A) Microbiology (B) Immunology (C) Genetics (D) Entomology

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: The biological science which deals with the mechanism of heredity and variations in living organism is known as genetics. Gregor John Mendel is known as father of genetics.

278
Q

69.Which of the following is NOT a vestigial organ in human body? (A) Thymus Gland (B) Wisdom teeth (C) Pharynx (D) Thyroid gland

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Vestigial organs are those organ which have lost their original function but still are present in human body. Ear pinna, wisdom teeth, vermiform appendix, pharynx, tailbone are example of vestigial organ. Thyroid gland is not a vestigial organ.

279
Q

70.For which of the following a ‘Bt’ seed has also been developed? (A) Wheat (B) Maize (C) Cotton (D) Pulses

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Bt (Bacillus thuringiensis) is a bacteria which is used to produce insect resistance crops. These crops are known as genetically modified (GM) crops. Cotton and Brinjal are GM crops.

280
Q

71.Dolly was an example of cloned _____. (A) Dog (B) Cow (C) Sheep (D) Hen

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Dolly was an example of first cloned sheep. Dolly was born on 5 July 1996 in Roslin Institute, Edinburgh, Scotland. It was the first manual cloned from somatic cell.

281
Q

72.Which of the following is a vestigial organ in human body? (A) Wisdom teeth (B) Spleen (C) Thyroid (D) Gall bladder

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Wisdom teeth is a vestigial organ in human body.

282
Q
  1. Who among the following is known as ‘Father of Genetics’? (A) Darwin (B) Mendel (C) Lamarck (D) De Vries
A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Gregor John Mendel is known as ‘Father of Genetics.

283
Q
  1. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in human body? (A) Tailbone (B) Spleen (C) Thyroid (D) Gall bladder
A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Vestigial organs are those organs which are present in an organism but is of no use. Ear pinna, vermiform appendix and tail bone are vestigial organs in hum Tail bone is the final segment of vertebral coloum and is known as coccyx.

284
Q

75.Who among the following gave ‘The Theory of Natural Selection’? (A) Richter (B) Lamarck (C) Darwin (D) Redi

A

“(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Darwin gave the ‘The Theory of Natural Selection’, which stated as ““Natural selection is the ability of ogranisms to survive in the given environment due to phenotypic trait””. It is a key mechanism of evolution.”

285
Q

76.Who among the following gave ‘Theory of Evolution’? (A) Mendel (B) Rutherford (C) Darwin (D) Hooke

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Darwin gave the ‘Theory of Evolution’. Evolution means the evolvement of organs and their traits with a period of time. Darwin is known as ‘Father of Evolution’.

286
Q

77.What is the full form of RNA? (A)Ribonucleic Acid (B)Ribonitric Acid (C)Ribonutrient Acid (D)Reverse Nucleic Acid

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) is the genetic material present in some organism. It is a ploymeric molecule made up of nucleotide with sugar and phosphate backbone

287
Q

78.What is the full form of DNA? (A) Diribo nucleic acid (B) Di nucleic acid (C) Dual nitrogen acid (D) Deoxyribonucleic acid

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: DNA is Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid. It is a genetic heredity material present in organism and is transferred from one generation to next.

288
Q

1.AIDS virus has- (A) Single-stranded RNA (B) Double-stranded RNA (C)Single-stranded DNA (D)Double-stranded DNA

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2000] Exp: AIDS is a sexually transmitted disease by HIV (Human Immune virus). HIV has single - stranded RNA as the genetic material, and infect the host by reverse transcriptase. RNA codes for 9 genes enclosed by 2000 copies of viral protein.

289
Q

2.Some viruses have RNA, but no DNA. This would indicate that- (A) These viruses can not replicate (B) These viruses have no heritable information (C) RNA transmits the hereditary information in these viruses (D) Their nucleic acids can be crystallised

A

(C) [SSC MTS 1999] Exp: On the basis of composition of genetic material there are two categories of virus (i) Adenoviruses-DNA containing (ii) Retroviruses RNA containing, viruses do not contain both DNA and RNA together. In case of retro viruses, RNA contain genetic information which is hereditary in nature.

290
Q

3.Among the defects of eye, the short sight sightedness is called- (A) Coma (B) Hypermetropia (C) Myopia (D) Astigmatism

A

(C) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Short sightedness or myopia is a defect of vision in which far objects appear blurred but near objects are seen clearly. The image is focused in front of the retina rather than on it, usually because the eyeball is too long or the refractive power of the eye’s lens too strong. Myopia can be corrected by concave lens.

291
Q

4.Which of the following is a deficiency disease? (A) Asthma (B) Jaundice (C) Scurvy (D) Cancer

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level 2006] Exp: Scurvy is a disease caused by a diet that lacks Vitamin-C (ascorbic acid). Patients develop anaemia, debilities, exhaustion, edema in some parts of the body and sometimes ulceration in the gums and loss of teeth takes place.

292
Q

5.Which one of the following element is associated with teeth disorder? (A) Chlorine (B) Fluorine (C) Bromine (D) Iodine

A

(B) [SSC CGL 2004] Exp: Fluorine deficiency leads to the disorder of teeth and bone. A lack of fluorides in diet leads to demineralisation of tooth enamel during attack of bacteria’s acid.

293
Q

6.Glaucoma is a disease of the- (A) Skin (B) Lungs (C) Liver (D) Eyes

A

(D) [SSC SO 2003] Exp: Glaucoma is a disease of the eyes. It is a condition where the pressure of the eye remain high due to many condition like migrain, high blood pressure and obesity, optic nerve damage may occur with normal pressure.

294
Q

7.The sleeping sickness is caused by- (A) Escherichia (B) Neisseria (C) Entamoeba (D) Trypanosoma

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) Nov. 2014] Exp: Trypanosoma is a parasitic flagellated protozoa which causes sleeping sickness disease. Trypanosoma alter the shape of RBC which invade the circulatory and lymphatic systems by the parasites and is associated with severe swelling of lymph nodes.

295
Q

8.AIDS virus destroys- (A) Monocytes (B) Neutrophils (C) Basophils (D) Lymphocytes

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: AIDS is an immunity disorder. It is caused by Human Immuno virus (HIV). Virus after entering into the cell transcribe the genetic material from RNA to DNA. DNA forms the enzyme which affect the T-Lymphocyte.

296
Q

9.The causal organism of polio is- (A) Worm (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Virus

A

(D) [SSC CISF, ASI 2013] Exp: Polio is caused by poliomyelitis virus, it is an infectious disease spread by contamination of food and water. It leads into muscles weakening, stiffness and pain. This virus was first identified in 1908 by Erwin Popper and Karl Landstiner. The polio vaccine was developed by John Salk in 1950.

297
Q

10.Haptens are- (A) Antibodies (B) Coantigens (C) Pseudoantigens (D) Incomplete antigens

A

(D) [SSC CISF, ASI 2013] Exp: Haptens are incomplete antigens. Haptens are small molecules, when it combined with a larger molecule such as a protein, can elicit the production of antibodies which bind specifically to it.

298
Q

11.Antibodies are mainly synthesised from (A) Megakaryocyte (B) Monocyte (C) Lymphocyte (D) Histiocyte

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2013] Exp: Antibodies are generated from B-lymphocyte, Lymphocyte is a type of leucocyte (WBC) which helps in immunity system. Antibodies are generated after the entry of foreign particle such as virus and bacteria called as Antigen. Lymphocytes make 25-33% of total leucocyte content.

299
Q

12.Tuberculosis is transmitted through- (A) Droplet Transmission (B) Blood Transfusion (C)Contaminated Water (D) Sexual Contact

A

(A) [SSC (10+2) 2013] Exp: Tuberculosis is communicable infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Tuberculosis affects the lungs mainly and can spread to the other parts. Robert Koch discovered the microbial cause of tuberculosis in 1882. In 2015, 1.8 mn people died from the disease.

300
Q

13.Rabies is a- (A) Helminthic Disease(B) Viral Disease (C) Bacterial Disease(D) Protozoan Disease

A

(B) [SSC CISF, ASI 2013] Exp: Rabies is a viral disease that attacks the central nervous system. The virus is transmitted to humans via bites and scratches from infected animals. It usually takes 4 to 12 weeks. Affected person suffers from Hydrophobia.

301
Q

14.Penicillin was discovered by- (A) Charles Goodyear (B) Michael Faraday (C) Sir Alexander Fleming (D) William Harvey

A

(C) Exp: Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Flemming in 1928. It was first antibiotic to be discovered. Penicillium is effective against many bacterial infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci.

302
Q

15.Dengue is spread by- (A) Housefly (B) Fruitfly (C) Mosquito (D) Butterfly

A

(C) [SSC CISF, ASI 2013] Exp: Dengue is spread by several species of mosquito named as Aedes aegypti. It is caused by dengue virus which develops the symptoms like high fever, headache vomiting, muscles and joint pains. Dengue is also termed as break bone fever.

303
Q

16.Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations can be used for treating oil spills? (A) Agrobacterium (B) Clostridium (C) Nitrosomonas (D) Pseudomonas

A

(D) [SSC MTS 2013] Exp: Bacteria Pseudomonas putida and Thiobacillus Oxidises alkanes with a membrane bound enzyme called alkane-B that form a hydrophobic pocket attractives to hydrocarbon base substance. The enzyme converts oxygen to free radicals responsible for breakdown of trapped substrate and potential substrate include propane, butane and Alkenes.

304
Q

17.Viruses are- (A) Cellular (B) Acellular (C) Unicellular (D) Multicellular

A

(B) [SSC MTS 2013] Exp: Viruses are acellular micro organism. These are infectious agent that replicate their genetic material (either DNA or RNA) inside a host organism. The genetic material is covered by protein coat called capsid.

305
Q

18.All are protozoan diseases except- (A) Elephantiasis (B) Oriental sores (C) Sleeping sickness(D) kala-azar

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2012] Exp: Elephantiasis or lymphatic filariasis is a worm disease caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. These worms damage the Lymphatic system and results in the swelling of arms, legs or genital parts.

306
Q

19.The lockjaw is a pathological condition of- (A) Diphtheria (B) Polio (C) Paralysis (D) Tetanus

A

(D) [SSC (10+2) DEO & LDC 2012] Exp: Lockjaw is a symptom of Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by an infection with the bacterium Clostridium tetani. It enters in the skin through cut or puncture by contaminated objects. Other symptoms include fever, sweating, headache, high blood pressure and fast heart rate.

307
Q

20.Filaria is transmitted by- (A) Aedes Mosquito (B) Anopheles Mosquito (C) Culex Mosquito (D) Swamp Mosquito

A

(C) [SSC FCI 2012] Exp: Filaria is an endoparasitic disease caused by helminthes known as filarial worms. Filaria is transmitted by black flies and culex mosquito. The most spectular symptoms of Lymphatic filariasis is elephantiasis.

308
Q

21.Mycobacterium leprae is a- (A) Bacillus (B) Coccus (C) Spiral (D) Spore

A

(A) [SSC (10+2) 2012] Exp: Mycobacterium leprae is a gram positive Bacillus bacteria. It causes Leprosy (also known as Hansen’s disease), which damages peripheral nerves and effect the skin, nose and muscle.

309
Q

22.The symptoms of jaundice occur mainly due to disorder and malfunction of- (A) Intestine (B) Liver (C) Stomach (D) Pancreas

A

(B) [SSC (10+2) 2009, 2012, Exp: Jaundice is a disease of liver. The hyper secretion of bilirubin from liver results into yellow pigmentation of skin and eyes. High bilirubin level results into increased rate of hemolysis, hepatitis, severe liver failure with cirrhosis.

310
Q

23.The chemical which is used in art and craft and can cause Anaemia and Leukaemia is- (A) Benzene (B) Dioxine (C) Phthalate (D) Aldrin

A

(A) [SSC (10+2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Benzene is a highly toxic substance that can affect DNA, causing chromosome changes and abnormal cell function. Long term exposure to benzene cause the bone marrow to produce fewer blood cells. This results in anaemia or low red blood cell count. The most serious effect of benzene poisoning is leukaemia, which is a cancer of blood producing tissues.

311
Q

24.Meningitis is a disease which affects the- (A) Kidneys (B) Liver (C) Heart (D) Brain

A

(D) [SSC CISF 2011] Exp: Meningitis is an infection of the protective membrane that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. The membrane or meningitis membranes named as duramater, arachnoids and Piamater.

312
Q

25.What causes common cold? (A) Bacteria (B) Fungi (C) Virus (D) Protozoa

A

(C) [SSC CISF 2011] Exp: Common cold is caused by Rhinovirus. It is an infections disease of upper respiratory tract and affects throat, sinuses and voice box. The symptoms of a cold include running nose, nasal congestion, muscle ache, fatigue etc.

313
Q

26.The vector of Kala-Azar is- (A) Anopheles Mosquito (B) Culex Mosquito (C) Tse-Tse Fly (D) Sandfly

A

(D) [SSC (10+2), DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Black fever, or visceral Leishmaniasis or Kala-azar is a deadly disease caused by protozoan Leishmania donovani and spread by sand fly. Parasite migrates to internal organs such as liver, spleen etc.

314
Q

27.Leukaemia or blood cancer is characterised by abnormal increase of the- (A) Red blood cells (B) White blood cells (C) Blood platelets (D) Blood plasma

A

(B) [SSC CPO 2011] Exp: Leukaemia or blood cancer is abnormal increase of the white blood cells. It weakens the immunity system and have symptoms like bleeding and bruising problems, tiredness, fever. Treatment of blood cancer include chemotherapy, radiation therapy and bone marrow transplant.

315
Q

28.Which one of the following is a water borne disease? (A) Diabetes (B) Cholera (C) Smallpox (D) Malaria

A

(B) [SSC CISF 2011] Exp: Cholera is an acute infectious disease caused by contaminated food and water with vibrio cholera bacteria. It is characterised by watery diarrhoea, extreme loss of fluid and electrolyte and severe dehydration.

316
Q

29.The vector of disease sleeping sickness is- (A) Sandfly (B) Housefly (C) Fruitfly (D) Tse-tse fly

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2011] Exp: Sleeping sickness or Trypanosoma or African sleeping sickness is a disease spread by Tse-Tse fly. It is caused by a small parasite Trypansoma gambiens. These parasite are found in intestine and blood stream.

317
Q

30.Penicillin is isolated from- (A) Fungi (B) Algae (C) Virus (D) Bacteria

A

(A) [SSC MTS 2011] Exp: Penicillin (Pen or PCN) is a group of antibiotics derived from fungi. Penicillium. It was the first drug to be effective against many serious diseases. This antibiotic stops the cell wall synthesis among pathogens. It was discovered by Sir Alexander Flemming in 1940.

318
Q

31.Ringworm is disease spread by- (A) Bacterial (B) Protozoan (C) Viral (D) Fungal

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2010] Exp: Ringworm is a common fungal infection that causes a ring like rash on skin. It is caused by fungal genera Trichophyton and Micrococcus.

319
Q

32.Tuberculosis infection is caused by means of- (A) Mycobacterium avonin (B) Staphylococcus (C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) Streptococcus

A

(C) [SSC (10+2), DEO&LDC 2010] Exp: TB is an infectious disease caused by bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. TB affects the lungs primarily and have the symptoms like chronic cough and bloodcontaining sputum, fever and weight loss.

320
Q

33.The disease that is caused by virus is- (A) Typhoid (B) Cholera (C) Common cold (D) Malaria

A

(C) [SSC (10+2) 2010] Exp: Common cold is caused by Rhinovirus. It is an upper respiratory tract infection transmitted by infected air borne droplets or direct contact with infected person.

321
Q

34.Mumps is a viral disease that causes inflammation of- (A) Parotid Gland (B) Sublingual Gland (C) Submaxillary Gland (D) Infra-orbital Gland

A

(A) [SSC Steno. 2010] Exp: Mumps is a contagious disease caused by virus that pass through Saliva, nasal secretion and close personal contact. The condition primarily affects the parotid gland of Salivary gland.

322
Q

35.Which of the following causes malaria? (A) Insect (B) Bacteria (C) Protozoa (D) Virus

A

(C)Exp: Malaria is caused by endoparasitic protozoans of genus plasmodium and transmitted by vector female Anopheles mosquito. Plasmoduim completes its life cycle in two hosts i.e., mosquito and human beings. The infected stage of malaria is called sporozoite.

323
Q

36.Which of the following disease usually spreads through air? (A) Plague (B) Typhoid (C) Tuberculosis (D) Cholera

A

(C) [SSC CPO 2009] Exp: Tuberculosis (TB) is a common infectious disease caused by various strains of mycobacteria. It typically attacks the lungs, but can also affect the other part of the body. It can spread through droplets released during coughing and sneezing of affected person.

324
Q

37.Which one of these is a communicable disease? (A) Diabetes (B) Diphtheria (C) Arthritis (D) Cancer

A

(B) [SSC CPO, -2009, 2000] Exp: Diptheria is a communicable disease caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diptheriae. This disease block the airway and affect the throat. Diptheria includes the complication like Myocarditis, inflammation of nerves, kidney problems and bleeding problems.

325
Q

38.Smallpox is caused by- (A) Rubeola virus (B) Variola virus (C) Varicella (D) Myxovirus

A

(B) [SSC CPO 2009] Exp: Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the variola virus. Smallpox spread from person to person by respiratory droplets or direct contact with body fluid. The incubation period for smallpox is 7 to 17 days.

326
Q

39.Typhoid is caused by- (A) Pseudomonas (B) Staphylococcus (C) Bacillus (D) Salmonella typhi

A

(D) [SSC CPO 2009] Exp: Typhoid is caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi. It is ingested through contaminated water or food Symptoms include abdominal pain, constipation and diarrhoea. It affects the digestive system. Treatment of disease is done by drugs such as azithromycin, fluroquinolones and chloramphenicol.

327
Q

40.Which one of the following pair is correctly matched? (A) Tetanus: BCG (B) Tuberculosis: ATS (C) Malaria: Chloroquine (D) Scurvy: Thiamin

A

(C) [SSC (10+2), DEO&LOC 2008, 2001] Exp: Malaria is a Mosquito-borne disease caused by Plasmodium parasite. Chloroquinone is a drug used in treatment and prevention of malaria. It is obtained from bark of Cinchona plant and was discovered in 1934 by Hans Andersage. It was first named as Resochin.

328
Q

41.Yellow fever is transmitted by- (A) Aedes (B) Anopheles (C) Hosefly (D) Culex

A

(A) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Yellow fever is a viral disease spread by mosquito. It is characterized by a high fever and jaundice. The Flavivirus cause yellow fever and it is transmitted from the bite of infected aedes mosquito.

329
Q

42.Tetanus is caused by- (A) Clostridium (B) Virus (C) Bacteriophage (D) Salmonella

A

(A) [SSC CPO 2008] Exp: Tetanus also called lockjaw, is a serious infection caused by clostridium tetani. This bacteria produces a toxin that affects the brain and nervous system. Leading to stiffness in the muscles. Infection can cause severe muscle spasms and breathing difficulties.

330
Q

43.The vaccination against smallpox involves the introduction of- (A) Killed germs (B) Weakened germs (C) Live antibodies (D) Germs

A

(B) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Vaccination is process in which the inactive or attenuated pathogen are introduced in the body. It provide acquired immunity to particular disease. The first vaccination was prepared by Edward Jenner against cow pox.

331
Q

44.Pick out the disease among the following- (A) Hepatitis (B) Meningitis (C) Arthritis (D) Nephritis

A

(A) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Hepatitis is an inflammation of liver. It is commonly caused by a viral infection viral infection of the liver that are classified as hepatitis include hepatitis A, B, C, D and E.

332
Q

45.AIDS is a/an- (A) Bacterial Disease (B) Viral Disease (C) Fungal Disease (D) Algal Disease

A

(B) [SSC Tax Asst. 2008] Exp: AIDS is a viral disease which suppress the immunity system of the affected person. It is caused by infection of HIV, which gets replicate inside the host body and kill all the T-lymphocyte present in blood.

333
Q

46.Pellagra and Scurvy are caused by which pair of vitamin deficiency respectively _______. (A) Vitamin C and Vitamin D (B) Vitamin B3 and Vitamin C (C) Vitamin C and Vitamin A (D) Vitamin A and Vitamin B12

A

(B) Exp: Pellagra disease caused by the deficiency vitamin B3, (Niacin) which cause inflammation skin, diarrhoea, dementia etc. Scurvy disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C cause weakness, feeling tired.

334
Q

47.What does the term ‘Ebola’ stand for? (A) A viral disease outbreak in West Africa (B) A viral disease outbreak in Bangladesh (C) A city in Syria destroyed by ISIS. (D) None of the these

A

(A) Exp: Ebola is a virus that cause viral hemorrhagic fever hum Ebola outbreaks occurred in remote villages in central Africa, near tropical rain forest.

335
Q

48.The virus of AIDS affects the growth of_________. (A) Haemoglobin (B) RBCs in blood (C) T cells in blood (D) Grey cells in brain

A

(C) Exp: AIDS - Acquired Immuno deficiency syndrome is caused by infection with the Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV). The virus affect the T cell in blood.

336
Q

49.If waste materials contaminate the source of drinking water, which of the following diseases will spread? (A) Scurvy (B) Typhoid (C) Malaria (D) Anaemia

A

(B) Exp: Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused by salmonella typhi which are present in contaminated drinking water, waste material.

337
Q

50.Diabetes is caused by (A) Excess of insulin (B) Low production of Insulin (C) Malfunction of liver (D) Higher production of bilirubin

A

(B) Exp: A person with diabetes has a condition in which the quantity of glucose in the blood is too elevated (hyperglycemia). This is because the body either does not produce enough insulin, produces no insulin or has cells that do not respond properly to the insulin that pancreas produces.

338
Q

51.Pneumonia affects which of the following organs of human body?(A) Kidneys (B) Lungs (C) Throat (D) Liver

A

(B) Exp: Pneumonia is an inflammatory condition of the alveoli present in lungs. It can be caused by bacteria, virus or fungi. The alveoli filled with fluid makes it difficult to breathe. The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumonia.

339
Q

52.Mesothelioma is a type of cancer. The most common area affected in it is the lining of the _____. (A) Heart (B) Brain (C) Stomach (D) Lungs

A

(D) Exp: Mesothelioma is a rare form of cancer that develops in the linings of the lungs People who are exposed to asbestos have the highest risk of developing the disease. There is no cure for this disease.

340
Q

53.Which type of pathogen causes the waterborne disease E. coli Infection? (A) Protozoan (B) Parasitic (C) Bacterial (D) Viral

A

(C) Exp: E.coli (Escherichia coli) is the name of germ or bacterium that lives in digestive tracts of human and animals. Some strains of E. Coli bacteria can cause water borne disease such as diarrhoea and can cause urinary tract infections.

341
Q

54.Which type of pathogen causes the waterborne disease HepatitisA? (A) Parasitic (B) Viral (C) Protozoan (D) Bacterial

A

(D) Exp: Hepatitis is a viral disease. It is the inflammation of liver tissues which results into vomiting, poor appetite, abdominal pain or diarrhea. Chronic hepatitis may even results into liver failure.

342
Q

55._____is a condition in which there is a deficiency of red cells or of haemoglobin in the blood. (A) Albinism (B) Propyria (C) Anaemia (D) Keloid disorder

A

(C) Exp: Anaemia is a medical condition in which the bone marrow fails to produce the RBC in blood. This is a iron deficiency disease where the body becomes deficient of oxygen due to the low level of hemoglobin.

343
Q

56._____is a drug that makes your heart work more slowly, used for treating high blood pressure. (A) Contraceptive (B) BetaBlocker (C) Depressant (D) Enema

A

(B) Exp: Beta Blockers are the drugs that block norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenalin) from nerves. This helps in lowering the high blood pressure and mask the symptoms of low blood glucose (Hypoglycemia)

344
Q

57.Which of the following disease is caused due to the deficiency of protein? (A) Arthritis (B) Kwashiorkor (C) Goitre (D) Night Blindness

A

(B) Exp: Kwashiorkor and marasmus are protein deficiency disorder. The extreme lack of protein causes an osmotic imbalance in the gastro - intestinal system, causing swelling of gut. It is diagnosed as an edema or retention of water.

345
Q

58.Which disease is caused due to deficiency of Iron? (A) Beriberi (B) Tetany (C) Kwashiorkor (D) Anaemia

A

(D) Exp: Deficiency of Iron cause the disease Anaemia. Anaemia is blood platelets disorder in which bone marrow fails to produce enough RBC. Iron is the central metal of Hemoglobin chain.

346
Q

59.Carcinogenic chemicals cause (A) Heart diseases (B) Diabetes (C) Cancer (D) Asthma

A

(C) Exp: Carcinogenic chemicals are these substances which stimulate the abnormal division of cells and leads to cancer. Cancer is caused by changes in cell’s DNA.

347
Q

60.The disease caused by Asbestos is: (A) Emphysema (B) Paralysis (C) Diarrhoea (D) Dysentery

A

(A) (SSC CGL 1999) Exp: Emphysema is a long term, progressive disease of lungs. It is the over-inflation (presence of air) of Alveoli which results in shortness of breathing. Emphysema is included in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and also called as obstructive lungs disease

348
Q

61.’ELISA’ test is employed to diagnose: (A) Polio virus (B) AIDS antibodies (C) Tuberculosis bacterium (D) Cancer

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2000) Exp: ‘ELISA’ is enzyme linked Immuno Sorbent Assay. It is an Antigen Antibody binding reaction and is designed for detecting and quantifying substances such as peptides, proteins, antibody and hormones, ELISA test is used to detect the AIDS antibodies.

349
Q

62.Kidney disease in man is caused bu the pollutant: (A) Cadmium (B) Iron (C) Cobalt (D) Carbon

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2000) Exp: Cadmium (cd) in a toxic pollutant released from industries. Inhalation of cadmium laden dust quickly leads to respiratory tract and kidney problems. It may results into renal failure by accumulating in the proximal tubular cells.

350
Q

63.Why excessive heating and repeated use of cooking oil is most undesirable? (A) The oil vapours can cause indoor pollution (B) Carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene are produced (C) Nutrient value of food is lost (D) Loss and wastage of oil

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2000) Exp: Excessive heating of oil leads to changes in physical appearances, viscosity and may alter the fatty acid composition of oil. Heating of oil undergoes a series of chemical reactions like oxidation, hydrolysis and polymerization Repeated use of cooking oil forms the carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene.

351
Q

64.A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken driving uses: (A) Potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid (B) Potassium perma-nganatesulphuric acid (C) Turmeric on filter paper (D) Sillica gel coated with silver nitrate

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2000) Exp: ‘Breath test’ is used to identify the presence of alcohol in a person’s body. It estimate the blood alcohol concentration (BAC). Potassium dichromate is an oxidizing agent and used in breath test because it oxidized alcohol.

352
Q

65.Tyhoid fever is caused by- (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Allergy

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Typhoid is an infection disease caused by bacteria Salmonella typhimurium. Major symptoms of typhoid are fever and rashes with abdominal pain and vomiting. It is treated by Azithromycin and Ciprofloxacin.

353
Q

66.Which was the first antibiotic- (A) Terramycin (B) Neomycin (C) Penicillin (D) Streptomycin

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2002) Exp: Penicillin is the first antibiotic to be prepared. Penicillin was prepared from fungus penicillium notatum in 1928 by scientist Alexander Fleming. Penicillin is effective against the infection of staphylococci and streptococci.

354
Q

67.Locked jaw disorder is the other name of the disease (A) Tetanus (B) Muscular disorder (C) Typhoid (D) Filariasis

A

(A) (SSC Tax Assistant 2004) Exp: Locked jaw disorder is the other name by disease tetanus. Tetanus is a bacterial disease that affects the nervous system. The infection cause sever muscle spasm, leading to locking of the jaw, which makes it hard to open mouth and swallow.

355
Q

68.Which of the following tests helps in diagnosis of cancer? (A) Urine test (B) Blood test (C) Biopsy (D) X-Ray

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2005) Exp: Biopsy is an examination of tissues removed from a living body to discover the presence, cause, or extent of a disease, diagnosis of cancer is done by biopsy test.

356
Q

69.The causative organism of dengue fever is (A) Fungus (B) Bacteria (C) Protozoa (D) Virus

A

(D) (SSC Section Officer 2005) Exp: Dengue is an infectious viral disease transmitted by vector aedes mosquito, symptoms of Dengue are decreased level of platelets, muscles pain, swallow lymph nodes, fever and rashes.

357
Q

70.Which from the following diseases usually spreads through milk? (A) Tuberculosis (B) Jaundice (C) Diphtheria (D) Cholera

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2005) Exp: Tuberculosis is a chronic lung infection caused by bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Tuberculosis disease usually spread through milk, if the cattle too suffered from tuberculosis bacteria mycobacterium bovid.

358
Q

71.Insects responsible for transmitting diseases are called (A) Vector (B) Transmitter (C) Drones (D) Conductor

A

(A) (SSC Tax Assistant 2005) Exp: Vectors are insects which are responsible for transmitting diseases. These vector transmit the in infectious stage from causing agent of the host

359
Q

.72. Which of the following is effective against tuberculosis? (A) Penicillin (B) Chloromycetin (C) Terramycin (D) Streptomycin

A

(D) (SSC Tax Assistant 2005) Exp: Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic produced by bacteria Streptomyces grisemycin. Streptomycin is injected in muscles and is the first antibiotic against tuberculosis.

360
Q

72.Tamiflu is frontline drug against (A) Bird flu (B) Cancer (C) AIDS (D) Polio

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Tamiflu (Oseltamivir) is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza virus and a drug against bird flu. Tamiflu have rare side effects and symptoms like sudden confession, shaking, problem with speech, hallucination etc.

361
Q

73.Which among the following is used in the treatment of tuberculosis? (A) Penicillin (B) Aspirin (C) Paracetamol (D) Dettol

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Penicillin is an antibiotic, drug used against infectious disease of bacteria such as staphylococci, streptococci and clostridium Penicillin kills the bacteria without harming the host body. Tuberculosis (TB) is treated with antibiotics such as isoniazid, rifampicin and penicillin.

362
Q

74.Which part of human body is first highly affected by nuclear radiation? (A) Eyes (B) Lungs (C) Skin (D) Bone Marrow

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Skin of human body is highly affected by nuclear radiations and cause skin cancer. Short terms effects of radiations are damage of germinal layer and results of blistering and ulceration.

363
Q

75.Cancer is a disease where we find uncontrolled (A) Cell division (B) Cell swelling (C) Cell inflammation (D) Cell deformity

A

(A) (SSC Section Officer 2006) Exp: Cancer is the resultant of uncontrolled cells division. On the basis of their invasion and spread, cancer are divided into two types; Benign and Malign tumor. Symptoms of cancer are weight loss, bowel movements, prolonged cough.

364
Q

76.Triple vaccine is administered to a new born child to immunize it against (A) Whooping cough, tetanus and measles (B) Whooping cough, tetanus and diptheria (C) Tetanus, diphtheria, measles and rubella (D) Tetanus, diphtheria, small pox and rubella

A

(B) (SSC Section Officer 2006) Exp: Triple vaccine (DPT) is a class of combined vaccines against infections named as diphtheria, Pertussis (whooping cough) and Tetanus. The vaccination includes inactive pathogens to induce immunity.

365
Q

77.Which one of the following is not a mosquito brone disease? (A) Dengue fever (B) Filariasis (C) Sleeping sickness (D) Malaria

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer 2007) Exp: Sleeping sickness or African trypanosomes is an insect borne disease caused by Trypanosoma brucei. It is an endoparasite protozoan which destruct the shape of RBC and the resultant is clog in vessels and effects the circulatory and lymphatic system.

366
Q

78.Which of the following is not transmitted via blood transfusion? (A) Hepatitis (B) Typhoid (C) HIV (D) Malaria

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2007) Exp: Typhoid is a bacterial-borne disease caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi in contaminated water and food. Symptoms of typhoid are abdominal pain, constipation and diarrhoea. Typhoid is treated with Azithromycin, Fluoroqueinolones and Cephalosporin.

367
Q

79.Jaundice is a symptom of disease of (A) Kidney (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Thyroid

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Jaundice is a symptom of Liver infection disease. Jaundice is resultant of high bilirubin secretion from liver cells. Jaundice is also known as icterus.

368
Q

80.Which one of the following is a viral disease in man? (A) Mumps (B) plague (C) Cholera (D) Syphillis

A

(A) (SSC Section Officer 2008) Exp: Mumps is a contagious disease caused by virus from one person to another mumps are affected by salivary glands also called parotid glands.

369
Q

81.Anaemia occurs due to the deficiency of (A) Riboflavin (B) Thiamine (C) Folic acid (D) Niacin

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Deficiency of folic acid is known to cause anaemia. Folic acid is a type of vitamin B, found in supplement and fortified foods. Folic acid helps to produce and maintain new cells.

370
Q

82.Amoebic dysentery is caused by (A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Salmonella typhi (C) E. coli (D) Streptococcus pyogenes

A

(A) (SSC Tax Assistant 2008) Exp: Amoebic dysentery is an infection of the small intestine caused by amoeba Entamoeba hisolytica. It is spread by contaminated food and water. Incubation period of disease is 10 days after which symptoms like nausea, stomach pain, high temperature, chilling and weight loss.

371
Q

83.The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis? (A) Copper (B) Lead(C) Mercury (D) Zinc

A

(A) (SSC Tax Assistant 2009) Exp: Cirrhosis is the scarring of the liver caused by longterm liver damage Cirrhosis results into the replacement of liver tissues by fibrosis. Long term consumption of liver result into inflammation of liver. Toxicity of copper metals leads to liver cirrhosis.

372
Q

84.BCG immunization is for (A) Measles (B) Tuberculosis (C) Diphtheria (D)Leprosy

A

(B) (SSC Tax Assistant 2009) Exp: BCG immunization is used against tuberculosis BCG (Bacillus Calmette- Guerin) vaccine was first used in 1921 and is the only immunotherapy available for tuberculosis.

373
Q

85.Which one of these is a communicable disease? (A) Diabetes (B) Diphtheria (C) Arthritis (D) Cancer

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2009) Exp: Diptheria is an infectious communicable disease. Diptheria is caused by bacteria Corynebacterium diptheriae. Diptheria affects the nose and throat. The treatment of diphtheria involves administration of antibiotics.

374
Q

86.The concentration of which of the following decrease in anaemia? (A) Haemoglobin (B) Collagen (C) Hyoglobin (D) Myosin

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2009) Exp: Anaemia is a medical condition of the RBC deficiency in blood. It results in decreased haemoglobin and this lowerd the ability of blood to carry oxygen. Anaemia can occur due to blood loss, decreased red blood cell and increased red blood cell breakdown.

375
Q

87.Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air? (A) Plague (B) Typhoid (C) Tuberculosis (D) Cholera

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2009) Exp: Tuberculosis is an airborne disease. It caused by infectious agent Mycobacterium tuberculosis through cough, spit, sneeze of active TB person.

376
Q
  1. Ringworm is a …………. disease. (A) Bacterial (B) Protozoan (C) Viral (D) Fungal
A

(D) (SSC CGL 2010) Exp: Ringworm is a fungal disease caused by species of fungus named as Trichophyton, Microsperum and Epidermatophyton. Ringworm causes red rashes and patches on skin.

377
Q

90.Amoebiasis is causing (A) Dysentery (B) Fever (C) Severe cold (D) Headache and cold

A

(A) (SSC CML-1999) Exp: Amoebiasis is refers to infection caused by Entamoeba histolytica. Symptoms range from mild diarrhoea to severe dysentery with blood and mucus. Amoeba completes its life cycle in the large intestine.

378
Q

91.High level of uric acid in the blood causes (A) Arthritis (B) Gout (C) Rheumatism (D) Asthma

A

(B) (SSC CML-2002) Exp: High level of uric acid in the blood cause the disease Gout. Gout is an inflammatory autoimmune form of arthritis. Uric acid get deposit in joints, tendons and tissues. It leads to the swallowing and pain of joints

379
Q

92.A disease caused by Protozoa is (A) Common cold (B) Pneumonia (C) Malaria (D) Cholera

A

(C) (SSC CML-2002) Exp: Malaria is caused by protozoan, Plasmodium. Three species commonly known to cause Malaria are Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax and P. Malariae.

380
Q

93.The radioactive Stronitum-90 cause: (A) Brain cancer (B) Skin cancer (C) Lung cancer (D) Bone cancer

A

(B) (SSC MTS-2011) Exp: Strontium 90 is a radioactive isotope of strontium. It causes skin cancer. It is released during the nuclear fission reaction in nuclear power plants.

381
Q

94.All are protozoan diseases except (A) Elephantiasis (B) Oriental sores (C) Sleeping sickness (D) Kala-azar

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2012) Exp: Elephantiasis disease is caused by parasitic worm Wuchereria bancrofti. It is also known as Lymphatic filariasis.

382
Q

95.Immunisation is a phenomenon of formation of antibodies by using inactive (A) Antigens (B) Antibodies (C) Chemicals (D) Blood

A

(A) (SSC FCI Assistant 2012) Exp: Immunisation is a process where, a person is made resistant to an infectious agent. This phenomena includes the formation of antibodies by using inactive antigens. It is a kind of passive immunization.

383
Q

96.In our body, antibodies are formed against pathogens in (A) Liver by RBC (B) Blood by platelets (C) Brain by macrophages (D) Thymus by lymphocytes

A

(D) (SSC DPSI 2012) Exp: Antibodies are formed against pathogens in thymus by lymphocytes. Thymus is an endocrine gland which is responsible for the immunity as it matures T lymphocytes. It is the only organ which gets decrease in size with increase in age.

384
Q

97.Which of the following can be used for biological control of mosquitoes? (A) DDT (B) Gambusia (C) Oil (D) Ointments

A

(B) (SSC MTS-2013) Exp: Biological control of mosquito population is Gambusia fish. It is a predator fish who feed on mosquito larvae.

385
Q

98.Malaria is transmitted from one person to another by: (A) Aedes Mosquito (B) Culex Mosquito (C) Anopheles Mosquito(D) All of the above

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Malaria is caused by plasmodium species and transmitted from one person to another by Anopheles mosquito.

386
Q

99.Leech is an ectoparasite on cattle which is (A) Carnivorous (B) Omnivorous (C) Sanguivorous (D) Herbivorous

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Leech is an ectoparasite sanguivorous (feeds on blood) feeds on cattle which is herbivore (feeds on plants).

387
Q

100.Match correctly the insect vectors in List I with the diseases transmitted by them given in List II: List I List II A. Anopheles (female) 1. Kala-azar B. Culex 2. Sleeping sickness C. Sand fly 3. Filariasis D. Tse-tse fly 4. Malaria A B C D (A) 1 4 2 3 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 4 3 1 2

A

(D) (SSC (10+2) -2013) Exp: Female anopheles mosquito is a vector for malaria. Culex mosquito causes filariasis.

388
Q

101.Myopia is a disease conncted with (A) Lungs (B) Brain (C) Ears (D) Eyes

A

(D) (SSC MTS-2014) Exp: Myopia or near sightedness is a disease of eyes. It is corrected by concave lens.

389
Q

102.Which one of the following types of malaria is pernicious malaria? (A) Vivax (B) Ralapse (C) Tertian (D) Malignant

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2014) Exp: Pernicious malaria is caused by Plasmodium glaciparum. It is an infectious disease caused by protozoan P. Flaciparum. It is also called as malignant malaria.

390
Q

103.Which one of the following is the infective stage of the Malarial Parasite? (A) Schigozoite (B) Trophozoite (C) Sporoblast (D) Sporozoite

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Sporozoite is the infectious stage of Malaria. Humans are the secondary host of Malarial disease and develops the male and female gametophyte in blood. These male and female gamete fused to form Zygote or sporozoite in mosquito which acts as primary host.

391
Q

104.In B.C.G. Vaccine the word ‘C’ stands for: (A) Calmatte (B) Cough (C) Chlorine (D) Cadmium

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: In BCG vaccine word C stands for clamatte. It is a vaccination used against tuberculosis.

392
Q

105.The disease which has been eradicated: (A) Mumps (B) Measles (C) Small pox (D) Chicken pox

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Small pox is one of the infectious disease which has been eradicated completely. Small pox is caused by variola virus.

393
Q

106.Which endocrine gland is found in chest cavity? (A) Pineal gland (B) Thymus gland (C) Adrenal gland (D) Thyroid gland

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Thymus gland is situated in the chest cavity. Thymus gland release hormones and helps in the immunity system. It plays an important role for the maturation, training and development of T-Lymphocytes.

394
Q

107.Which cell disorder in our body is responsible for colour blindness? (A) WBC (B) Cone cell (C) Red Cell (D) Neuron

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Colour blindness is an heredity disease, results from the non functioning or absence of cone cells. Cone cells are present in retina of the human eye.

395
Q

108.Which part of human body is affected by the ALZHEIMER’S disease? (A) Heart (B) Kidney (C) Immune System (D) Brain

A

(D) (SSC CPO SI, 2016) Exp: Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that affects the memory, thinking and behaviour of the person. It is a neurological disorder in which the brain cell continuously die and caused cognitive decline.

396
Q

109.Haematopoiesis take place in (A) Lungs (B) Pancreas (C) Liver (D) Bone marrow

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Haematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation. These are known ad pluripotent stem cells, which can replicate themselves and differentiated into different platelets.

397
Q

110.Increased RBC’s in the blood leads to a condition called (A) Anaemia (B) Haemophilia (C) Polycythemia (D) Leukaemia

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2016) Exp: Polycythemia is a medical condition and termed as slow-growing blood cancer where bone marrow produces a higher number of RBC than required. The excess RBC increase the viscosity of blood and can lead to heart attacks.

398
Q

111.Siderosis is a disease caused by the inhalation of (A) Silica dust (B) Iron dust (C) Zinc dust (D) Coal dust

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Siderosis is a lung disorder, caused by breathing in or inhaling iron dust. It is an occupational lung disorder. Siderosis also known as Welder’s lung.

399
Q

112.Which of the following is a communicable disease? I. Malaria II. Tuberculosis III. Measles (A) Only II (B) Both I and III (C) Both II and III (D) Only III

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Communicable disease are those diseases which spread through air, water or infected person. Tuberculosis and measles are communicable disease.

400
Q

113.Which of the following is a genetic disease? (A) Down syndrome (B) Elephantisis (C) Asthama (D) Night blindness

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Genetic disorder are the resultant of chromosomal aberration. Down syndrome is the trisomy of chromosome number 21. Chromosome number 21 is responsible for facial formation.

401
Q

114.Who among the following is known as ‘Father of Medicine’? (A) Darwin (B) Hippocrates (C) Heckle (D) Edward Jenner

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Hippocrate a Greek physician, is known as ‘Father of Medicine’. Hippocrate was the first person to categorise disease according to the symptoms and classify them as acute, chronic, endemic and epidimic.

402
Q

115.Chicken Pox is caused by which microorganism? (A) Bacteria (B) Fungus (C) Protozoa (D) Virus

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Chicken Pox is caused by virus Varicella zosters. It is a highly communicable disease which results in skin rash and itchy blisters.

403
Q

116.Which of the following is a water borne disease? (A) Malaria (B) Typhoid (C) Measles (D) Chickenpox

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Typhoid is a water borne disease, caused by bacteria Salmonella typhi. It is spread by contaminated water and food. Typhoid affects the digestive system by causing abdominal pain & constipation.

404
Q

117.Disease-causing micro-organisms are called …………. (A) Antibiotics (B) Carriers (C) Pathogens (D) Antigens

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Pathogens are the disease causing micro-organisms. They are the infectious agent including viruses, bacteria, protozoans, fungus. Pathogen interrupts the physiological and metabolic system of the host.

405
Q

118.Which of the following instrument is used to measure Soil Water Tension? (A) Photometer (B) Pyrometer (C) Psychrometer (D) Tensiometer

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Tensiometer measures the metric water potential (ym). It is also used in irrigation scheduling.

406
Q

119.Which metal is responsible for Itai-Itai disease? (A) Cadmium (B) Nickel (C) Chromium (D) Mercury

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Cadmium metal cause the disease Itai-Itai. It leads to pain in joints and spine. This disease was caused by cadmium poisioning due to mining in Toyama prefecture. The disease first appeard in 1912.

407
Q
  1. Who discovered the Cholera causing germ? (A) Filippo Pacini (B) Robert Koch (C) M. Laveran (D) Felix Hoffman
A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: The German bacteriologist, Robert Koch studied the cholera disease and discovered the microbe bacteria Vibrio cholera.

408
Q

120.Which of the following disease is caused by female Anopheles mosquito? (A) Chicken Pox (B) Malaria (C) Black Fever (D) Cholera

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease affecting hum Female anopheles mosquito is responsible for malaria disease. Symptoms of malaria include, fever, tiredness, vomiting and headaches. Symptoms usually start 10-15 days after being bitten.

409
Q

121.Which metal is responsible for Itai-Itai disease? (A) Cadmium (B) Nickel (C) Chromium (D) Mercury

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Cadmium metal cause the disease Itai-Itai. It leads to pain in joints and spine. This disease was caused by cadmium poisioning due to mining in Toyama prefecture. The disease first appeard in 1912.

410
Q

122.Who discovered malaria causing germs? (A) Christiaan Bernard (B) Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran (C) Dmitry Ivanovsky (D) Martinus William Beijerinck

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Malaria is a mosquito - borne infectious disease affecting human. Charles louis alphonse Laveran was a french physician who won the Nobel Prize in physiology or medicine in 1907 for his discoveries of parasitic protozoan as causative aqents of infectious disease such as malaria.

411
Q

123.Who discovered bacteria? (A) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek (B) Robert Brown (C) Robert Hook (D) Robert Koch

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Bacteria constitute a large domain of prokaryotic micro-organisms. Bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods & spirals. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was a dutch scientist. He is also known as the ‘Father of Microbiology’. He discovered the first living cell and named it as bacteria.

412
Q

124.Which of the following micro-organism causes diseases like polio and chicken pox? (A) Bacteria (B)Protozoa (C) Algae (D)Virus

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Virus cause the disease polio and chicken pox. Polio is an infections disease caused by poliovirus, Symptoms of the disease are muscle weakness and bone deformaties. Chicken pox is a highly contagious disease cause the small, itchy blister. Chicken pox is an airborne disease which spread through cough and sneeze of an infected person.

413
Q

125.UV rays coming from Sun, majorly causes which cancer? (A) Lungs cancer (B) Liver cancer (C) Mouth cancer (D) Skin cancer

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Ultra violet rays coming from sun, cause the skin cancer. Skin cancer is the most common form of cancer, where the cells in epidermal layer forms the undifferenteated mass of cells. There are threee types of skin cancer(i) Basal cell carcinoma (ii) squamous cell carcinoma (iii) melanome.

414
Q

126.Which disease is caused by Nickel? (A) Itai Itai (B) Dermatitis (C) Learning disability (D) Asthma

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Nickel cause the allergy called dermatitis. It is an itchy rash that appears when skin touches a harmful substance containing nickel.

415
Q

127.Which component in tobacco makes it harmful for human consumption? (A) Morphine (B) Nicotine (C) Heroin (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Nicotine is a nitrogen containing chemical alkaloid. Nicotine is found in all tobacco products. It is a highly addictive drug that acts in the brain and nervous system.

416
Q

128.Albert Sabin is known for developing _____. (A) Smallpox vaccine (B) Polio vaccine (C) Penicillin (D) Hepatitis B vaccine

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Albert Sabin is known for developeing polio vaccine. Polio is a viral desease caused by Myxovirus. It affects the muscles resulting in inability to move.

417
Q

129.Minamata disease is a nervous disorder caused by eating fish, polluted with _____ . (A) Iron (B) Mercury (C) Lead (D) Nickel

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Minamata disease is caused by contaminated water and fish with mercury. It is a nervous disorder. The disease was discovered in 1956.

418
Q

130.Night Blindness is caused by deficiency of which of the following Vitamin? (A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin A

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Vitamin A (Retinol) cause the night blindness.

419
Q

131.Who discovered Penicillin? (A) Edward Jenner (B) Niels Bohr (C) Sir Alexander Fleming(D) Heinrich Hertz

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Sir Alexander Fleming

420
Q

132.Who discovered Insulin? (A) Sir Alexander Fleming (B) Frederick Banting (C) James Watt (D) Sir F.G. Hopkins

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Insulin was discovered by canadian physician frederick Banting. Banting and Macleod shared the noble prize in 1923 for physiology or medicine for being discoverer of insulin. Insulin is secreted from b cells of pancreas and helps to maintain the concetration of glucose in the blood.

421
Q

133.Anaemia is caused because of deficiency of which of the following? (A) Cobalt (B) Iron (C) Sodium (D) Calcium

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Deficiency of Iron cause the disease anaemia. Anaemia is common in females than males. Deficiency of Iron lowers the haemoglobin formation in blood. Anaemia results in the fatigueness, bloods loss, decreased number of red blood cells.

422
Q

134.Which of the following disease is noncommunicable in nature? (A) Cholera (B) Chicken-pox (C) Tuberculosis (D) Cancer

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Non scommunicable are those disease which are of long duration and with slow progression. Four main type of noncommunicable disease cardiovascular disease(heart attack), Cancer chronic respiratory disease and diabetes.

423
Q

135.Edward Jenner discovered vaccine for which of the following disease? (A) Polio (B) Tuberculosis (C) Small Pox (C) Rabies

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Edward Jenner, a physician and scientist discovered first vaccine in 1796. The first vaccine was made against the disease small pox.

424
Q

1.Bee-keeping is known as- (A) Sericulture (B) Apiculture (C) Aquaculture (D) Agriculture

A

(B) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: Apiculture or Bee keeping is the practice of rearing bees, maintaining honeybees colonies, manufacturing of honey. Apiary is the place where honey bees are reared and Apiarist is the person who perform apiculture.

425
Q

2.Which one of the following is related to silviculture? (A) Culture of Hilsa (B) Culture of silver carp (C) Culture of oil-producing plants (D) Forest crops

A

(D) [SSC Tax Asst. 2007] Exp: Silviculture is the practice of controlling the establishment, growth, composition, health and quality of forests and woodlands to meet the diverse needs and values of society.

426
Q

3.The duration of 19-21 days refers to- (A) Incubation period of hen’s egg (B) Average life-span of a red blood cell in humans (C) The period of menstrual cycle soon after menstruation, during which fertilisation is most likely to occur (D) Period of completion of one schizogony cycle of malarial parasite inside a red blood cell

A

(C) [SSC (10+2) DEO & LDC 2011] Exp: Menstrual cycle is the period of 28 days in females, during which the ovaries matures the ovum and release it for fertilisation on 14th day. The duration of 19-21 days is the most unsafe period because during this period there are chance of ovum to maximum get fertilised if sperms enters the fallopian tube.

427
Q

4.A potato tuber has been cut into two halves. A few drops of iodine solution are placed on the cut surface of one of the halves. What colour change will be noticed? (A) From brown to blue-black (B) From brown to orange-red (C) From blue to pink (D) From pink to blue-green

A

(A) [SSC (10+2) DEO & LDC 2008] Exp: Iodine solution test is done for the presence of starch any form of carbohydrate turns blue-black when exposed with iodine solution. The brown colour of aqueous solution of triiodide anion form the intermolecular charge transfer comples.

428
Q

5.The medical term used for the sleeplessness is- (A) Somnambulism (B) Insomnia (C) Hallucination (D) Nyctinuria

A

(B) [SSS CGL 2008] Exp: Sleepness or lack of sleep disorder is the medical condition called as Insomnia that can make it hard to fall asleep, and to stay asleep. Many person experiences short term (acute) insomnia or long-term (chronic) insomnia.

429
Q

6.The science dealing with the study of teeth is- (A) Odontology (B) Ornithology (C) Phenology (D) Cosmology

A

(A) [SSC CGL 2007] Exp: Odontology is the scientific study of structure, development and abnormalities of teeth. The study include teeth and their surrounding tissues especially the prevention and cure of the disease.

430
Q

7.The Study of newly born up to the age of 3 months is called- (A) Chorology (B) Conchology (C) Nematology (D) Neonatology

A

(D) [SSC Tax Asst. 2007] Exp: Neonatology is the branch of paediatrics that includes the medical care of newly born upto the age of 3 months. The medical condition includes the prematurity, low birth weight congenital or genetic defects etc.

431
Q

8.The study of visceral organs is- (A) Angiology (B) Arthrology (C) Anthrology (D) Splanchnology

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2007] Exp: Splanchnology is the study of visceral org Viscera are the soft muscular organs of the body including digestive, urinary, respiratory and reproductive.

432
Q

9.What is an Endoscope? (A) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal (B) It is a device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularise the irregular heart beats (C) It is an instrument used for Examining ear disorders (D) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by human muscles

A

(A) [SSC SO 2007] Exp: An Endoscope is a device, with a light attached at one point that is used to look inside a body cavity or organ. This in inserted in body through an natural opening, such as mouth or rectum.

433
Q

10.The Substances which are used to bring down the temperature in high fever condition are called- (A) Antiseptics (B) Pyretics (C) Antipyretics (D) Antibiotics

A

(C)Exp: Antipyretic are the drugs used to lower body temperature in high fever condition. There are 3 classes of antipyretic; Salicylates (aspirin), Acetaminophen (Tylenol) and Nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) (Ibuprofen).

434
Q

11.The first effective vaccine against polio was prepared by- (A) JH Gibbon (B) Jonas E Salk (C) Robert Edwards (D) James Simpson

A

(B) [SSC MTS 2011] Exp: The first vaccine against poliomyelitis was developed by Jonas salk and came into use in 1955. India has been declared as polio free country.

435
Q

12.The expansion for AIDS is- (A) Active Immono Deficiency Syndrome (B) Acquired Individual Disease Syndrome (C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (D) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome

A

(C) [SSC SO 2008] Exp: AIDS is an abbreviated form of Acquired Immuno Deficiency syndrome. It is an immuno deficient disease where the T-lymphocyte present in blood are killed by human Immuno virus.

436
Q

13.The H5N virus which causes bird flu was first discovered in- (A) 1991 (B) 1995 (C) 1997 (D) 2001

A

(C) [SSC CGL 2008] Exp: H5N1 is a highly pathogenic causative agent of H5N1 flu. Commonly known as avian influenza (bird flu), It was first discovered in 1997.

437
Q

14.Radioimmunoasay (RIA) is a therapy used- (A) To cure lung cancer (B)To cure AIDS (C) To cure fractures in bones (D) To detect antibodies and hormones present in the blood samples

A

(D) [SSC CGL 2007] Exp: It is an in-vitro assay that measures the presence of an antigen with very high sensitivity. The target antigen is radio labelled and bound to its specific antibodies. A sample is added in order to initiate a competitive reaction of the labelled antigen from preparation and unlabelled antigen from serum sample.

438
Q

15.MRI stands for- (A) Metered Resonance Imaging (B) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (C) Magnetic Reaction Imaging (D) Metered Reaction Imaging

A

(B) [SSC SO 2006] Exp: MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging. It uses a powerful magnetic field and radio waves to produce pictures of body tissues and org It helps in identification of disease.

439
Q

16.’Jonas Salk’ invented the vaccine for- (A) Polio (B) Hepatitis (C) Typhoid (D) Cholera

A

(A) [SSC SO, 2006] Exp: Jonas Salk first invented the vaccine against poliomyelitis. He used the dead polio viruses as a vaccine and its entry into any organsim lead to the formation of useful antibodies. These antibodies are effective for all future counter of body against viral attack.

440
Q

17.The Full form of the infectious diseases SARS is (A) Syndrome Associated with Respiratory Symptoms (B) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (C) Severe Asthmatic Respiratory Syndrome (D) Syndrome Alarm on Respiratory System

A

(B) [SSC Tax Asst. 2005] Exp: SARS is the infectious disease and a form of pneumonia. It stands for Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome.

441
Q

18.The Founder of homeopathy is- (A) Samuel Hahnemann(B) Hippocrates (C) Charaka (D) Sushrutha

A

(A) [SSC Tax Asst., 2005] Exp: Homeopathy term was coined by Samuel Hahnemann in 1796. Homeopathy is an alternate source of curing the disease without using allopathy.

442
Q

19.Edward Jenner is associated with- (A) Cholera (B) Typhoid (C) Smallpox (D) Paralysis

A

(C) [SSC CPO, 2003] Exp: Edward Jenner was a famous scientist who carried out experiment for the disease small pox and in 1978 prepared the first vaccine against this disease. Edward Jenner is known as father of Immunisation.

443
Q

20.The branch of agriculture which deals with the feeding, shelter, health and breeding of the domestic animals is called- (A) Dairy science (B) Veterinary science (C) Poultry (D) Animal husbandry

A

(B) [SSC Matric Level 2000] Exp: Veterinary science is the branch of science that deals with the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of disease, disorder in animals. It helps in identifying the infectious disease.

444
Q

21.Which of these is produced by a mould? (A) Chloroform (B) Glycerine (C) Penicillin (D) Quinone

A

(C) [SSC Matric Level, 2002] Exp: Penicillin is first discovered antibiotic by Alexander Fleming. It is isolated from an yeast, called Penicillium notatum. Antibiotic inhibit the growth of bacteria on any surface by inhibiting their wall growth.

445
Q

22.Total interacting and animals and plants in any well defined area is known as- (A) Population (B) Biome (C) Community (D) Species

A

(C) [SSC CGL April 2014] Exp: Community is an assemblage of biotic population including plants, animals which lives in a particular habitat.

446
Q

23.Ultraviolet rays can be used in water treatment as- (A) Precipitator (B) Hydrolyser (C) Disinfectant (D) Flocculator

A

(C) [SSC CGL April 2014] Exp: UV radiation was discovered in 1801 by German physicist Johann wilhem Ritter. UV rays have antibacterial effects and is used as disinfectant during water treatment.

447
Q

24.Toxicology is related to the study of- (A) Viruses (B) Bacteria (C) Diseases (D) Poisons

A

(D) [SSC CPO, 2006] Exp: Toxicology is the branch of chemistry and medicine. It involves observing and reporting symptoms, mechanism, detection and treatments of toxic substances. It includes environmental agents and chemical compounds in nature.

448
Q

25.Olive ridley is a famous- (A) Cricketer (B) Turtle species (C) Grass type vegetation (D) Another name for olive tree

A

(B) [SSC CO 2006] Exp: Olive ridley is a famous turtle species also known as pacific ridly sea turtle. It is the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. In India they are mostly occure Odissa coastal area.

449
Q

26.The ‘Theory of Evolution’ was put forward by- (A) Louis Pasteur (B) Aristotle (C) Gregor Mendel (D) Charles Darwin

A

(D) [SSC CPO 2003] Exp: Evolution Theory was proposed and explained by Charles Darwin - Darwin explained the mechanism of evolution as heritable changes in organism with the changes in environment.

450
Q

“27.Who is commonly known as ““the Father of Microbiology””? (A) Robert Hooke (B) Antonie Philips van Leeuwenhoek (C) Carl Linnaeus (D) Charles Darwin”

A

(B) Exp: Antonie Philips van Leeuwenhoek discovered first living cell named it as bacteria.

451
Q

28.A ………….. is species of plant the has adapted to survive in an environment with little liquid water. (A) xerophyte (B) hydrophyte (C) mesophyte (D) thallophyte

A

(A) Exp: Xerophytic adaptations are features of plants who survive in the harsh situation with the presence of very low or no water level.

452
Q

29.Which of the following branches deals with the interactions of same species of living organisms with their non-living environment? (A) Autecology (B) Synecology (C) Ecology (D) Palaeontology

A

(C) (SSC 10+2- 2010) Exp: Ecology is the branch of science which deals with interaction of biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) components of environment.

453
Q

30.Entomology is the study of (A) Birds (B) Insects (C) Fossils (D) Fungi

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Entomology is the study of Insects. In include the behaviour, habitat and features of Insects.

454
Q

31.Myrmecology is study of (A) Insects (B) Ants (C) Crustaceans (D) Arthropods

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: Myrmecology is the study of ants, and their behaviour.

455
Q

32.Exobiology is a science that deals with (A) extinct forms (B) life in other planets (C) life in the outer space (D) life in marine habitat

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2013) Exp: Exobiology is the branch of biology that deals with search for extra terrestrial life and the effects of extra terrestrial surroundings or outer space on living organism.

456
Q

33.Which of the following is used in the treatment of cancer? (A) Physiotherapy (B) Chemotherapy (C) Electrotherapy (D) Psychotherapy

A

(B) (SSC CAPFs SI, 2015) Exp: Chemotherapy is used in the treatment of cancer. It involves the use of chemical substances. Chemotherapeutic agents are cytotoxin by means of interfering with cell division.

457
Q

1.Tectona grandis Linn is the scientific name of (A) Guava (B) Teak (C) Amla (D) Chiku

A

(B) Exp: Tectona grandis Linn is the scientific name of Teak. Family - Lamiaceae, Order - Lamiales

458
Q

2.Delonix regia Rafin is the scientific name of (A) Banyan (B) Gulmohar (C) Tamarind (D) Chiku

A

(B) Exp: Delonix regia Rafin is the scientific name of Gulmohar Family - Fabaceae, Order- Fabales

459
Q
  1. Emblica officinalis is the scientific name of (A) Peepal (B) Mango (C) Amla (D) Drumstick
A

(C) Exp: Emblica officinalis is the scientific name of Amla. Family - phyllanthaceae, Order - Malpighiales

460
Q

3.Rodentia Sciurus is the scientific name of (A) Rat (B) Platypus (C) Squirrel (D) Beaver

A

(C) Exp: Rodentia Sciurus is the scientific name of squirrel. Family - sciuridae, Order - Rodentia

461
Q

4.Azadirachata indica is the scientific name of (A) Neem (B) Teak (C) Silver Oak (D) Tulsi

A

(A) Exp: Azadirachta indica is the scientific name of Neem. Family - Meliaceae, order - Sapindales

462
Q

5.Achras sapota is the scientific name of (A) Custard Apple (B) Gulmohar (C) Tamarind (D) Chiku

A

(D) Exp: Achras sapota is the scientific name of chiku. Family - Sapotaceae, Order- Ericalles.

463
Q

6.Mangifera indica is the scientific name of (A) Guava (B) Mango (C) Amla (D) Jack fruit

A

(B) Exp: Mangifera indica is the scientific name of mango. Family - Anacardiaceae, Order - Sapindales

464
Q

7.Panthera tigris is the scientific name of (A) Panther (B) Tiger (C) Goat (D) Whale

A

(B) Exp: Panthera tigris is the scientific name of tiger. Family - Felidae, Order - Carnivora Chapter-08

465
Q

8.Felis Catus is the scientific name of (A) Cat (B) Dog (C) Mouse (D) Porcupine

A

(A) Exp: Felis catus is the scientific name of cat. Family - Felidae, Order Carnivora

466
Q

9.Annona squamosa is the scientific name of (A) Custard Apple (B) Papaya (C) Babhul (D) Drumstick

A

(A) Exp:Annona squanmosa is the scientific name of custard apple. Family - Annonaceae

467
Q

10.Binomial Nomenclature was founded by (A) Charles Darwin (B) Robert Nucleus (C) Carl Linnaeus (D) Lamarck

A

(C) Exp: Binominal Nomenclature was founded by Carl Linnaeus.

468
Q

11.Cannis Familiaris is the scientific name of (A) Cat (B) Dog (C) Fox (D) Wolf

A

(B) Exp: Cannis familiaris is the scientific name of dog. Family - canidae, order - carnivore.

469
Q

12.Musa paradisiaca is the scientific name of which plant? (A) mango (B) wheat (C) Corn (D) banana

A

(D) Exp: Musa Paradisiac is the scientific name of Banana which belongs to the family. Musaceae and order zingiberales.

470
Q

13.Allium Cepa is the scientific name of _____. (A) Carrot (B) Tomato (C) Potato (D) Onion

A

(D) Exp: Allium cepa is the scientific name of Onion. Family- Amaryllidaceae,Order - Asparagales.

471
Q

14.Acacia arabica is the scientific name of (A) Neem (B) Teak (C) Babhul (D) Pomegranate

A

(C) Exp: Acacia aribica is the scientific name Babhul. Family - Fabaceae, Order - Fabales.

472
Q

15.Cannis Vulpes is the scientific name of (A) Dog (B) Wolf (C) Fox (D) Hyena

A

(C) Exp: Cannis Vulpes is the scientific name of Fox. Family - Canidae, Order - Carnivora.

473
Q

16.Bovidae Ovis is the scientific name of _____. (A) Goat (B) Cow (C) Buffalo (D) Sheep

A

(D) Exp: Bovidae ovis is the scientific name of sheep. Family - Bovidae, Order- Artidactyla.

474
Q

17.Rodentia Muridae is the scientific name of (A) Mouse (B) Squirrel (C) Monkey (D) Lizard

A

(A) Exp: Rodentia muridae is the scientific name of Rat. Family - Mudidae, Order- Rodentia.

475
Q

18.Sauria Lacertidai is the scientific name of ____. (A) Crocodile (B) Hippopotamus (C) Lizard (D) House fly

A

(C) Exp: Sauria lacertidai is the scientific name of lizard. Family - Lacertilia, Order - squamate.

476
Q

19.Arboreal Ateles is the scientific name of _____. (A) Squirrel (B) Sparrow (C) Lizard (D) Spider monkey

A

(D) Exp: Arboreal ateles is the scientific name of spider monkey. Family - Atelidae

477
Q

20.Ananas comosus is the scientific name of _____. (A) Custard Apple (B) Pineapple (C) Bamboo (D) Pomegranate

A

(B) Exp: Ananas comosus is the scientific name of Pineapple. Family - Bromeliaceae, Order - Peales

478
Q

21.Ocimum tenuiflorum is the scientific name of ___________. (A) Neem (B) Mango (C) Babul (D) Tulsi

A

(D) Exp: Ocimum Santum is the scientific name of Tulsi. Family - Lamiaceae, Order - Lamiales.Family Bromeliaceae, Order - Peales

479
Q

22.Mornga oleifera is the scientific name of____. (A) Banyan (B) Gulmohar (C) Amla (D) Drumstick

A

(D) Exp: Mornga oleifera is the scientific name of drumstick. Family - Moringaceae, Order - Brassicales

480
Q

23.Psidium guajava is the scientific name of ___________. (A) Guava (B) Mango (C) Bamboo (D) Jack fruit

A

(A) Exp: Psidium guajava is the scientific name of Gvava. Family - Myrtaceae, Order - Myrtales.

481
Q

24.Carica papaya is the scientific name of ___________. (A) Peepal (B) Papaya (C) Tamarind (D) Drumstick

A

(B) Exp: Carica Papaya is the scientific name of Papaya. Family - Caricaceae, Order- Rosales.

482
Q

25.Artocarpus integra is the scientific name of ___________. (A) Guava (B) Pineapple (C) Silver Oak (D) Jack fruit

A

(D) Exp: Artocarpus integra is the scientific name of jack fruit. Family - Moraceae, order, rosales.

483
Q

26.Bambusa dendrocalmus is the scientific name of _______. (A) Banyan (B) Papaya (C) Bamboo (D) Pomegranate

A

(C) Exp: Bambusa dendrocalms is the scientific name of Bamboo. Family - Poceae, Order - Poles.

484
Q

27.Acinonyx Jubatus is the scientific name of _______. (A) Bear (B) Horse (C) Cheetah (D) Zebra

A

(C) Exp: Acinonyx Iubatus is the seientific name of cheetah. Family - Felidae, Order - Carnivora

485
Q
  1. Punica granatum is the scientific name of _______. (A) Custard Apple (B) Gulmohar (C) Silver Oak (D) Pomegranate
A

(D) Exp: Punica g ranatum is the scientific name of Pomegranate. Family - Lythraceae, Order - Myrtales.

486
Q

1.Tamarindus indica is the scietific name of ____. (A) Neem (B) Pineapple (C) Tamarind (D) Chiku

A

(C) Exp: Tamarindus indica is the scientific name of tamarind. Family - fabaceae, Order- Fabales.

487
Q

2.Equus Caballus is the scientific name of _________. (A) Horse (B) Zebra (C) Donkey (D) Buffalo

A

(A) Exp: Equs caballus is the scientific name of Horse. Family - Equidae, Order - Squamata

488
Q

3.Elapidae Naja is the scientific name of _______. (A) Cobra (B) Elephant (C) Eagle (D) Owl

A

(A) Exp: Elapidae naya is the scientific name of cobra. Family - Elapidae, order - Squamata

489
Q

4.Equs Asinus is the scientific name of (A) Donkey (B) Cow (C) Deer (D) Kangaroo

A

(A) Exp: Equs asinus is the scientific name of Donkey. Family - Equidae, Order - Perissodactyla

490
Q

5.Ficus benghalensis is the scientific name of _______. (A) Banyan (B) Pineapple (C) Babul (D) Tulsi

A

(A) Exp: Ficus benghalensis is the scientific name of Banyan. Family - Moraceae, Order - Rosales

491
Q

6.Equus burchellii is the scientific name of _______. (A) Horse (B) Zebra (C) Buffalo (D) Ass

A

(B) Exp: Equs burchellii is the scientific name of Zebra. Family- Equidae, Order- Perissodactyla.

492
Q
  1. Columba livia is the scientific name of (A) Crow (B) Pigeon (C) Peacock (D) Swan
A

(B) Exp: Columba livia is the scientific name of pigeon. Family- columbidae, ordes columbi fromes