NRTP 3-22.4-MH60R, 18FEB22 Flashcards

Question

Ku-Band Ship Control Segments

Answer 1

For Ku-band operations with legacy data link interface, the system operates in an identical manner as the legacy C-band system. FLIR Segment: the shipboard operator may exercise limited control of the MTS to visually identify tracks, gain situational awareness, and support helicopter operations. The shipboard operator can cue the MTS to locations (lat/longs) or to tracks (LTN, VTR, or CTSL) on the aircraft display. The shipboard operator can also change the MTS primary sensor, sensor and imagery settings, and field of view. The shipboard operator is restricted from lasing, powering the MTS on/off, or accessing the MTS Attack page. Radar: The shipboard operator can select radar, IFF, or both and can display up to 160 nautical miles of radar and/or IFF video. The APS-147 radar has six selectable modes of operation that may be controlled by the ship. With the APS-153(V)1 radar, there are seven modes of operation that may be controlled by the ship and includes PERI ARPDD. (8-16)

Answer 2

HAVEQUICK (HQ) is a frequency hopping waveform operating in the UHF AM band (225-400 MHz). HAVEQUICK I and HAVEQUICK II operations are available through the two ARC-210 multifunction radios (MFR). HAVEQUICK is an electronic counter-countermeasure (ECCM) designed to prevent opposition forces from jamming UHF communications by synchronized hopping over several different frequencies. HAVEQUICK II (HQ 2) is the default choice for fleet and theater operations. HQ 2 users must have the same net number, multiple word of the day (MWOD), TOD, OP DAY and, in training mode, a 16-frequency frequency management training (FMT) table. (9-1)

Answer 3

Frequency Management Training — A table of 16 frequencies. In CONUS, the table is programmable to 16 approved frequencies for training. In combat mode, the table is created in the ARC-210. At no time can the operator observe the frequencies in the table on the aircraft mission display. Multiple-Word-of-Day — A WOD with an additional segment called a date tag. In most cases, the date tag will match the OP DAY. (Up to 6) MFR uses the segments of the MWOD to determine the hop rate and pattern. The frequency hopping rate for both HQ 1 and HQ 2 is determined by the 2nd and 3rd digit in the first segment of the WOD or MWOD. training mode, .0XX will be either 00 or 25. Net Number - Similar to a LOS preset, the net number designates the net and is part of the algorithm for frequency hopping through the FMT or WOD for the selected OP DAY. (A net number has the form AXX.XYY.) In HQ 2 training mode, XX.X = 000 to 015, and all training frequencies end in 25. Operational Day – The mission day, which is also the calendar day based on GMT. Possible OP DAYs include 00-31. Time-of-Day – The exact time shared by each radio operating on the net. The default method for accessing TOD is through GPS time. If GPS is not available, emergency time start (EST) can be sent from one user to the net. Word-of-Day – Consists of six segments that resemble UHF frequencies. WOD starting with 300.0XX selects training mode. If the WOD starts with anything other than 300.0XX, then combat mode is selected. (9-2)

Answer 4

Single channel ground and airborne radio system (SINCGARS) is a jam-resistant frequency-hopping waveform that operates in the VHF FM band (30-88 MHz) and is capable of plain voice or secure voice using the KY-58 crypto device. Once the fill is complete and the aircraft is ready to use the radio for SINCGARS, time must be entered into the system as described in the HAVEQUICK sections (9-13)

Answer 5

Satellite communications (SATCOM) is provided by either of the two MFRs. The radio selected for SATCOM use will always default to the SATCOM antenna, and the other radio will be configured to the lower antenna. There are four SATCOM modes available: * Wideband (25 kHz) dedicated (via AOP or RCU). * Narrowband (5 kHz) dedicated (via AOP or RCU). * Wideband (25 kHz) demand assigned multiple access (DAMA) (via AOP or RCU). * Integrated waveform (IW)(via RCU only). Dedicated and wideband DAMA are integrated with the mission computer and accessible via AOP. All four SATCOM modes are accessible through the RCU. IW is accessible via RCU only. Users must fill the radios with both red and black fill data prior to SATCOM operation. (9-16)

Answer 6

SATCOM satellites are operated in geostationary orbit resulting in four distinct coverage areas around the earth. The aircraft SATCOM antenna transmits and receives in one of two look angles relative to the aircraft, either high or low angle. Aircraft operating in the center of the applicable satellite footprint (look angle greater than 35 degrees) will use the high angle, while aircraft operating outside that area (look angle less than 35 degrees) will use the low angle. (9-16)

Answer 7

Red fill data consists of encryption codes (crypto) for orderwire and secure voice (ANDVT and KY-58) keymats. Both types of crypto are loaded into the radio using a simple key loader (SKL). Black fill data consists of unclassified radio frequency presets and channel information. (9-18)

Answer 8

The Aircraft Survivability Equipment (ASE) subsystem, provides threat detection, identification, warning, and countermeasures capabilities. It provides the aircrew with situational awareness to allow manual, semi-automatic, or fully automatic operation of the countermeasures dispensing system (CMDS). The ASE subsystem provides missile detection and jamming, radar helo threat warning (HTW), laser detection and warning, countermeasures dispensing, self-defense data processing, and ASE control. The ASE subsystem provides the pilot, copilot, and aircrewman with situational awareness of the threat environment and the capability to select countermeasure response modes. (11-1)

Answer 9

The AN/AAR-47 missile warning set (MWS) is designed to passively detect attacking IR missiles, guns, rockets and battlefield lasers (range finder, target designator, and beam rider missiles), while minimizing false alarms. Missile Warning: operates in UV spectrum. Four sensors are wide FOV that sense in-band UV radiation from the rocket motor plume. Laser Warning: the sensor detects laser pulses in the 500 to 1600 nm region. Detection is based on the extremely fast rise time of a pulsed laser. The high angular resolution laser irradiance detector (HARLID™) provides azimuth angle of arrival (AOA) information. Hostile Fire Indication (HFI): detect small arms and unguided munitions that are directed at the aircraft and attempts to ignore those directed away. (11-4)

Answer 10

A passive electro-optical threat warning system designed with integrated laser warning circuits to detect surface-to-air missiles and warn of laser-aided or laser-guided threats and warn of small arms and unguided munitions threats. Provides 360 degrees coverage for the aircraft with either four 90 degree zones or eight overlapping 90 degree zones. HFI provides 12 sectors centered on the clock positions. (11-5) Made up of countermeasure signal processor (CP) and integrated optical sensor converters (IOSC).

Answer 11

Contains the electronics and software that perform the data processing and input/output functions of the MWS. The CP receives and processes MW and LW signals from the IOSCs. When an attacking missile is detected, the CP sends a flare-eject signal directly to the AN/ALE-47(V) CMDS. (11-4)

Answer 12

The MW optics, at the top of the IOSC, collects UV radiation and filters out photons of the wrong wavelength. There are two LW detectors. -The photodiode on the lower right detects the signals from low power laser beam riders, range finders, and designators. -The other laser detector is a HARLID™ that provides a precise angle of arrival for high power range finders and designators. A third photodiode (adjunct detector), located to the left of the HARLID™ detector, works with the IOSC blanking circuitry to protect the IOSC from saturation during periods of intense in-band radiation. The IOSC has the capability to detect noise patterns in the UV clutter (tonal noise). It subtracts such tonal noise and evaluates the cleaned-up signal for the presence of an attacking IR missile, passing its results to the CP for consideration by the missile-detection algorithm. (11-5)

Answer 13

Power-Up Mode: the condition during which electrical power is applied to the MWS and system control is turned on. Upon power-up, presence of a valid OFP is determined. Operating Mode: The operating mode is the condition following power-up where the MWS has achieved stable operation, is performing the missile and laser warning, and is communicating with external systems. BIT Mode: The BIT mode is the condition where the MWS performs self test based upon some manual intervention, with or without support equipment. (11-6)

Answer 14

Power off the MWS using the +MWS ON/OFF function. * Disable MWS initiated dispenses using the CMDS Sensor Disable menu in the CMDS CONFIG window. * Set the CMDS mode to MAN or STBY. * Power off the CMDS using the +CMDS ON/OFF function. * Power off the ASE suite using the ISD PWR switch on the CMP. * Interrupt squib power. (11-7)

Answer 15

The AN/ALQ-144C(V)5 IRCM set is an omnidirectional active infrared jamming system, which protects the aircraft from air-to-air and ground-to-air heat seeking missiles by emitting IR radiation to disrupt attacking missile targeting systems. The system operates continuously to provide omnidirectional protection by decoying hostile missile systems into seeking false aircraft position information. (11-8)

Answer 16

* Upper/lower IRCM transmitter - The transmitter generates infrared light, modulates it, and then passes it through the covert window in the form of invisible IR energy to disrupt the thermal imaging of missile threats * Operator control unit (Cockpit lower console). - It allows the pilot to turn the countermeasures set on and off, and select jamming programs from the cockpit via the JAM SELECT switch. (0-9 options) * Master control junction box. (11-11)

Answer 17

* Programmer - the central processing unit for the system. Discrete signals are used to communicate directly with the MWS and provide WOW switch status and dispense switch actions. Sequencer communications include power-up, bypass and jettison programming, inventory status, sequencer and dispenser status, and dispense commands. * Sequencer * Two dispenser housings * Two magazines - carry 30 chaff or flare cartridges. The breechplate routes a firing signal to the designated impulse cartridge. The breechplate also provides the MAG ID signals via two four-position MAG ID switches mounted on the breechplate. One switch is labeled A, B, C, D. The other switch is labeled 1, 2, 3, 4. (16 available configurations) * Two dispenser safety switches - disrupt squib power to inhibit the dispenser * Pilot/copilot collective countermeasures dispense switch - Select Manual Program and Semi-automatic consent * Two threat indicator panels. * SO utility light assembly - SAFE/NORM/BYPASS switch (11-16)

Answer 18

Functions are: * Generates and routes firing power to specific payload locations in the dispenser assembly * Conducts BIT * Determines magazine identification * Monitors inventory Squib Firing - The sequencer generates, routes, and transmits squib-firing current to each location in the dispenser assembly. The sequencer is capable of dispensing 60 payloads in less than 11 seconds after receipt of a valid jettison command. The jettison command is automatically repeated a second time for safety, therefore the system is dedicated to the jettison command for approximately 21 seconds. Magazine Identification. The sequencer receives a signal from the dispenser assembly indicating that a magazine is installed. Bypass Interface. The sequencer provides two electrical interfaces for use in Bypass mode operation. When Bypass mode is selected, actuation of a dispense switch will provide signals to the sequencer to dispense the MDF-defined number of expendables of each expendable category loaded in the magazines. When the SEL JETT switch is selected the sequencer firmware initiates a CMDS expendable jettison. (11-13)

Answer 19

The pilot/copilot collective dispense switch provides the capability to initiate the following: * Selected Manual Program (1 – 6) in MAN mode. * Manual Program 5 in SEMI mode if there is no DISPENSE READY indication. * Manual Program 5 in AUTO mode. * Dispense in SEMI mode if DISPENSE READY is illuminated. * Bypass program in BYPASS mode. (11-17)

Answer 20

SAFE - Switch position when aircraft is in non-flight status and secured with a red-flagged REMOVE BEFORE FLIGHT pin. The SAFE position interrupts squib power. Jettison and bypass functions are unavailable. NORM - The NORM position applies power to both the CMDS programmer and CMDS sequencer. NORMAL mode allows Standby, and Manual, Semi-Automatic, and Automatic dispensing modes to be selected. Jettison function is available in NORM. BYPASS - The BYPASS position provides 28 V dc directly to the CMDS sequencer and allows both manual bypass and automatic bypass dispenses to occur. Power is not applied to the CMDS programmer in this position. Jettison function is still available in BYPASS. (11-18)

Answer 21

When a threat is detected by the ASE system, both the threat indicators illuminate. If the CMDS is in Semi-Automatic mode when the threat is detected, and the CMDS has a dispense program mapped to the detected threat, then the DISPENSE READY indicator is illuminated on both panels. (11-19)

Answer 22

When the CMDS SAFE/NORM/BYPASS switch is in the SAFE position, 28 Vdc squib power is interrupted and expendables cannot be dispensed by any means. Squib power can also be interrupted by one or more of the following mechanisms: * CMP ISD PWR switch to OFF. This removes power to the CMDS programmer, sequencer and squibs, preventing chaff/flare dispense. * The CMDS SAFE/NORM/BYPASS switch in SAFE (SO utility light assembly). * Dispenser safety switch pin inserted into either dispenser safety switch. * Weight-on-wheels. * CMDS PWR 28 Vdc circuit breaker (SO OVHD CB panel). * CMDS 28 Vdc circuit breaker (SO EXT CB panel). * ISD MAIN PWR 28 Vdc circuit breaker (SO EXT CB panel). Selecting the +CMDS OFF function removes power from the CMDS programmer and sequencer, but does not remove squib power. (11-20)

Answer 23

When the CMP ISD PWR switch is on, and the CMDS SAFE/NORM/BYPASS switch is in the NORM position, the CMDS mode may be set. +STBY MODE is the default mode at power on. The CMDS system is automatically in Standby mode when WOW is engaged or no squib power is available. (11-21)

Answer 24

In Manual mode, the operator commands the programmer to execute a selected manual CMDS program. Only manual dispensing is available in Manual mode. Semi-Automatic or Automatic mode dispensing is unavailable. However, manual program dispensing is available in all operating modes: Manual, Semi-Automatic and Automatic. The sequence for operating in the MAN mode is as follows: * Select the desired manual program (1 through 6, default is 1). The selected manual program is displayed in the CMDS mode/status corner of the ASE display (e.g., MAN 1). * Press the CM dispense switch on either the pilot's or copilot's collective. This sends a dispense signal to the CMDS programmer. * Upon receipt of the dispense signal, the CMDS executes the selected manual program. (11-21)

Answer 25

The Semi-Automatic mode requires the operator to consent to dispense when a radar threat is detected. The sequence for this operation is: The Semi-automatic mode does not require operator consent to dispense against detected IR threats. The defined dispense program initiates immediately upon threat detection.

Answer 26

The Automatic mode immediately initiates the appropriate dispense program when a radar threat activates, as defined by the MDF. Similar to Semi-Automatic mode, the CMDS automatically and immediately initiates the defined dispense program upon MWS IR threat detection.(11-24)

Answer 27

In the event of a critical failure that prevents normal system operation, the CMDS Bypass mode provides a means for the crew to send dispense signals directly to the sequencer, bypassing the programmer. Bypass mode is activated when the SO places the CMDS SAFE/NORM/BYPASS switch to the BYPASS position. This connects the pilot/copilot CM dispense switches directly to CMDS sequencer inputs for Other-1 and Other-2 bypass dispenses.

Answer 28

The CMDS provides a Training mode (Sim mode) where the system appears to function as it does when in any of the CMDS normal operating modes. The only difference in behavior is that actual dispense of expendables does not occur. Default Load: -O1: 0, O2: 32, CH: 8, FL: 20 (11-26)

Answer 29

The following threat warnings appear across the top of the MD with black lettering on a red background: * RKT — Rocket * GUN — Gun * MSL — Missile * BEAM — Beam rider laser * DESGNTOR — Designator laser * RNG FIND — Range finder laser The HTW warning is displayed at the far right of this same area, but is driven by the ESM function (11-33)

Answer 30

Radar HTW Threats -Early Waring (EW)/Ground Control Intercept (GCI): W in a circle -Search: S in a circle -Unknown : U in a circle -Airborne Interceptor (A): Solid Delta -Anti Aircraft Artillery (AAA): G in a circle -Surface to Air Missile (SAM): M in a circle -RF Missile Launch: M in a diamond MWS Threats: IR Missile Launch: Red box with white circle in the middle Laser: Star Hostile Fire Indication (HFI): X in a circle (11-37)

Answer 31

Dummy Air Training Missile (DATM) - It is used to train armament personnel in uploading and downloading. DATMs are identified by blue-colored bands around the warhead and propulsion sections. Captive Air Training Missile (CATM) - This missile has an operational laser seeker that can search for and lock on to laser designated targets but cannot be launched. CATMs are identified by three blue-colored bands, one each around the warhead, guidance and propulsion sections. Air Training Missile - The ATM-114 air training missile is a practice round with a live rocket motor and an inert warhead, designed to simulate tactical engagements in a training environment. Air training missiles are identified by a yellow-colored band around the propulsion section, and a blue band around the warhead. AGM-114 Tactical Missile - The tactical missile contains a shaped-charge warhead that is capable of defeating armored vehicles. The missile arms only after launch when acceleration exceeds 10 g, somewhere between 150 and 300 meters in front of the aircraft. Tactical missiles are identified by three yellow-colored bands, one each around the warhead, guidance and propulsion sections. (12-1)

Answer 32

AGM-114B - has an improved low visibility (ILV) capability. It flies lower trajectories than the AGM-114A and contains a minimum smoke rocket motor. It also contains a safe arming device (SAD) which provides electrical and mechanical blockage in the rocket motor firing train. AGM-114B missiles are authorized for training use only. AGM-114K - designated HELLFIRE II, and features dual warheads for defeating reactive armor, electro-optical countermeasures immunity and an externally programmable guidance section for trajectory shaping/seeker logic charges. AGM-114M - has a blast fragmentation type warhead with a time delay built into the fuze, allowing target penetration prior to warhead detonation. This warhead allows for expanded target types in military operations in urban terrain. (stenciled with a block capital “M” forward of the forward band to identify it) AGM-114N - has an improved blast fragmentation warhead with a metal augmented charge (MAC) to provide a thermobaric effect that increases the probability of kill. The AGM-114N maintains effectiveness against the AGM-114M target set and offers increased probability of personnel lethality or incapacitation against typical urban structures. AGM-114N-5 - software change to lower the missiles angle-of-attack at impact, and decrease the terminal flight path angle to enhance warhead penetration and improve target engagements for targets under overhangs. The software-only change is limited to the lock-on-before-launch (LOBL) and lock-on-after-launch-direct (LOAL-D) flight modes. (12-3)

Answer 33

The M-299 launcher is a jettisonable store that provides mounting, electronic control, and release of Hellfire missiles. The launcher also provides the wiring harnesses and electronic command signal programmer, necessary electrical/electronic switching, transfer, and control functions associated with missile prelaunch, missile sequencing, and launch commands. Hardback Assembly - The hardback assembly provides attaching points for the upper and lower rail supports and attaching points (lugs) for mounting the launcher to the pylon rack. Launch Rails - The launch rails provide mounting and holdback provisions for the missiles. A manual holdback release facilitates uploading/downloading and, when engaged, holds the missile on the rail. When missile thrust exceeds approximately 600 to 700 pounds, the holdback is overridden, allowing the missile to leave the rail. (12-4)

Answer 34

Seeker Guidance Warhead Propulsion (12-4)

Answer 35

AGM-114B - possesses a single-shaped charge to provide the explosive and piercing force necessary to destroy the target. AGM-114K Warhead - uses the same shaped-charge warhead as the AGM-114B, but contains an additional small warhead forward of the main warhead to provide enhanced performance against reactive armors. AGM-114K2 - an improved AGM-114K warhead, classified as an “insensitive munition” that was developed specifically for shipboard use. AGM-114M - consists of an explosive-loaded, sub-caliber penetrator blast fragmentation warhead (BFWH) with incendiary element and a time delay electronic safe, arm, and firing (ESAF) device. The BFWH replaces both the precursor and main warheads of the high explosive anti-tank (HEAT) warhead section used in the AGM-114K missile. The fuze senses the kinetic penetration of the target and initiates a small time delay. After the delay the blast-fragmentation warhead is detonated creating an overpressure and fragmentation effect. AGM-114N - utilizes an enhanced blast-fragmenting warhead that includes a metal augmented charge (MAC) that is sometimes referred to as thermobaric .The MAC warhead generates an extended blast pressure creating impulse loading on the target achieving higher damage than the very brief static pressure associated with conventional explosives. (12-5)

Answer 36

Propulsion Section (Rocket Motor) - single-stage, single-thrust, star-shaped solid-propellant motor. Thrust duration is approximately 2 to 3 seconds. Control Section - contains a pneumatic actuation system that converts steering commands into mechanical fin movement. It is located just aft of the rocket motor. (12-5)

Answer 37

Cage - seeker is inhibited from slaving or tracking until the gyro mass is spun up. Scan - seeker is moved in a predetermined scan pattern (box scan) to help it acquire and lock on to a laser spot. This mode is employed prior to launch for Lock On Before Launch (LOBL) remote mode and after launch for Lock On After Launch (LOAL) mode. Stare - seeker is commanded to look straight ahead along the missile body axis. AGM-114B missiles can acquire and lock on if laser energy is detected, AGM-114K, M, and N missiles cannot lock onto laser energy in the stare mode. This mode is employed prior to launch for LOAL-DIR, LO or HI remote modes. Slave - seeker is commanded to follow external line of sight (LOS) commands. It can acquire and lock on if laser energy is detected. This mode is employed prior to launch for all autonomous modes. Track - seeker is commanded by the seeker electronics assembly to maintain the reflected laser energy centered on the detector/preamplifier assembly so that the optics assembly is pointed at the target. (12-7)

Answer 38

LOBL: The instantaneous FOV of a seeker is an 8° rectangle about the seeker LOS. The aircraft moves the seeker LOS in a rectangular search pattern that is 6° across (±3°) and 12° vertically (±6°). By adding the instantaneous FOV to the search pattern, a total FOV of 14°across and 20° vertically is obtained. One/Two/Three Missiles: 20° vertically x 14°/23°/32° horizontally (adds 9 per missile) LOAL: Pattern is short and wide to prevent flying past it's target. -Total view is 12° vertically x 40° horizontally (12-6)

Answer 39

All airborne rocket motors include an igniter, propellant, nozzle, and fin assembly. The Mk 66 Mod 4 motor is the only authorized rocket motor, it produces an average thrust of 1,360 pounds for a duration of 1.1 seconds. The M151 warhead bursting radius is 10 meters.

Answer 40

The Advanced Precision Kill Weapon System (APKWS) II consists of a semi-active laser (SAL) guidance section added to an existing 2.75-inch rocket. The laser seeker optics, located in each of the four wings, receives laser energy reflected from the target. Seeker electronics use the laser energy to determine target angle. The inertial measurement unit (IMU) senses the rocket pitch, roll and yaw and transmits this information to the autopilot. The autopilot uses the IMU and seeker data to move the wings to the commanded position to guide the rocket to the target. (12-12)

Answer 41

Launch - 0.00 Battery reaches full power - 0.30 Wings deploy - 0.40 IMU and processor initiation begins - 0.70 Sensors in laser detection mode - 0.85 De-roll maneuver - 0.85 – 1.10 Rocket motor burn-out - 1.10 (12-13)

Answer 42

The AN/SSQ-36B bathythermobuoy (AXBT) sonobuoy is a special-purpose buoy used to provide a temperature profile of water temperature versus depth from the surface to a depth of 2,625 feet. Weight: 24 lb Operating Life: 12 minutes Scuttle: 8-30 hours (12-18)

Answer 43

The AN/SSQ-53F/G directional frequency analysis and recording (DIFAR) sonobuoy is a passive acoustic sensor used to detect, localize and track a submerged submarine. Upon water entry the sonobuoy deploys a passive directional hydrophone to depths of 90, 200, 400 or 1,000 feet, and incorporates a calibrated omnidirectional (CO) hydrophone. It deploys a fixed depth constant shallow omni (CSO) omnidirectional hydrophone at 45 feet. The function of the CSO is to provide acoustic information from a fixed depth of 45 feet. The CSO has a single omni-channel. The AN/SSQ-53F/G incorporates CFS capability Max Weight: 26 lb Depths: 90/200/400/1000' Operating Life: 0.5/1/2/4/8 hours Scuttle: 8-30 hours

Answer 44

The AN/SSQ-62E/F directional command activated sonobuoy system (DICASS) sonobuoy an active sensor used to provide terminal positioning data against a submerged submarine during the attack phase of an ASW mission. Max Weight: 40 lb Depths: -Shallow: 50/150/300' -Deep: 90/400/1500' Operating Life: 60 minutes or 50 ping seconds Scuttle: within 20 minutes when commanded or about 3 hours after splash (12-21) The AN/SSQ-62E/F sonobuoy incorporates an engineering change that allows the operator to select any of the usable RF channels with any sonar channel. Sonar frequency (6.5 kHz, 7.5 kHz, 8.5 kHz or 9.5 kHz for sonar channel A, B, C or D, respectively) is the frequency of the sonar pulse transmitted by the sonobuoy transducer during a ping and is the center frequency of the receive band while listening for an echo.

Answer 45

The Mk 25 marine location marker (MLM) provides either day or night water reference points. It contains a saltwater activated battery that ignites a pyrotechnic composition to emit yellow flame/white smoke for 13.5 to 18.5 minutes after water entry. (12-26) Saltwater reacts as an electrolyte to activate the battery/batteries to produce the electrical current that initiates a squib, which ignites the red phosphorus pyrotechnic composition.

Answer 46

The Mk 58 MLM is designed for day or night operations requiring a long-duration smoke and reference point on the ocean surface. It contains a saltwater-activated battery that ignites a pyrotechnic composition candle to emit yellow flame/white smoke for 40 to 60 minutes. The flame/smoke is visible for three miles. (12-27)

Answer 47

The GAU-21, 0.50 caliber aircraft machine gun is an air cooled, short recoil-operated, alternate-feed weapon that fires from the open bolt position. It is capable of firing at a rapid rate of 950–1100 rounds per minute and provides medium-range suppressive fire. Maximum range: 6,500 m Maximum effective range: 1,850 m Tracer burnout: 1,100 m Firing rate: (rounds/min): 1,025 ± 75

Answer 48

The M240D is air-cooled, gas-operated, automatic, and fires from the open bolt position using standard 7.62 mm ammunition. The M240D has a fixed post front sight and an adjustable leaf rear sight. Rate of fire (Cyclic): 650-950 rounds/minute (gas plug dependent) Maximum range: 3,725 m Maximum effective range: 1,200 m Tracer burnout: 900 m (13-9)

Answer 49

The Infrared Zoom Laser Illuminator/Designator (IZLID) 200P (Model 425P-A2) is a Class 3B, laser that operates at 808–840 nm at a maximum of 195 mW.

Answer 50

The digital rocket launcher (DRL) system consists of the LAU-61G/A airborne rocket launcher and advanced precision kill weapon system (APKWS) II guided 2.75-inch rocket. The LAU-61G/A mounts on either the LHEP or RHEP station using the BRU-14/A suspension rack. With a LAU-61G/A mounted on both sides of the aircraft, the system can carry and deploy up to 38 APKWS II rockets. The DRL cannot independently sense, identify or verify an individual rocket type or whether an individual tube is loaded. The aircrew must manually input and verify the actual rocket loadout. Limitations: -Only homogeneous APKWS rocket loadouts are authorized. -APKWS rockets are only authorized to be fired as a single rocket. Ripple fire is not authorized. (14-1)

Answer 51

Highlight: Highlighted missile symbol identifies priority missile. Top section: Indicates status of missile seeker: * Blank = Not scanning or tracking * Empty circle = Scanning * Filled circle = Tracking Middle section: Identifies missile type: * B = AGM-114B * K = AGM-114K, AGM-114M, or AGM-114N * T = CATM Bottom Section: Indicates missile status, as set in LASE CODE window (A-H) After launch, TOF indicates time until impact. (15-6)

Answer 52

Header text: Indicates overall status of DRL Sub-header text: Indicates launch status to include IN PROG, MISFIRE, FAILED, and ABORT. Rocket Symbol: *X: Rocket failure during launch. Always displayed in lower right position. *Rocket symbol Solid: A rocket has not been selected, or launch is in progress. Rocket symbol does not display if number of rockets of that type is zero. *Rocket symbol Filled circle: Rocket is ready for launch. Rocket symbol does not display if number of rockets of that type is zero. Text, under symbol: Inidcates type of rocket: *APK = Laser guided rocket. Always displayed in upper left position. * HE = High explosive. Always displayed in upper right position. Not authorized with DRL. * FLC = Flechette. Always displayed in lower left position. Not authorized with DRL. * FAIL = Failed rocket(s). Always displayed in lower right position. +6: Shows optimal aircraft pitch angle for maximum Ph. (15-9)

Answer 53

Protection Barrier — Box drawn around directed search area. Defined by lateral limits value. Mk 46 torpedoes do not display with a protection barrier. For directed search (DS) and non-directed search (NDS) with swim out, protection barrier displays as a box defined by the start, end, and lateral limits. For NDS without swim out, it is displayed as a circle with radius defined by protection barrier. Directed Search — Symbol includes ladder consisting of the minimum, maximum, and optimum acquisition range bands (specific to each torpedo type), and maximum torpedo range. (15-15)

Answer 54

Top number in Box is aircraft heading in True/Mag; Below is FLIR Heading. Bottom Left shows Laser Status: need ARM LRD to get good energy Contstraint Box: Solid when within constraints and no inhibits are set, dashed when not within constraints or an inhibit is set. (15-30)

Answer 55

AOP provides TDA for autonomous and remote designations. Autonomous TDA is only displayed if designation mode is set to AUT. Remote designation TDA is only displayed if designation mode is set to REM. Safety Fans: Shooter must be within Designators Fan (+-60), Designator must be outside Shooter's fan (+-30) (15-32)

Answer 56

With an active APKWS engagement (+RKT ENGD), the weapon envelope displays on the GEOSIT and presents minimum/maximum ranges and azimuth limit lines for maximized probability of hit (Ph). Minimum and maximum ranges slide as pitch increases or decreases. By pitching up and down, all area within the potential minimum and maximum values can be engaged. With +RKT ENGD selected, optimal pitch is calculated (only for target ranges between 1,000 and 6,000 meters). vertical needle is driven to a 3.5º offset from an MTS target, based on the APKWS launch station. When setting ILS needles to display optimal pitch cues, ensure CRS is set to attack heading to prevent reverse sensing indications. (15-35)

Answer 57

Inhibit and constraint indications are displayed on the MTS display to alert the operator that conditions are not favorable for firing the LRD or launching a weapon. Inhibit indications will prevent the operator from performing the desired operation until the condition is corrected. Constraint indications will allow the operation to be executed, but alert the operator that the action is not recommended until the condition is corrected. (15-36)

Answer 58

AMP uses target-of-interest (TOI) data, sensor data, and historical and in-situ environmental data in the search area to compute estimates of sensor performance against the selected TOI. AMP is used with the dipping sonar and with active and passive sonobuoys. The AMP can use a local Link 16 network for planning a search pattern with multiple MH-60R aircraft, a planner helo and up to four participating aircraft (subordinate helos). Multi-helo search planning done from JMPS can contain dipper and sonobuoy patterns. On-board multi-helo search planning is limited to dipper patterns only. Multi-helo sonobuoy patterns must all be planned on the same JMPS station. (16-1)

Answer 59

A total of 25 TOI can be taken to the aircraft for use during the mission; however, the onboard AMP can only work with a single TOI at a time. AMP extracts data for an area within a 300 NM square centered on the ASW search area’s center position. Year-round SVP data is extracted for the area. -In-situ SVP data is used instead of historical SVP data when the in-situ SVP data is less than seven days old and was collected within 20 NM of the center of the new mission area. (16-5)

Answer 60

The search time for a mission defaults to: * One hour for a datum search. * Two hours for a dipping sonar area search. * Two and one-half hours for a sonobuoy area search.

Answer 61

The search time for a mission defaults to: * One hour for a datum search. * Two hours for a dipping sonar area search. * Two and one-half hours for a sonobuoy area search. When using the AMP-computed TSR, AMP selects a dipping sonar waveform and range scale that search out to the range where AMP computes a 25% probability of detecting the TOI. This is typically much larger than a range selected to search out to the TSR. A minimum of three and a maximum of eight passive sonobuoys are used in an optimized sonobuoy pattern. In an optimized pattern for sonobuoys or dipping sonar, AMP will not recommend sonobuoy locations or dipper deployment positions in water less than 100 ft deep. Dip points or sonobuoy splash points are computed only for a single aircraft. Dip points or sonobuoy splash points for other aircraft are not computed and are not displayed by the mission planner or AOP. SVPs are not sent to AMP unless the SVP data extends to 100 ft or deeper. collected SVP must extend to at least 600 ft to ensure that the SLD is accurately measured.(16-8)

Answer 62

The AMP AOU map is a rectangular map that is always oriented North/South. It is a grid composed of 8649 cells (93 cells x 93 cells). All of the cells are square and are equal in size. Map and cell size depend on the size of the AOU sent to AMP. When an event triggers a map update, it takes AMP approximately 60 seconds to compute a new AOU map and send it to the mission planner. A Monte Carlo probability model tracker function establishes several thousand targets, whose locations represent the probability distribution implied by the positive information. Each target is assigned to a track. Each target track is assigned a depth, an initial position, and a course and speed. As time passes, each target track is moved using its course and speed and the selected target motion model. Higher probability areas are depicted in shades of red. (16-12)

Answer 63

AMP computes a sensor's probability of detection as a function of range and bearing from a sensor to the target. When an event triggers a map update, it takes AMP approximately 60 seconds to compute a new sensor coverage map and send it to the mission planner. AMP computes active sensor probability of detection using the active sonar equation and calculated transmission loss and reverberation using ambient noise measurement (ANM) or beam noise measurement (BNM), sensor information, target strength (bow aspect), sensor search depths, and TOI depths. The sensor coverage map is a colored map that shows the instantaneous probability that a sensor deployed at the recommended position can detect the TOI. Darker shades of green depict higher probabilities of detection. White areas indicate that the detection probabilities is less than 50% but greater than 25%. The maps automatically update every six minutes or when an event triggers a map update(16-13)

Answer 64

SEND AMP: used to transmit information about an AOI, contact (e.g., acoustic LOB, acoustic sequential detection, radar track, ESM LOB) or track to AMP. When SEND AMP is used, the information is sent to AMP once. If the information in AMP needs to be updated, the aircrew must use SEND AMP again to update the information. LINK AMP: used to transmit information about tracks to AMP. When a track is linked to AMP, AOP transmits the track’s information (position, error ellipse, ellipse orientation, course and speed) to AMP every sixty seconds. The AOU map is updated only when the track has traveled at least 0.5 NM or it has been 10 minutes since the last update. (16-21)

Answer 65

AMP computes transmission loss (TL) and pseudo-TL (containing reverberation data for active sonars) curves for the dipping sonar, DIFAR and DICASS sonobuoys using the Acoustic System Performance model (ASPM). ASPM is a propagation loss and reverberation model (utilizing active and passive ASTRAL models). TLs and pseudo-TLs (for active sonars), are computed on a seven NM by seven NM grid throughout the ASW search area. TLs and pseudo-TLs (for active sonars), are computed every 60º at each position. The detection ranges are determined by starting at range zero and increasing range until the PD and the average PD (averaged across the last three points) both drop below 50%. After approximately 40 minutes of processing, AMP has a complete set of TLs and pseudo-TLs for the ASW search area. (16-22)

Answer 66

The reel and cable provide the electrical interface between the sonar transmitter/receiver and the transducer. Has ~2550 feet of cable on the reel. The cable assembly contains cable limit sensors, a dip cycle counter, and is removable from the reeling machine. Cable limit sensors open when less than five to eight wraps of cable remain on the reel. (17-2)

Answer 67

The reeling machine is a hydraulic hoist that raises and lowers the transducer. The unit is equipped with an auxiliary electrical motor and auxiliary hydraulic control system. The auxiliary hydraulic control system provides the capability to raise or lower the transducer in the event of a loss of normal reeling machine control. The auxiliary electric motor provides the capability to raise the transducer in the event of a loss of hydraulic power. The reeling machine also has a cable cutter assembly to cut the sonar cable in an emergency. Cable angle sensors mounted on the reeling machine measure the angle of the sonar cable relative to vertical when the transducer is deployed. The raise speed limiter (RSL) functions with the servo-valve on the hydraulic motor and sends a signal to the servo-valve to ensure that the raise speed does not exceed a set threshold. This ensures a safe approach speed for the TA as it is raised toward the A/C. If the set threshold is exceeded, an appropriate RSL FAIL error will be issued. The RSL does not provide any function during lowering operations, regardless of mode. It does not function during Auxiliary Electric mode raise operations since electric motor operations do not use the hydraulic servo-valve. It does not function during Auxiliary Hydraulic mode operations because the RMIU part of the function is bypassed and the Auxiliary Hydraulic control limits the speed. (17-2)

Answer 68

The reeling machine is located on the starboard aft floor of the helicopter and has six modes of operation: -Automatic (remote) Hydraulic mode -Manual (RMCU) Hydraulic mode - Auxiliary Hydraulic mode -Auxiliary Electric mode -Auxiliary Hardware Electric mode -Hand Crank mode. (17-5)

Answer 69

Normal hydraulic Operation: Automatic (remote) and Manual (RMCU) Hydraulic modes are the normal dipping sonar operating modes. These modes have full capabilities and full safety features. -While the TA is being lowered, at approximately 20 feet below the aircraft the RMIU commands the ST/R into ESD protect mode. This disconnects the TA from the ST/R prior to water entry. (17-5)

Answer 70

Auxiliary Hydraulic Mode: allows the operator to manually control the servo valve in the event of a RMIU failure, bypassing the RMIU and RMCU. -This mode bypasses all safety interlocks, does not automatically stop the transducer at the trail position, and does not automatically seat or lock the transducer. -Operation of the hydraulic motor in manual mode is the same except that the speed range is restricted. This mode provides finer control of the transducer raise/lower speed. Use of the RSL knob limits cable speed to 6 ft/sec when the transducer is within 60 ft of the aircraft. -This mode is used if prescribed by sonar troubleshooting procedures or in the event of electrical power loss. There is no ESD sequence in this mode. -The Auxiliary Hydraulic mode only needs hydraulic power and 28 Vdc essential power to control the reeling machine. This mode is most commonly used for correcting miswraps, reseating the transducer to obtain a SEATED indication, and retrieving the transducer when a fault or failure in the reeling machine control system has occurred. (17-6)

Answer 71

In Auxiliary Electric mode, the reeling machine uses the auxiliary motor to drive the gear train assembly. It will automatically stop the transducer at the trail position and will automatically seat and lock the transducer when raised into the aircraft. Because of the slower raise speed, the cable is not sufficiently tensioned which may result in problems during normal operation if the TA has been raised from 1000 ft or deeper in Auxiliary Electric mode. The Auxiliary Electric mode is used if prescribed by sonar troubleshooting procedures or in the event of a hydraulic fault. * Except when executing sonar troubleshooting procedures, Auxiliary Electric mode shall only be used when TA is submerged. * If the TA has been raised from 1000 feet or deeper in Auxiliary Electric mode, the cable should be re-tensioned with normal hydraulic mode before resuming dipping operations. * The Auxiliary Electric mode has full safety features and will automatically close the array when raise is selected. * The Auxiliary Electric mode can only be used for recovery, as this mode only operates in the raise direction. (17-7)

Answer 72

In Auxiliary Hardware Electric mode, the reeling machine uses the auxiliary motor to drive the gear train assembly. The auxiliary motor is controlled directly by the RMCU, circumventing the RMIU electronics. This mode is entered by simultaneously holding the RMCU SAFETY OVERD button and the RMCU RAISE button when in the Auxiliary Electrical mode. - The electric motor control is only available in normal speed in this mode, and the raise speed will always be 6 ft/sec. This mode is used if prescribed by sonar troubleshooting procedures or as a last resort to recover the transducer when there are failures that prevent any other mode of operation. -Auxiliary Hardware Electric mode bypasses all safety interlocks, does not automatically stop the transducer at the trail position, and does not automatically seat or lock the transducer. (17-7)

Answer 73

The Hand Crank mode is only used for maintenance purposes. In Hand Crank mode, the hand crank switch on the safeguard assembly is engaged, which disables the hydraulic and Auxiliary Electrical modes. A torque wrench (used to comply with torque limits on the gearbox) is then installed in the hand crank drive of the safeguard assembly to raise and lower the sonar transducer. (17-8)

Answer 74

The RMIU controls the reeling machine functions, regulates smooth transitions of transducer dipping activities, and performs the reeling machine BIT. The RMIU also provides electrical interfaces between components of the dipping sonar system. There are no controls or indicators on the RMIU. The RMIU performs the following automatic functions: * Snag sense and response; * Automatic selection of raise and lowering speeds; * Stop at cable limits; * Stop at preselected depth; * Stop at trail position; * Stop at seat position; * Stop at kiting condition; * Stop when excessive water exit speed; * Stop when transducer is 50 feet from sea floor; * Stop if uplink data is lost; * In automatic mode and in “To Trail” commands, folds the array before raising. (17-8)

Answer 75

The RMCU contains operating controls and failure indications for the reeling machine and provides the means for lowering and raising the transducer. In AUTO mode, preset depth commands may be issued from a menu, and acknowledged or canceled via the RMCU. In MAN mode, the SO commands depth changes via the RMCU. The RMCU also contains indicators for monitoring reeling machine control system status. (17-8)

Answer 76

In normal modes of operation, the reeling machine defaults to NORM speed. The reeling machine will automatically slow when excessive tension is applied to the cable, including when a SNAG indication illuminates. Other speeds of interest: * At water exit, raise speed in normal hydraulic mode transitions from a maximum of 14.8 ft/sec to 8.2 ft/sec. * From water exit to trail, normal hydraulic raise speed transitions from 8.2ft/sec to 1.2 ft/sec. * Reduced raise speed (e.g. speed when recovering from an 114B using OVERRIDE and RAISE) is 2.1 ft/sec in water. * Maximum in-air lowering speed in normal hydraulic mode is 20.7 ft/sec. * Upon water entry in normal hydraulic mode, the reeling machine operates at a reduced speed of 4.9 ft/sec to stabilize the TA. * The maximum speed with a TILT indication is 12.5 ft/sec. (17-8)

Answer 77

1. OVRROT - Illuminates amber to indicate excessive rotation of the transducer. 2. LEAK: Illuminates yellow to indicate transducer detected a water leak. 3. HOT: Illuminates yellow to indicate excessive temperature in transducer. 4. TILT: Illuminates yellow to indicate transducer is tilting greater than 10.5 degrees. 5. KITING: Illuminates yellow to indicate kiting condition. A kiting condition is when the cable is paying out at a greater rate than the transducer depth is increasing. 6. CAB LIM: Illuminates yellow to indicate cable reached paid out limit (8 wraps or less remaining on reel). 7. BOTTOM: Illuminates yellow to indicate transducer is less than 50 feet from the ocean floor. Bottom proximity detection is active when the TA is in transit or when stable if the following conditions are met: * TA is folded (FOLDED indicated on RMCU); * Submerged sensor is activated (SUBMRG indicated on RMCU); * ST/R is on and uplink established. 8. SNAG: Illuminates yellow to indicate too much cable tension. Flashes to indicate a snag condition. 9. SLIP: Illuminates yellow to indicate reeling machine clutch slip condition. 22 ERROR CODE: Illuminates yellow when a numerical error code is displayed on the ERROR CODE display. (17-10)

Answer 78

The primary function of the transducer is to transmit the sonar pulse generated by the ST/R and receive the echo returns. It performs the following functions: * Receives high-power acoustic transmit pulse and WQC transmit signals from the ST/R via the sonar cable and transmits them into the water. * Receives in-water active echo returns and WQC signals; provides front end processing; converts the signals to digital uplink data; and sends it to the ST/R. * Processes control signals from the cable downlink to unfold the receive array; folds the receive array; initializes front end attenuation; initiates self-test; and sets transducer mode. * Provides uplink telemetry through the cable consisting of transducer temperature, depth, azimuth orientation, bottom proximity, vertical inclination, transducer mode, and transducer status. * Provides hydrodynamic stability during raising and lowering operations at all reeling machine speeds and aerodynamic stability at trail position during aircraft transit. * Receives in-water wide band energy signals for acoustic signal analysis (ASA) by the AP. (17-12)

Answer 79

The ST/R generates the transmit pulse and provides an interface between the AP and the other SDRS components. It performs the following functions: * Receives and executes sonar and BIT commands from the AP including active waveform selection, power level, output mode, and initiate BIT. * Provides operational and BIT status to the AP from the transducer, reeling machine, and ST/R, including current mode, BIT results, fault codes, and ping synchronization. * Provides a control and status interface with the AP. * Interfaces with RMIU and RMCU to support remote reeling machine operations. * Generates high power acoustic transmit waveform for active transmission. * Receives WQC audio and transmit key from aircraft system and generates a single sideband suppressed carrier signal for WQC transmission. * Generates downlink command tones for transducer, including commands to unfold and fold transducer array, initialize front end attenuation, initiate self test, and select transducer mode. * Processes uplink data from the transducer consisting of acoustic receive data, transducer temperature, depth, azimuth orientation, bottom proximity, vertical inclination, transducer mode, and transducer status. * Formats acoustic receive data and telemetry and sends the results to the AP. * Provides an interface for real-time recording of acoustic data and reeling machine status. * Provides an ST/R battle short discrete interface signal to the aircraft system. (17-12)

Answer 80

All operation should be in normal hydraulic modes unless the fault code on the RMCU indicates otherwise. If there is failure of the RMIU/RMCU processor, electrical power failure or hydraulic failure, then alternative modes of recovery are required. The alternative modes of recovery are as follows: * 10XX and/or 20XX – Run BIT – No recommended recovery mode. * 11XX and/or 21XX – SAFETY OVRD for four seconds until OVERRIDE illuminates and follow normal hydraulic recovery procedures. * 12XX and/or 22XX – Use Auxiliary Electric mode for recovery. * 13XX and/or 23XX – Use Auxiliary Hydraulic mode for recovery. (17-13)

Answer 81

The sonobuoy receiver subsystem transmits sonobuoy VHF uplink data to the acoustic processor for display, audio management computer for aural presentation, and the data link subsystem for ship down link. The sonobuoy receiver set consists of the following components: * Software defined sonobuoy receiver (SDSR) - allows for the simultaneous reception of eight sonobuoy channels. * Sonobuoy receiver antenna * Pre-amplifier unit (17-15)

Answer 82

- Environmental data processing: collects temperature vs depth data required for SVPs – Signal processing * Active acoustic detection: The active acoustic detection mode uses active dipping sonar to locate and track submerged contacts. In this mode, the ST/R generates an active pulse and sends it to the transducer over the sonar cable. The transducer transmits the active pulse and listens for a return echo. The transducer converts received acoustic data to uplink data and sends it to the ST/R. * Acoustic signal analysis; * Environmental data acquisition; * Underwater communications; * Performance monitoring. – Post-processing; *Cluster processing: receives threshold crossing data for every cell that exceeded the signal processing detection threshold (controlled via the DIP THRESHOLD window) for the sonar ping waveform being processed. The threshold crossing data, in the form of a cluster, is then sent to the cluster filtering function. Cluster filtering then removes clusters from the cluster list which are not deemed target-like (to be considered target-like, a cluster must be larger than the minimum allowable size and smaller than the maximum allowable size), then computes bearing and range for each cluster remaining in the list. *Sequential Detector processing: clusters from cluster processing and identifies those clusters that are more likely to correspond to target-like objects and rejects those more likely to be due to noise. The sequential detector tracks clusters in bearing, bearing rate-of-change, range, and range rate-of-change and identifies ones that have similar properties. These form sequential detections. When sequential detection is formed, the sequential detector predicts the properties of clusters from new pings that should be added to the sequential detection and searches for them. Clusters that do not match the properties of existing sequential detections are used to form possible new sequential detections. *Automatic Acoustic Track processing: The automatic acoustic target tracker (TT) function provides the capability to automatically track up to eight dipping sonar contacts. Four of these TTs, AT13 – AT16, are automatically initiated by the AP on the first four sequential detections that are created. The other four TTs, AT09 – AT12, are reserved for manual initiation whereby the operator is able to identify sequential detection of interest and have the AP begin automatic tracking. *Single shot track processing: In addition to the eight dipper auto-tracks, the AP also provides for up to eight other target tracks. These target tracks, designated AT01 – AT08, are manually initiated and are both manually and automatically updated. These tracks are used primarily for the tracking of sonobuoy related data, but it is also possible to manually enter dipping sonar based data into these tracks via “single shot” updates to the tracks *Manual tracks – Embedded training;

Answer 83

Dipping sonar acoustic post-processing (PP) functions include: cluster processing, sequential detection processing, automatic acoustic track processing, and single shot track processing. *Cluster processing: receives threshold crossing data for every cell that exceeded the signal processing detection threshold (controlled via the DIP THRESHOLD window) for the sonar ping waveform being processed. The threshold crossing data, in the form of a cluster, is then sent to the cluster filtering function. Cluster filtering then removes clusters from the cluster list which are not deemed target-like (to be considered target-like, a cluster must be larger than the minimum allowable size and smaller than the maximum allowable size), then computes bearing and range for each cluster remaining in the list. *Sequential Detector processing: clusters from cluster processing and identifies those clusters that are more likely to correspond to target-like objects and rejects those more likely to be due to noise. The sequential detector tracks clusters in bearing, bearing rate-of-change, range, and range rate-of-change and identifies ones that have similar properties. These form sequential detections. When sequential detection is formed, the sequential detector predicts the properties of clusters from new pings that should be added to the sequential detection and searches for them. Clusters that do not match the properties of existing sequential detections are used to form possible new sequential detections. *Automatic Acoustic Track processing: The automatic acoustic target tracker (TT) function provides the capability to automatically track up to eight dipping sonar contacts. Four of these TTs, AT13 – AT16, are automatically initiated by the AP on the first four sequential detections that are created. The other four TTs, AT09 – AT12, are reserved for manual initiation whereby the operator is able to identify sequential detection of interest and have the AP begin automatic tracking. *Single shot track processing: In addition to the eight dipper auto-tracks, the AP also provides for up to eight other target tracks. These target tracks, designated AT01 – AT08, are manually initiated and are both manually and automatically updated. These tracks are used primarily for the tracking of sonobuoy related data, but it is also possible to manually enter dipping sonar based data into these tracks via “single shot” updates to the tracks. (17-20)

Answer 84

* LOFAR/DIFAR Omni - provides spectrogram (gram) and automatic line integration (ALI) data for DIFAR sonobuoy inputs. In this processing option, bearing information is not produced and parameter tracks are not subject to phase-lock constraints. * DIFAR (Directional) - provides gram, ALI, and bearing versus frequency (BVF) data for DIFAR sonobuoy inputs. The AP is able to process directional modes on all eight channels simultaneously. * DIFAR Steered Cardioid - gram, ALI, and BVF data for a steered cardioid beam for DIFAR sonobuoy inputs. A sonobuoy cardioid is a beam which is formed in the AP using the sonobuoy’s omni, North/South, and East/West channels. -The main beam provides a theoretical 4.77 dB gain over non-cardioid DIFAR processing. The null response provides an approximately -10 dB response relative to non-cardioid DIFAR processing. Theroretical 3.4 dB * DIFAR Orthogonal Cardioid - Five data sets are produced – one for the omni channel and one for each of four cardioid beams pointing to the cardinal headings (North, East, South, West). -The benefit of the sonobuoy DIFAR orthogonal cardioid processing option is that there is an assured beam pattern gain regardless of the target bearing, ranging from a theoretical 4.77 dB gain best case (target at a cardinal heading) to a theoretical 3.4 dB worst case (target 45 degrees from a cardinal heading). * DIFAR Synthetic Omni - * DEMON (high or low) (17-26)

Answer 85

Octave Bands - also known as constant percentage resolution (CPR), provides a logarithmic frequency scale across each octave. The center frequency and width of each bin increases by the same ratio (0.27% per bin) across the entire processing range. The AP is able to produce data for octaves 0 through 8, selectable via AOP or JMPS as one of the following options: * No octaves; * Full band (Octaves 1–8); * Half band (Octaves 0–7); * Quarter band (Octaves 0–6); * Eighth band (Octaves 0–5). Vernier Bands - provides a linear frequency scale covering a fraction of the octave containing the center frequency. Each V4 band covers ¼ of the octave, and each V8 band covers one eighth of an octave. The width of a Vernier band is set based on the octave containing the center frequency of the Vernier. Unlike octave processing, Vernier bin widths are constant across the processing band. Constant Resolution Bands - provides a constant bin width across the entire processing range, which unlike Vernier bands, is independent of the center frequency. Six CR bands are available, referred to as CR4 – CR9. (17-27)

Answer 86

The gram rate processing parameter controls how often gram lines are produced. The AP performs “sum and dump” integration for the period specified in the gram rate setting. The gram rate selections are: * 1.25 seconds; * 2.5 seconds; * 5.0 seconds; * 10.0 seconds. Shorter gram time selections provide for a shorter total gram history window and improved performance against dynamic frequencies or transient signals. Longer gram time selections provide for a longer total gram history window and improved performance against relatively stable frequencies. (17-28)

Answer 87

AP parameter tracker (PT) processing is operator-initiated via the LINK TTRK window by cursor position from phase-locked DIFAR sonobuoys, whose narrowband processing bands are Vernier or constant resolution bands in an ALI, BVF, or gram Analysis display type. Once a parameter tracker has been created, the AP automatically processes the ALI data at 10-second intervals to find the strongest signal within +/- 10 frequency bins of the parameter tracker’s previous center frequency (the initial PT processing uses the operator-designate frequency). Parameter tracker processing estimates the PT signal-to-noise ratio, termed the Data Quality Index (DQI). DQI is the amplitude of signal peak divided by the average noise amplitude in neighborhood of signal peak. The DQI value for a PT is seen in the Data Amp region of the GEOSIT for a hooked parameter track. When the signal amplitude falls below a DQI value of four and remains there for six updates (60 seconds), the parameter tracker status is set to drop by the AP. AOP then deletes the parameter tracker. (17-32)

Answer 88

Full Training Mode - In the full training mode the AP synthesizes both background noise as well as the simulated target data. For this mode to be available the dipping sonar transducer must be in the seated position. Target Training Mode - In the target training mode the AP is processing actual ping return data from the dipping sonar subsystem and superimposing a simulated target return. This allows for a more realistic training experience. (17-34)

Answer 89

Dry Mode - the AP synthesizes background noise and simulated target data for the dipping sonar and sonobuoy displays. For this mode to be available, the dome must be in the seated position, or not installed. Wet No Ping Mode - ALFS is deployed, but a ping will not be commanded. (Still has clearing ping) Wet Ping Mode - the AP is processing actual ping return data from the dipping sonar and superimposing a simulated target return. Buoy Simulation - simulates the full engagement chain of an ASW mission including detection, localization, and prosecution with simulated sonobuoys. (17-35)

Answer 90

The antenna/pedestal (A/P) provides for controllable antenna position and azimuth drive for the radar and provides the radar and IFF interrogation signals to the planar array for transmission. The A/P also provides for interrogator and receiver side lobe suppression for the IFF interrogator R/T. The A/P subsystem consists of the azimuth drive assembly, A/P controller, a radome containing the IFF array attached to the X-band antenna face and an IFF receiver/transmitter assembly. The azimuth servo controller drives the antenna at mode-dependent speeds of 12 or 108 rpm, or up to 150 rpm for ARPDD modes. (18-1)

Answer 91

The RDP processes the raw radar and IFF interrogator data to form tracks which are presented to the operator on the mission display. The RDP receives digitized antenna azimuth and IFF replies from the A/P, radar video from the R/T, helicopter position from the EGI, and operator mode control command via the mission computer. The RDP provides digital pulse compression in selected modes, radar control, video processing, data communications, tracking and image processing. It also provides IFF interrogation control, IFF code validation and contact reply correlation. Microprocessors operate on these inputs to perform track while scan (TWS) automatic detection and tracking, IFF/track associations, and digital range/bearing video generation and distribution functions. In addition to the radar and IFF contact replies and associated track data reported to the mission computer, the RDP mixes digitized IFF contact data into the planned position indicator (PPI) video that is sent to the ship via data link. (18-2)

Answer 92

* Standby (STBY) * Short Range Search (SRCH SHORT) - 108 RPM; Radar: 100 yds - 16 NM; IFF: 100 yds -75 NM -Optimized to detect both large and small contacts at short ranges. Used for low-visibility approaches and situations requiring display of closely spaced contacts. * Long Range Search (SRCH LONG) - 12 RPM; Radar: 0.25 - 160 NM; IFF: 100 yds - 160 NM -Standard long-range surveillance detection mode of radar. * Coastal Search (SRCH CSTL) - 12 RPM; Radar: 0.25 - 160 NM; IFF: 100 yds - 160 NM -Optimized to display coastline detail. * Short Range Periscope Detect (PERI SHORT) - 108 RPM; Radar: 100 yds - 16 NM; IFF: 100 yds -75 NM -Optimized to detect small contacts such as periscopes at short ranges. * Long Range Periscope Detect (PERI LONG) - 108 RPM; Radar: 2-32 NM; IFF: 100 yds -75 NM -Optimized to detect small targets such as periscopes, submarine snorkels, mines, or lifeboats in the presence of sea clutter. * Automatic Radar Periscope Detection and Discrimination (PERI ARPDD)(AN/APS-153(V)1 only) - 154 RPM; Radar: 100 yards - 30 NM; IFF: 100 yards - 45 NM -Provides for range profile of a target. High range resolution tracks closely separated tracks. Detects probable periscopes and presents to the operator as symbols on the mission display. * Inverse Synthetic Aperture Radar (ISAR) - 0.5 - 160 NM -Provides for two-dimensional image of designated surface contact for purpose of identifying ship class. (18-6)

Answer 93

The radar provides for three levels of periscope detect (PD) integration times to improve false alarm rejection in low to medium sea states. The selection of PD integration times is accomplished by selecting the PINT LOW/MED/HIGH function from the RDR control menu. Normal operation to allow optimum detection of short exposure targets would be the PINT LOW setting. As sea states increase and the number of false alarms rises, the operator should select successively higher PINTs (MED/HIGH). The PINT function is applied to both the direct radar tracker channel and the Small Target Indicator (STI) channels in Periscope Detect Long and Short modes. (18-7)

Answer 94

Signatures provide a two-dimensional view of the reflected energy from a target displayed in terms of range and time. Signature colors reflect the amplitude of the return. There are three signature formats: * Regular Signature (SIG): Most useful for periscope detection. * Extended Signature (ESIG): ESIG size is determined by the discriminator and is most useful for determining target length and large scale features. Radar tracks must be labeled properly before ESIG is available for viewing. ESIG TIMEOUT will display if the radar track is not labeled as a probable periscope, small transient, small target, medium target, or large target. * Amplitude Scan (A-scan): Monochrome ESIG with only peak amplitude responses identified. Most useful for determining target architecture (analogous to ISAR A-scan characteristics). (18-8)

Answer 95

The radar provides an integral IFF interrogation function. IFF interrogations are provided for Modes 1, 2, 3/A, 3/C. IFF processing is integral to the RDP design. The IFF antenna and receiver/transmitter functions are part of the antenna/pedestal. Integration of the interrogator into the radar allows for correlated IFF replies to radar returns. (18-10)

Answer 96

Within 100 NM of the coast of the continental US, Hawaii and Alaska: – Interrogation is only permitted IAW current national (NMSC & FAA) and regional/local frequency assignments. – Interrogator radiation is limited to 1,000 ft AGL and below. – Interrogator use is authorized in RDR STBY, SRCH LONG and SRCH CSTL modes only. Interrogating in fast scan modes (SRCH SHORT, PERI SHORT, PERI LONG, and PERI ARPDD) is prohibited. – No more than five AN/APS-147 or AN/APS-153(V)1 interrogators radiating simultaneously in any one area. – Mode 3 and/or Mode C interrogations are limited to ten sweeps at a time (no continuous Mode 3 and/or Mode C interrogation). – Use of MIL MODE is prohibited. * Outside 100 NM of the coast of the continental US, Hawaii and Alaska: – Interrogator use is authorized in RDR STBY, SRCH LONG and SRCH CSTL modes only. Interrogating in fast scan modes (SRCH SHORT, PERI SHORT, PERI LONG, and PERI ARPDD) is prohibited.

Answer 97

For the scanning (non-ISAR) modes of operation, the radar provides automatic target detection and tracking capability for surveillance and targeting when the TRKR function is enabled. This function has the capability to automatically detect and track a maximum of 320 radar or IFF interrogator tracks (256 radar, 64 IFF). Radar and IFF track slots are assigned on a first-come, first-served basis. The AN/APS-153(V)1 radar provides automatic association of IFF interrogator replies to radar tracks, where possible and when enabled by the operator. Where association is not possible or there are no radar returns to associate with the IFF reply, the IFF is displayed independently. (18-10)

Answer 98

Persistence - Allows the operator to select the length of time before video decay of the PPI radar display (1 to 8). Gain - Allows the operator to select the signal amplification (1 to 8). Gain settings are saved for each separate radar mode. False Alarm Rate - Allows the operator to adjust the false alarm rate for the display of raw radar video. Ranges from 1 (minimum) to 16 (maximum). Power slide out menu. Allows the operator to set the level of the output power for the radar transmitter. Ranges from 1 (minimum) to 11 (maximum). Tracker Velocity - Allows selection of track velocities for the automatic tracker to process and display. (18-17)

Answer 99

The Automatic Identification System (AIS) is an automatic tracking system used on International Maritime Organization mandated ships and by vessel traffic services. It is used to identify and locate vessels by electronically exchanging data with other nearby ships and AIS base stations over VHF channels 161.975 MHz and 162.025 MHz. The SDSR is used to receive the AIS data transmitted from commercial ships. Additional capabilities allow filtering of AIS data via the TSS window and declutter control via the MD hotspot and ZONE 2 slide out menu. Amplification Data for AIS Tracks: AIS track amplification data is available by hook-selecting an AIS track, selecting pop-up, SYMB CTRL, then SYMB DETL. (18-28)

Answer 100

The electronic support measures (ESM) system (AN/ALQ-210) detects, identifies, locates, and reports radio frequency (RF) emissions. The ESM system has two functions. The first is electronic support (ES), functioning as an electronic warfare (EW) search, surveillance, and corroboration sensor. The second is to provide the aircrew with situational awareness regarding EW threats to the helicopter via the Helicopter Threat Warning (HTW) function. (19-1)

Answer 101

The ESM OFP (Operational Flight Program) operates based on the parameters it receives from the MDL files and performs BIT, system calibration, emitter detection, identification, and location functions. The ESM OFP software queues the receiver to measure and provide emitter reports containing frequency, frequency modulation, PRI/PRI type, pulse width, amplitude, bearing, modulation on pulse, and location and scan period/type if those analyses are active. The MDL (Mission Data Load) files serves as an emitter identification library. The emitter report is then compared to the parameters from the MDL file. If more than one library entry is matched, the software queues the receiver to make additional measurements to identify the emitter. Similarly, if a detected emitter is identified as a potential HTW, the ESM OFP software queues the receiver to perform additional measurements to determine hostile intent and active aircraft engagement. If the detected potential HTW emitter’s received amplitude and time parameters pass the threshold determinations for hostile intent or active engagement of the aircraft, the emitter is identified as an HTW. If the system is configured to do so, the aircrew will be alerted by the HTW function with audio and video cues. (19-1)

Answer 102

The ESM system antennas are four identical antennas, mounted on the nose (forward starboard and forward port) and transition section (aft starboard and aft port).The ESM antenna design divides the RF operating range into two primary bands: low band and high band. The ESM receiver processor further subdivides the RF operating ranges into six sub-bands. Each ESM antenna contains four separate, spiral antenna elements, two in low band and two in high band and passive RF electronics. Each antenna element pair in a single antenna forms an amplitude resolved phase array that has a minimum of 100° field of view. The ESM system employs a total of four antennas, with one in each aircraft quadrant. This enables a full 360° azimuth coverage and angle of arrival (AOA) measurement capability for each band. The ESM receiver processor can also select two adjacent antenna elements, within a band, to perform long baseline interferometer (LBI) measurements. LBI measurements are then used to determine emitter location. (19-1)

Answer 103

The HTW function alerts the aircrew that a threat has hostile intentions or is actively engaging the aircraft. Emitters are compared to the MDL file to determine whether the emitter is an HTW. When an emitter meets the HTW criteria, the crew is notified with various alerts. The following visual signals are displayed on the MD and GEOSIT: * HTW alert in reverse video red with black text Bearing line * NATO name * Range (if located) * Suspect symbol * AOU, if activated The HTW emitter symbol and bearing line flash on the FD at a 5 Hz rate and display a ring-of-fire for two seconds if aircraft survivability equipment (ASE) threat display is enabled. If the area of uncertainty function is active, geolocated HTWs and potential HTWs display an ellipse around the emitter (AOU for a geolocated potential HTW or HTW emitter). Unlocated HTWs and potential HTWs, display the AOU as a wedge propagated from the aircraft and centered on the emitter (AOU for an unlocated potential HTW or HTW emitter). (19-5)

Answer 104

The aircrew has the ability to view a list of emitters in the MDL and operator emitter library entries and to choose up to four for priority display with the EOI function. In addition, the EOI are pre-definable in the mission planner, using the MDL emitter list or all available emitters generated from the MDL and ESM operator library. Emitters of interest that are detected are displayed with “pointers” at the corners of their display symbols. If an EOI is also an HTW emitter, HTW symbols takes precedence over EOI symbols. (19-6)

Answer 105

An emitter’s scan type defines how its radar beam sweeps an area of space. Typical scan types include steady, circular, and sector scans. An emitter’s scan period is the time the beam takes to sweep through the same area of space. Scan modulation analysis (SMA) is a tool with which the operator can potentially break up ambiguities to precisely identify emitters. When scan measurements are initiated, the receiver must “stare” at the emitter of interest for the defined dwell time in order to collect the data required to perform the analysis. During this time, the receiver is dedicated to the scan, monopolizing the receiver in order to collect the required data. The aircraft must remain in the beam of the emitter in order to successfully complete the scan modulation analysis. Default is 10 seconds, can dwell as long as 300 seconds. (19-8)

Answer 106

Location can be performed using one of two techniques: electronic order of battle (PEOB) pre-programmed sites or long baseline interferometry (LBI) measurements. PEOB sites are pre-programmed into the MDL for specific emitter sites. PEOB location will be reported when the primary beam ID has matched the PEOB site from the MDL. It does not require operator request. If subsequent AoA measurements determine the beam no longer matches the PEOB site location, the emitter location will be removed and return to a bearing line display. LBI location uses phase measurements made between antennas from different antennas along the sides and across the front of the aircraft. LBI requires special analysis dwells to be run inside the ESM and can take several minutes to complete depending on the flight path of the aircraft in relation to the emitter location. LBI location estimates involve collecting data over a time interval. The time interval required to compute a location solution varies depending on the amount of data the ESM collects each time a detection is made, and how often the ESM scan is programmed to look for the emitter. Up to 16 requests at once. A letter representation of P or L will be displayed before the bearing/range for either PEOB, LBI location type (19-9)

Answer 107

When a detected emitter’s set of characteristics matches more than one MDL entry, it is considered an ambiguous ID. On the GEOSIT, display of an ambiguous ID is identified by the “#AMB” annotation to the lower right of the symbol and the "#" annotation next to NATO name in the data amplification area. The AMBIGUOUS ID window provides the best match/highest priority ID identified and a list of other selectable IDs (ambiguous IDs). The TL field indicates the threat level of the emitter as follows: * 1 = Unknown; * 2 = Non-threat; * 3 = Warning; * 4 = Imminent threat to a surface platform; * 5 = Imminent threat to an airborne platform. The maximum reported confidence from an ESM emitter is 95%. Operator library entries (air or ship) are reported as 95% confidence. (19-11)

Answer 108

The airborne ESM MDL files contain the data in the scan tables that directs the ESM receiver/processor how to search the environment (what frequencies, how often, and how long) in order to meet the quick response times required for some emitters. The ALQ-210 is dependent on library files to perform radar detection, helicopter threat warning, identification, scan, and location measurements. The ALQ-210 library files are not modifiable in the helicopter; however, the aircrew has the capability to modify each emitter’s identification. Up to eight ESM MDLs may be loaded in the JMPS mission plan. (19-15)

Answer 109

There are two ESM libraries available to the ESM system: * The airborne library contained in the emitter processing file, which is contained in the MDL. * The operator library. The ESM libraries consist of parametric data against which detected emitters are compared for purposes of identification and analysis. An air or ship (SLQ-32) operator can create or modify the operator library. A maximum of 20 operator library entries can be entered in the air, uplinked by the ship, or a combination of both. In helo control, air operators can view and modify the library’s parameters for these 20 entries. The operator library is only used for ID purposes; it does not modify the ESM baseline scan strategy. (19-19)

Answer 110

Kinematic Data - Overlapping areas of uncertainty (AOUs). Non-ambiguous overlaps. Compatible course/speed and altitude. Classification - Sites must match (air, land, surface, subsurface). Class must be compatible (friendly, assumed-friendly, neutral, suspect, hostile, unknown). Lower-level taxonomy must be compatible. Discriminators - Various track attributes (such as radar labels, target IDs, track numbers) are used to prevent incorrect correlations, either by reducing the probability of correlation or preventing altogether. Correlation Likelihood - All track correlation hypotheses are scored based on kinematic/classification criteria. A correlation likelihood threshold must be met for a hypothesis to be reported as a fused track. DF performs global optimization to report the most likely fused tracks for the entire tactical picture. (20-3)

Answer 111

Radar track life extension (RTLE) track symbology is the same as a fused track. However, a RTLE track can be distinguished from a regular fused track by: * Amplification data indicates “RTLE” in line 1. * Constituent list in line 6 will only contain an “R”. * A RTLE track symbol will be dashed, to indicate that it is dead reckoning. (20-5)

NRTP 3-22.4-MH60R, 18FEB22 Flashcards

(135 cards)