80T-105

Question 1

Approach Control definition

Answer 1

A control position in CATCC responsible for providing positive control of aircraft on approach during Case II and III. Tasks include making holes for bolter/waveoff traffic and maintaining appropriate interval. (23)

Question 2

Ball definition

Answer 2

A pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid is in sight. (23)

Question 3

Carrier Control Area definition

Answer 3

A circular airspace within a radius of 50 nm around the carrier, extending upward from the surface to infinity, under control of CATCC except for those aircraft operating under control of the air officer during Case I and II operations.

Note: The radius and height may be limited because of adjacent controlled airspace. (23)

Question 4

Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC) definition

Answer 4

The operational air traffic control branch responsible to the AirOps Officer for the safe, orderly and expeditious separation of aircraft within the area of jurisdiction; and providing radar ATC services to aircraft during launch and recovery operations. Departure control, marshal control, approach control, final control, and associated status boards are components of CATCC. (23)

Question 5

Carrier Control Zone definition

Answer 5

The airspace within a circular limit defined by 5 miles horizontal radius from the carrier, extending upward from the surface to and including 2,500 feet unless otherwise designated for special operations, and is under the cognizance of the air officer during VMC. (23)

Question 6

CHARLIE definition

Answer 6

Signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship. A number suffix indicates time delay before landing. (23)

Question 7

DELTA definition

Answer 7

A signal given to hold and conserve fuel at an altitude and position appropriate to type aircraft and case recovery in effect. (24)

Question 8

KILO Report definition

Answer 8

A pilot coded report indicating aircraft mission readiness. (25)

Question 9

Air Operations definition

Answer 9

That section of the operations department responsible for coordinating all matters pertaining to air operations including the proper functioning of the CATCC. (23)

Question 10

Nonradar Control definition

Answer 10

A form of air traffic control in which the pilot flies according to a published procedure or as prescribed by the controlling agency. Traffic separation is provided by the controlling agency, using frequent pilot position reports and modified separation criteria. This form of control is used only in case of emergency, when all shipboard air control radar is inoperative or, in the opinion of the CATCC officer, unusable. (26)

Question 11

Positive Control definition

Answer 11

A form of air traffic control in which the controlling agency has radar and radio contact with the aircraft being controlled and published approach or departure procedures are complied with, or where specific assignments regarding heading and altitude are issued by the controller. While altitude separation is provided by pilot maintaining assigned altitude, lateral and time separation is the responsibility of the air traffic controller. Speed changes may be directed by the air traffic controller. (26)

Question 12

Red Light definition

Answer 12

The local time at which a helicopter will no longer be SAR capable and has approximately 30 minute of flight time remaining. (26)

Question 13

Weather Criteria definition

Answer 13

Case I weather requires the ceiling to be no lower than 3,000 feet and not less than 5 nm visibility.

Case II weather requires the lowest ceiling to be 1,000 feet or above and 5 nm visibility.

Case III weather is any ceiling below 1,000 feet or a visibility less than 5 nm. (27)

Question 14

ZIP LIP definition

Answer 14

A condition that may be prescribed for flight operations during daylight VMC conditions under which positive communications control is waived and radio transmissions between aircraft, pilots, and control agencies are held to the minimum necessary for safety of flight. The exception is COD aircraft, unless specifically noted in the overhead message. (27)

Question 15

Control Criteria Case I

Answer 15

When it is anticipated that flights will not encounter instrument conditions during daytime departures, recoveries, and the ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone are no lower than 3,000 feet and 5 nm respectively. (4-2)

Question 16

Control Criteria Case II

Answer 16

When it is anticipated that flights may encounter instrument conditions during a daytime departure or recovery, and the ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone are no lower than 1,000 feet and 5 nm respectively. (4-2)

Question 17

Control Criteria Case III

Answer 17

When it is anticipated that flights will encounter instrument conditions during a departure or recovery because the ceiling or visibility in the carrier control zone are lower than 1,000 feet and 5 nm respectively; or a nighttime departure or recovery (one- half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise). (4-2)

Question 18

Positive Control

Answer 18

This control shall be utilized under the following conditions:

1. Ceiling of:
   a. Less than 1,000 feet for fixed-wing aircraft.
   b. Less than 500 feet for helicopter operations.
2. Forward flight visibility of:
   a. Less than 5 miles for fixed-wing operations.
   b. One mile or less for helicopter operations.
3. All flight operations between one-half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise except as modified by the OTC or carrier commanding officer.
4. During mandatory letdown in thunderstorm areas.
5. In other situations where supervisory personnel can anticipate weather phenomena that might cause difficulty to pilots. (4-2)

Question 19

Advisory Control

Answer 19

This control shall be utilized when the traffic density in an operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety of flight than required under visual flight rules. Advisory control is normally limited to VMC and is recommended for all operations in or adjacent to oceanic control areas or routes. Traffic separation is the responsibility of the individual pilot with assistance provided by the controlling agency. (4-2)

Question 20

Monitor Control

Answer 20

This control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot. (4-3)

Question 21

Nonradar Control

Answer 21

This control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic under conditions normally requiring positive control. The decision to attempt control of aircraft at night or in instrument flight conditions must be made with careful consideration of such factors as the following:

1. Actual meteorological conditions.
2. Degree of radar degradation.
3. Expected duration of radar degradation.
4. Fuel states and tanker fuel available for delays.
5. Divert field considerations.
6. Operational requirement.
7. Departure/recovery in progress at the time a nonradar environment develops.
8. Availability of other surface or airborne platforms to provide radar traffic separation and approach information. (4-3)

Question 22

Lateral Separation Criteria

Answer 22

1. The following separation standards apply to aircraft controlled by designated air search radars that rotate in
   excess of 7 rpm.
   a. Aircraft operating at 50 miles or more from the monitoring antenna shall be separated by a minimum of 5 miles.
   b. Aircraft operating less than 50 miles from the monitoring antenna shall be separated by a minimum of 3 miles.
   c. Aircraft on a designated approach or established downwind and inside of 12 miles shall be separated by a minimum of 2 miles. Aircraft established on final within 5 miles shall be separated a minimum of 1-1/2 miles.

Note: Air search radars that rotate in excess of 7 rpm are the only radars acceptable for an ASR approach.

2. Aircraft provided positive control with all other radars shall be separated by a minimum of 5 miles.
3. Aircraft provided nonradar control, utilizing a published approach, should be separated by 2 minutes (5 miles separation when using DME). [4-4]

Question 23

Vertical Separation

Answer 23

1. Jet and turbopropeller (turboprop) aircraft operating at altitudes up to and including FL 290 shall be separated by 1,000 feet.
2. Vertical separation may be reduced to 800 feet when inside of 12 nm.
   a. Receiver aircraft being provided positive control shall be separated by a minimum of 500 feet vertically from tanker aircraft until visual separation between the two aircraft can be maintained.
3. Aircraft operating above FL 290 shall be separated by 2,000 feet.
4. Helicopters shall be separated by 500 feet. (4-4)

Question 24

Helicopter Departure Keyhole Diagram

Answer 24

Diagram:
020 - 150: 400’, 1-10 nm
150 - 190: no operations to 3 nm; 300’ to 5 nm; 400’ to 10 nm
190 - 340: 300’ to 5 nm; 400’ to 10 nm
340 - 020: no operations to 5 nm; 200’ to 10 nm

(8-3)

Question 25

Fuel State Reporting on Departure

Answer 25

SAR capable helicopters will report “red light” in HHMM local (e.g. “6/7XX, 4 souls, 1645 red light”). Non-SAR capable helicopters will report fuel state HHMM local to NATOPS minimum fuel (e.g. “6/7XX, 3 souls, 3+30”). (8-3)

Question 26

Helo Departure Procedure, Case I and Case II

Answer 26

Helicopters shall clear the control zone as directed by the tower. When departing for operations within the control zone (for example, SAR), they shall remain under control of the tower or other designated controlling agency. (8-3)

Question 27

Helo Departure Procedure, Case III

Answer 27

Whenever possible, helicopters shall be maintained as a flight beneath the clouds. If unable to remain beneath the clouds, they shall proceed individually to pre-briefed departure fixes. After takeoff, they shall climb straight ahead to between 200 to 300 feet (unaided), 150 to 300 feet (NVD aided), or as assigned by CATCC, and arc within 3 nm to intercept the assigned departure radial. Helicopters being launched from the angled deck will not cross the bow when fixed-wing aircraft are being launched. SAR helicopters will arc to the SAR pattern if able to remain beneath the clouds. If the SAR helicopter is unable to remain beneath the clouds, the procedure presented above shall be carried out under positive control of CATCC and position will be taken in helicopter marshal (Figure 8-3). The climb to departure altitude will be commenced on the departure radial outside 12 nm. (8-3)

Question 28

Lost Communications

Answer 28

Helicopters experiencing lost communications should remain at or below 300 feet, arc to enter starboard delta, and execute lost communications procedures in accordance with Figure 8-4. (8-4)

Question 29

Plane Guard

Answer 29

Any external tasking to the primary Plane Guard (PG) helicopter shall be reported immediately to the air officer for coordination and approval. The PG helicopter is not required to hold in Starboard Delta and is encouraged to vacate the starboard side during routine fixed wing recoveries to avoid the de-arm area forward of the 90 degree bearing line. During carrier qualification landings, the Starboard Delta pattern (Figure 8-2) should be used. Note: * During recovery of aircraft with forward firing ordnance, the plane guard helicopter shall not be positioned on the starboard side from the 360 to the 090 degree relative bearing within 5 nm from the carrier. * The air officer shall be notified immediately if the primary PG helicopter changes. The presence of personal weapons, crew served weapons, fixed forward firing weapons, torpedoes, CATMs, DATMs or expendables shall not prevent an otherwise SAR capable helicopter from being tasked with PG responsibilities or SAR. (8-4)

Question 30

Starborad Delta Pattern

Answer 30

RH Racetrack 300', 3-5nm ARC; turn inbound 1 nm 045 relative outbound, 110 relative inbound (8-7)

Question 31

Plane Guard Station

Answer 31

The designated plane guard helicopter is “on station” when operating within 20 nm (day) or 10 nm (night) of the carrier. The helicopter shall remain within UHF range and monitor the assigned air control frequency at all times. (8-7)

Question 32

SAR Response

Answer 32

In the event of a plane guard incident, the designated plane guard helicopter shall immediately respond unless otherwise directed by the air officer. (8-7)

Question 33

Helicopter Readiness Condition I

Answer 33

The aircraft shall be spotted for immediate launch, with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and a LSE, starting crewman, plane captain, and required plane handlers standing by. Unless otherwise directed by the aircraft handling officer, at least four tiedowns shall be attached to the aircraft. The flightcrew shall be ready for launch in all respects, with all personnel equipment attached and adjusted as in flight. (8-8)

Question 34

Helicopter Readiness Condition II

Answer 34

The same conditions apply as for Condition I, except that flightcrews shall stand by in the ready rooms. Note: An alert SAR helicopter in Condition II may be folded provided the primary SAR helicopter is airborne. (8-8)

Question 35

Helicopter Readiness Condition III

Answer 35

Main rotor blades may be folded and the aircraft need not be in position for immediate launch; however, it must be parked so as to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot. A towbar shall be attached to the aircraft and a specific LSE, tractor driver, handling crew, and starting crewman shall be designated and assigned to each helicopter. These personnel must be thoroughly briefed so that when the order is given to prepare to launch, the aircraft can be safely and expeditiously moved into position and readied for launch. Flightcrews should be briefed for the launch and be standing by in a designated location. Note: Due to the aft placement of the tail wheel on certain T/M/S H-60 helicopters, there may not be sufficient space to attach a tow bar to a folded helicopter without it extending beyond the foul line. In this situation it is acceptable to have the tow bar stowed adjacent to or beneath the aircraft to facilitate an expeditious attachment and aircraft spotting as long as all other requirements are met. (8-8)

Question 36

Helicopter Readiness Condition IV

Answer 36

This is similar to Condition III except that minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch is involved. (8-9)

Question 37

Launch of Condition Helicopters

Answer 37

When the air officer passes the word to stand by to launch the Condition I helicopter(s), engines shall be started without further instructions; however, rotor engagement and launch shall be positively controlled by PriFly. (8-9)

Question 38

Transient Helicopter Recovery

Answer 38

Transient helicopters approaching the carrier for landing shall contact marshal control at least 25 nm out. During Case III, marshal control will clear helicopters to CV-3 holding or starboard delta as requested. Helicopters unable to check in with marshal control because of communications difficulties should proceed as directed in Figure 4-1. Transient helicopters inbound for the CVN should expect to proceed to Starboard Delta for recovery unless otherwise directed. (8-10)

Question 39

Departing Helicopters Procedure

Answer 39

The departing helicopter, if SAR capable, shall report red light to the controlling agency (i.e., tower, departure, ASTAC) upon launch (EMCON permitting). When there is a significant change in the red light or red light is reached, a radio call to the controlling agency should be made. Unless otherwise directed, helicopters shall take departure to port and shall not cross the bow within 5 nm or with stern within 3 nm (Figure 8-1) without specific clearance from the tower. (8-2)

Question 40

Lighting Configuration on Approach

Answer 40

On approach: -Pos: STEADY/BRIGHT -A/C: ON Final Bearing: -POS: STEADY/DIM -A/C: UPPER Touchdown/Shutdown: -POS: FLASHING/DIM -A/C: OFF (For daytime recoveries, maintain POS lights BRGHT) (8-11)

Question 41

Waveoff

Answer 41

Helicopters shall climb straight ahead on the extended final bearing to an altitude of 300 feet and await instructions from approach control. If no instructions are received within 2 minutes or prior to reaching 4 nm ahead of the ship, the pilot will attempt to make contact with the ship, giving identification and position. If instructions are not received, the pilot will assume communication failure and execute a turn downwind reporting downwind abeam. If radio contact is not reestablished, the pilot will proceed downwind and reenter through the 3 nm fix or turn inbound 2 minutes past abeam. (8-12)

Question 42

Safety Precautions Not Associated with Spots

Answer 42

1. Personnel shall not be permitted to approach or depart a helicopter while its rotors are being engaged or disengaged. 2. Personnel required to be in the area of helicopters engaging or disengaging rotors shall either stand next to the fuselage or well outside the rotor area. 3. The air officer or his representative shall pass over the 5 MC, “Stand well clear of helo (side #) while engaging/disengaging rotors on spot (#).” 4. Except in case of emergency, pilots shall not stop engines or fold rotor blades without proper clearance from the LSE. 5. The waveoff and hold signals are mandatory and shall be executed immediately. 6. Helicopters should not be taxied on the flight deck. 7. Helicopters shall not be towed or pushed with rotors engaged. 8. With ship roll (heel) greater than 4 degrees, launch/recovery of helicopters while the ship is in a turn should be attempted only when authorized by the carrier commanding officer or his designated representative. 9. With ship roll (heel) greater than 4 degrees, helicopter rotors should not be engaged/disengaged while the ship is in a turn. Engagement/disengagement attempts while in a turn with ship roll (heel) greater than 4 degrees must be approved by the carrier commanding officer or his designated representative. 10. Departing or approaching helicopters shall never be flown over another aircraft. 11. Only spots that afford visual reference to the deck shall be used for night helicopter launches. 12. Helicopter shall not be landed or launched where their engine performances or stability could be affected by turning jet engines. Jet exhaust shall not be directed into the path of the aircraft being launched. 24. Cross cockpit recoveries forward of an occupied spot are not recommended. (8-14)

Question 43

Spot 1 Rules

Answer 43

1. No night launches 2. Non precision spot (8-15)

Question 44

Spot 2 Safety Rules

Answer 44

1. Spot 2 starboard approaches and departures are prohibited. (Belknap Pole) 2. Left seat slide-in visual recoveries to Spot 2 are not recommended.

Question 45

Spot 3 Safety Rules

Answer 45

1. No night launches 2. Left seat slide-in visual recoveries to Spot 3 are prohibited. 4. Secondary de-arming area (8-15)

Question 46

Spots 4-6 Safety Rules

Answer 46

1. Flight deck helo Spot 4 will be the primary dearming area. 2. Left seat helicopter recoveries to spots 4, 5, and 6 while there is a turning helicopter on the next forward spot represents an increased risk to the LSE. The LSE should be positioned inboard of the catapult four safe parking line in the same general location as right seat recoveries. 3. Launching of helicopters from Spots 4, 5, and 6 with aircraft turning in the “six-pack” should be avoided to prevent hot gas ingestion of a departing helicopter (potential for compressor stalls) and to decrease heat stress on LSE/PC, FDC, and helicopter troubleshooters. The Pilot in Command (PIC) should expect to be notified of turning aircraft in the “six-pack”.

Question 47

Spot 7 Safety Rules

Answer 47

1. If the CV Commanding Officer deems it necessary, helicopters loaded with forward firing ordnance are authorized to utilize Spot 7. The helicopter shall be offset to starboard when spotted for launch and when landing. Helicopters with hung/misfired forward firing ordnance shall not launch/recover on Spot 7. Note: Night / IMC operations to spot 7 with forward firing ordnance should be avoided. 2. Personnel shall not be permitted to enter rotor arc area of an engaged helicopter on Spot 7 when fixed wing aircraft are in tension on Catapults 3 or 4. 5. Concurrent operations involving fixed wing aircraft and H-60B/F/H/S/R helicopters are authorized for Precision H-60 Spots 2 and 7 (Appendix B). Concurrent operations include H-60 ground turns, takeoffs and/or landings during fixed wing flight operations. 6. Helicopters with hung ordnance in crew served weapons on the starboard side should land on Spot 7 or 9. (8-15)

Question 48

Spot 8 Safety Rules

Answer 48

1. Hot refueling operations shall not be conducted on Spot 8. 2. Helicopter operations shall not be conducted on Spot 8 when fixed wing aircraft recoveries are taking place. 3. The LSO platform shall be lowered and clear of personnel for helicopter takeoffs and landings on Spot 8. (8-15)

Question 49

Spot 9 Safety Rules

Answer 49

1. Non-precision spot. 2. Helicopters with hung ordnance in crew served weapons on the starboard side should land on Spot 7 or 9. If recovering on Spot 9, helicopters shall land with a heading of BRC +15 degrees, with the weapon trained in a safe direction aft of the ship. 3. Recommended hung dome recovery spot. (8-18)

Question 50

GAU-21 impact on SAR

Answer 50

A GAU-21 installed in a MH-60R does not preclude SAR operations, but it does present an obstacle to the crewmen due to its size and location in the cabin door. To the maximum extent practicable, the GAU-21 and swing arm should be removed before tasking a MH-60R in this configuration to conduct PG. (8-7)

Question 51

TACAN Marshal

Answer 51

The primary TACAN marshal fix is at 1,000 feet and 5 nm on the 110 degree radial relative to the expected final bearing (Figure 8-3). For multiple helicopters, each successive marshal holding fix adds 1 nm of distance and 500 feet of altitude (e.g. 6 nm and 1,500 feet, 7 nm and 2,000 feet, etc.). The holding pattern is a right-hand racetrack pattern with 2 nm legs. The inbound leg shall pass over the holding fix. Helicopters shall descend at 90 knots and 500 feet per minute from marshal, crossing 145 relative to the final bearing at or above 900 feet. Unless otherwise directed, helicopters shall commence transition to a landing configuration prior to the 3 nm fix. (8-12)

Question 52

LSE/PC Calls

Answer 52

The LSE/PC shall request permission for the following evolutions through Flight Deck Control or PriFly: engine start, rotor engagement/disengagement, and to “break” and “lift”. (8-1)

Question 53

Degrees of Control

Answer 53

Positive, Advisory, Monitor, and Nonradar

Question 54

Air Transfer Officer

Answer 54

The ATO is responsible to the air operations officer for the safe and orderly flow of passengers, mail, and cargo on and off carriers by aircraft. Has White Jersey/White Helmet with "Transfer" written on it

Question 55

Minimum Launch Weather Requirements

Answer 55

200-1/2 (8-1)

Question 56

Approach Weather Minimums

Answer 56

Precision: 200-1/2 Nonprecision: 300-3/4

Question 57

LSE requirements before launching a helicopter

Answer 57

1. All tiedowns have been removed. 2. The area affected by the helicopter downwash is clear of unnecessary personnel and the area over which the helicopter will pass is clear. 3. Airborne aircraft are well clear. 4. Confirm launching signal/approval from PriFly. 5. Sufficient clearance area exists for maneuvering during post-maintenance hover tests. (8-2)

Question 58

High Gross Weight departures

Answer 58

When multiple high gross weight helicopters are launched from Spots 3, 4, 5, 6, and 8 they should, to the maximum extent practical, be sequence from forward to aft to allow for use of the landing area for departure to gain airspeed vice a sidestep resulting in a HOGE with inadequate power margins. The PIC may also request adjusted winds to reduce power required on takeoff or landing.

Question 59

FCF with Fixed Winged Ops

Answer 59

FCF flights can be conducted concurrently with fixed wing operations. (8-4)

Question 60

Plane Guard Restrictions

Answer 60

During launch/recovery, no concurrent ASW/plane guard operations shall be conudcted within the shaded area of the Keyhole diagram without the explicit approval of the air officer. The maximum altitudes when conducting concurrent ASW/plane guard operations shall be as depicted in the Keyhole diagram. All bearings are relative to the ship's BRC. (8-6)

Question 61

Helicopter Holding

Answer 61

Helicopters shall proceed to a holding pattern as specified by tower for recovery. If one is not specified they shall hold clear of the avoid areas of the Keyhole diagram in such a manner that will expedite recover. Unless previously briefed to the contrary, when more than one helicopter is operating in the holding pattern, all helicopters shall fly a right-hand pattern at 300' while maintaining 80 KIAS. (8-9)

Question 62

Helicopter CVN Approach Weather Minimum

Answer 62

Non-Precision: 300-3/4 Mode III: 200-1/2 (8-11)

Question 63

General Spot Safety Restrictions

Answer 63

1. If any Spot 1 through 6 is occupied by an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22, the spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant. 2. Concurrent operations involving fixed wing aircraft and H-60B/F/H/S/R helicopters are authorized for Precision H-60 Spots 2 and 7. 3. Safety boundaries around Spots 7 and 8 shall be clear of unnecessary personnel and equipment when helicopter operations are being conducted. 4. For all helicopter operations on Spots 7 and 8, the Aircraft Handling Officer or his representative shall ensure that the aircraft elevator has been secured in accordance with EOSS short term secure procedures, stanchions lowered and locks properly engaged. 5. Helicopters with hung ordnance in crew served weapons on the starboard side should land on Spot 7 or 9. If recovering on Spot 9, helicopters shall land with a heading of BRC +15 degrees, with the weapon trained in a safe direction aft of the ship.

Question 64

Keyhole Diagram Name

Answer 64

Helicopter Restrictions During Fixed-Wing Launch/Recovery (8-3)

Question 65

Landing Area offset from BRC

Answer 65

Landing Area is offset 10 degrees to the left of BRC

Question 66

Tilly

Answer 66

Large white crane used to move aircraft around the flight deck/off flight deck if deemed necessary

Question 67

How many aircraft have to land still when "one tankable" is called?

Answer 67

3 - The tanker, the aircraft receiving fuel, and the E-2 (typically last fixed wing aircraft landing)

Question 68

"Titler" / TTLR

Answer 68

Turning Tanker, Last Recovery Tanker waiting in alert in case an aircraft needs to refuel prior to landing

Question 69

CLARA definition

Answer 69

A pilot transmission indicating the pilot does not have the visual landing aid (ball) in sight.

Question 70

Things that require Operational Necessity (105)

Answer 70

Loading limited amounts of weapons on the hangar deck may be authorized by the commanding officer when the operational necessity so dictates the acceptance of the additional risk of fire with fuel and explosives in a confined area.

Question 71

Hung Dome Procedures

Answer 71

Same idea as Wing SOP; difference being prep for Spot 9 and place LSE in Vulture’s Row. 1. The air officer shall clear all personnel away from the spot on which the dome is to be recovered (Spot 9 recommended) with the exception of the minimum number of maintenance personnel required (approximately four). 2. Consideration should be given to securing a mattress or padding to the deck either on or adjacent to the landing spot (Payed Out Cable Length (POCL) dependent) with tie down straps to provide a cushion onto which the dome can be lowered to minimize damage. 3. The aircraft will hover at an appropriate altitude to facilitate recovery. Maximum safe altitude will depend on POCL and environmental considerations. Consideration should be given to placing the LSE in Vultures Row to provide signals for placing the dome on the deck. 4. Conditions will dictate whether the cable will be sheared or the dome lowered to the deck. If lowered to the deck and sufficient POCL exists to allow maintenance personnel to disconnect the dome, they shall ensure the dome is grounded to prevent electrical shock and will then disconnect the transducer assembly (dome) from the cable. After the dome is detached, the aircraft will begin a descent and cable shall be walked with two person integrity away from the landing spot. If there is insufficient POCL to allow maintainers to safely work under the aircraft, the crew may opt to lower the dome onto the padding and then slide over to land. If at any time, a stable hover cannot be maintained during or after disconnecting the transducer assembly and/or during the descent, the crew shall execute the appropriate Emergency Procedure to facilitate safe recovery. 5. After landing and placement of chocks and chains, the cable should be placed in the aircraft cabin prior to aircraft shutdown.

Question 72

ILART (Integrated Launch And Recovery Television System)

Answer 72

Television system used to provide real-time imagery and recordings of aircraft during launch and recovery operations. It is comprised of two components: The pilot landing aid television (PLAT) system and the catapult aircraft hookup and launch (CAHAL) system.

Question 73

JBD

Answer 73

Jet Blast Deflector

Question 74

CVIC

Answer 74

Carrier Intelligence Center

Question 75

How many beacons are there?

Answer 75

3 - Green (Launch/Recovery), Amber (Engage/Disengage Rotors) and Red

Question 76

Flight Deck Personnel - Yellow Jerseys

Answer 76

-Plane Directors (Taxi Directors) -Flight Deck Officers -Arresting Gear Officers -Catapult Officers (Shooters) -Catapult Spotters -Aircraft Handling Officers

Question 77

Flight Deck Personnel - Green Jerseys

Answer 77

-MX personnel -Catapult and Arresting gear crew -Helo LSE (red helmet) -Cargo handling personnel -Ground support equipment troubleshooters -Hook runners -Photographers mate's

Question 78

Flight Deck Personnel - Brown Jerseys

Answer 78

-Plane captains (red helmet) -Line Petty Officers (Green helmet)

Question 79

Flight Deck Personnel - Blue Jerseys

Answer 79

-Aircraft handlers (pushers, chockers, chainers, etc) -Tractor drivers -Messengers and Phone Talkers -Elevator Operators

Question 80

Flight Deck Personnel - Purple Jerseys

Answer 80

Fuel personnel

Question 81

Flight Deck Personnel - White Jerseys

Answer 81

-Safety personnel (Green cross on helmet) -Medical personnel -LSOs -Final checkers -QA personnel (brown helmet) -Air Transfer Officer (ATO) ["Transfer"]

Question 82

Flight Deck Personnel - Red Jerseys

Answer 82

-Ordnance crews -Crash and salvage crews -EOD

Question 83

Plane Guard Required Radio Calls

Answer 83

CATCC shall conduct a radio check with the plane guard helicopter at least every 20 minutes during Case III recoveries.

Question 84

Emergency Pull Forward

Answer 84

Aircraft that depart via STO (Short Takeoff) may not have the power to a conduct rapid recovery via vertical landing. PrFly should be prepared to initiate an emergency pull forward to clear the landing area expeditiously for emergency landing.

Question 85

Height of CVN Deck

Answer 85

60'

Question 86

IFF Prowords

Answer 86

2: PARROT 5: MANGO / TESLA

Question 87

Mode III Approach

Answer 87

Helicopters shall pass the 3 NM fix at 500' in a landing configuration and maintain 500' until interception of the glidepath or until otherwise directed. Controller shall provide glideslope, azimuth, and range information (precision approach). Pilots may use a 400 fpm rule to help schedule glideslope maintenance.

Question 88

CWC "Romeo"

Answer 88

Air Resource Element Coordinator aka "Rep"