ITE CA2 Pharm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Ancef with hx penicillin allergy

A

Higher Risk
If the patient’s penicillin reaction was less than 10 years ago OR they had IgE-mediated symptoms after receiving a penicillin OR they had a severe non-IgE-mediated reaction, do not give cephalosporins. Recommend skin testing to the patient before future surgical procedures. If unsure about the reaction and timing, recommend skin testing prior to the administration of penicillins. Skin testing should not be recommended to patients who had a severe exfoliative past reaction to penicillin, such as toxic epidermal necrolysis.

Low Risk
If patient’s penicillin reaction is more than 10 years ago AND they had no IgE-mediated symptoms AND they had no severe non-IgE-mediated reactions, then they are low risk (< 1%) for having a reaction if they receive cephalosporins. The risk of anaphylaxis is very small in these patients.

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2
Q

mechanism of action of echinocandins and name some

A

caspofungin, micafungin and anidulafungin

Echinocandins are the preferred first line treatment of candidemia. They act by inhibiting 1,3-beta-D-glucan synthase and cell wall synthesis.

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3
Q

-azoles
name some
MoA
other considerations

A

The azole class of antifungals includes voriconazole, fluconazole, and itraconazole. These act by inhibiting the P-450 dependent enzyme 14-alpha-demethylase which converts lanosterol to ergosterol for the cell membrane. Both fluconazole and voriconazole have been used to treat candidemia. Itraconazole is not used for systemic infections. The azoles will inhibit cytochrome P-450 enzymes including CYP2C19, CYP3A4, and CYP2C9. Care must be taken when giving azole antifungals with other cytochrome metabolized medications.

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4
Q

Amphotericin B
MoA
side effects

A

Amphotericin B was the drug of choice for decades. It acts by binding ergosterol in fungal cell membranes causing cellular leaking and cell death. However several randomized clinical trials have shown non-inferiority with azole and echinocandin antifungals. Therefore these classes are now the preferred first line treatment of candidemia as amphotericin can be nephrotoxic, cardiotoxic, and associated with hypokalemia and anaphylaxis

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5
Q

Candida glabrata is intrinsically resistant to .

A

Candida glabrata is intrinsically resistant to fluconazole.

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6
Q

obesity and butyrylcholinesterase activity

A

increased

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7
Q

what drugs cause direct cerebral vasodilation

A

Calcium channel blockers, nitroglycerin, hydralazine, nitroprusside, and adenosine cause direct cerebral vasodilation.

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8
Q

Midaz in uremia

A

Uremia will result in a higher concentration of free-fraction, unbound midazolam. The dosage should, therefore, be decreased especially when used as premedication

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9
Q

where is angiotensinogen made

A

liver

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10
Q

what clotting factors are made outside the liver

A

3, 4, von willebrand (von w is made in liver and also in endothelial cells)

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11
Q

where are platelets made

A

megakaryocytes in the plasma

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12
Q

most common complication of retrobulbar block

A

retrobulbar hemorrhage

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13
Q

Clevidipine
class
metabolism
how are other drugs in its classed metabolized

A

Clevidipine is an intravenous, ultra-short acting, dihydropyridine calcium channel antagonist with selectivity for arteriolar vasodilation that is rapidly metabolized by plasma and red cell esterases providing its short duration of action. The other calcium channel blockers are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system in the liver.

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14
Q

Muscarinic effects of cholinergic drugs include

Nicotinic effects of cholinergic drugs include

A

Muscarinic effects of cholinergic drugs include bradycardia, bronchospasm, miosis, salivation, lacrimation, defecation, urination, and sweating.
Nicotinic effects of cholinergic drugs include muscle fasciculations, weakness, paralysis, and tachycardia.

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15
Q

Muscarinic effects with mnemonic

A

Mnemonic devices for muscarinic effects:
SLUDGE-Mi “Sludge Me”: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI upset, Emesis, Miosis
DUMBELS: Defecation/Diaphoresis, Urination, Miosis, Bradycardia/Bronchospasm, Emesis, Lacrimation, Salivation

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16
Q

how do dex and clonidine work

A

Alpha-2 receptors are found presynaptically and inhibit norepinephrine release. Clonidine and dexmedetomidine are alpha-2 agonists. They cause a decrease in sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, leading to sedation and bradycardia. Clonidine has a 200:1 selectivity for alpha-2 compared to alpha-1. Dexmedetomidine preferentially binds alpha-2 with a ratio of 1600:1.

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17
Q

The mechanism of beta-agonist induced bronchodilation is

A

The mechanism of beta-agonist induced bronchodilation is via Gs effects, cAMP generation, activation of protein kinase A, decreased intracellular calcium, and resulting airway muscle relaxation.

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18
Q

Stimulation of central (nicotinic or muscasrininc?) acetylcholine receptors can lead to seizures.

A

Stimulation of central nicotinic acetylcholine receptors can lead to seizures. Caution should be used in patients who are taking nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonists such as varenicline when considering the use of physostigmine to reverse central depressant effects of anticholinergic medications.

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19
Q

medications with nicotinic properties

A

medications with nicotinic properties include varenicline, bupropion, dextromethorphan, hexamethonium, and several nondepolarizing neuromuscular agents.

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20
Q

What is the anti-inflammatory mechanism of dexamethasone

A

Dexamethasone is a glucocorticoid that agonizes the NR3C1 receptor (also known as glucocorticoid receptor or GCR) to upregulate anti-inflammatory proteins and repress inflammatory mediator production. Steroids also inhibit prostaglandin synthesis at the beginning of the arachidonic acid pathway.

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21
Q

CYP 450 inducers

A
Rifampin
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Glucocorticoids
St. John's Wort
Tamoxifen
Phenobarbital, Primidone
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22
Q

CYP 450 inhibitors

A

Grapefruit juice
Protease inhibitors (ritonavir, indinavir)
Azole antifungals (ketoconazole, itraconazole)
Select SSRIs (above)
Cimetidine
Quinidine
Macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin, clarithromycin)

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23
Q
SSRIs and inhibition of CYP enzymes
Fluoxetine (Norfluoxetine)	
Fluvoxamine	
Paroxetine	
Sertraline	
Escitalopram	
Citalopram
A
Fluoxetine (Norfluoxetine)	3A4, 2D6
Fluvoxamine	3A4, 2D6, 2C9, 2C19
Paroxetine	2D6
Sertraline	2D6
Escitalopram	None
Citalopram	None
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24
Q

Cimetidine vs ranitidine

A

Of the two H2-receptor antagonists commonly used in the perioperative setting (cimetidine and ranitidine), ranitidine offers a longer duration of action and fewer side effects.

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25
Q

epi effect on blood vessels

A

The effect of epinephrine on blood vessels depends on the receptor. Alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction but beta receptors cause vasodilation.

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26
Q

Buprenorphine

A

Buprenorphine, a partial μ-receptor agonist, is a very effective agent at mitigating opioid withdrawal given its action at the μ-receptor itself. As a partial agonist, it has a ceiling effect for its analgesic and euphoric properties, as well for its respiratory depressive effects. It is often administered in combination with naloxone in an oral formulation to discourage its abuse.

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27
Q

Naloxone vs naltrexone

A

Naltrexone is an orally bioavailable opioid antagonist. It may be utilized during medication-assisted opioid withdrawal as the withdrawal period nears the end in order to antagonize the effects of opioids. This diminishes any benefit that a patient with an opioid-use disorder may experience should they attempt to further abuse opioids while on this therapy. Acute ingestion of naltrexone in a patient on chronic opioid therapy would precipitate or worsen withdrawal symptoms.

Because naloxone is not orally bioavailable, it has no clinical effect when taken orally in combination with buprenorphine. Should this formulation be abused, however, and either be injected or snorted, the naloxone bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism and exerts its antagonistic effect, precipitating an acute withdrawal. In this way, this formulation encourages the proper and safe use of the buprenorphine.

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28
Q

Omalizumab

A

Omalizumab is a monoclonal anti-IgE antibody. It is used as an antihistamine anti-inflammatory for patients with severe asthma.

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29
Q

Budesonide

A

Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid that blocks late-phase reactions to allergens, reduces airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibits inflammatory cell migration and activation.

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30
Q

Mepolizumab

A

Mepolizumab prevents eosinophil action by blocking interleukin-5.

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31
Q

Montelukast

A

Montelukast is a leukotriene modifier used as an alternative to long-acting beta agonist in treating mild intermittent asthma

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32
Q

Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

A

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is an antibody synthesized by plasma cells essential in type I hypersensitivity as well as in anti-parasitic immunity. Type I hypersensitivity involves an immunologic reaction to a repeat allergen exposure. This reaction may manifest in a variety of ways including mild allergic rhinitis as well as anaphylactic shock.

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33
Q

Tramadol receptors

A

It is a μ-opioid receptor agonist, NMDA antagonist, and norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitor

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34
Q

gabapentin mechanism

A

The mechanism is decreased transmission of pain resulting from inhibition of voltage-gated calcium channels via binding of the α2-δ subunit.
that results in decreased release of glutamate
which results in decreased production of pain mediator substance P

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35
Q

examples of direct muscarinic acetylcholine agonists.

A

Bethanechol, carbachol, and pilocarpine are examples of direct muscarinic acetylcholine agonists. These drugs are resistant to breakdown by acetylcholinesterase.

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36
Q

hydrophilic vs lipophilic opioids in spinal

A

Hydrophilic opioids, which tend to remain within the CSF, have the potential to produce a delayed but longer duration of analgesia. They also cause a generally higher incidence of side effects because of cephalic or supraspinal spread of these compounds. Lipophilic opioids, such as fentanyl and sufentanil, tend to provide a rapid onset of analgesia and their rapid clearance from CSF may limit cephalic spread and the development of certain side effects such as delayed respiratory depression.

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37
Q

Dexamethasone site of action

A

Dexamethasone’s antiemetic activity is likely mediated via central inhibition of the nucleus tractus solitarii.

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38
Q

Muscle weakness from high magnesium concentrations results from

A

Muscle weakness from high magnesium concentrations results from inhibition of calcium influx, leading to reduced acetylcholine release.

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39
Q

lidocaine and seizures

A

Lidocaine decreases seizure duration and should be avoided during ECT.

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40
Q

Terbutaline moa

A

Terbutaline can be used to slow or halt premature labor via its selective ß2-agonism, which results in uterine relaxation. Like all catecholaminergic agents, it exhibits dose-dependent interaction with other catecholaminergic receptors. Further, this interaction varies from patient to patient.

Glucose intolerance as a consequence of oral terbutaline treatment.

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41
Q

Diltiazem

A

Diltiazem is unique among the calcium channel blockers in its ability to act on both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle at clinically-relevant doses. Thus, it acts as both a vasodilator and a cardiac depressant, decreasing peripheral vascular resistance and dilating coronary arteries with little-to-no reflex tachycardia.

42
Q

atropine paired with what for reversal

A

Neostigmine is typically combined with glycopyrrolate while edrophonium is paired with atropine.

43
Q

echothipohate eye drops effect on NMBD

A

Reduction in plasma cholinesterase levels after prolonged administration of echothiophate iodide eye drops occurs, which would result in prolongation of succinylcholine as well.

44
Q

cyanide tox tx

A

Hydroxocobalamin is first line therapy for patients with cyanide toxicity.

45
Q

combustion of synthetic materials can lead to

A

cyanide toxicity

46
Q

how ACI-i cause cough

A

ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and substance P, which accumulates in the upper respiratory tract or lungs thereby causing coughing.

47
Q

nitroprusside moa

A

mechanism of action relies on its breakdown to nitric oxide

48
Q

how does a spinal wear off

A

Redistribution of local anesthetics from the intrathecal space is responsible for the termination of neuraxial blockade. Factors that speed this recovery include the cerebrospinal fluid volume, large distribution of local anesthetic, and use of a hydrophilic local anesthetic. No drug metabolism of local anesthetics occurs within the intrathecal space.

49
Q

Meperidine metabolite

A

Meperidine is metabolized in the liver to normeperidine, which can cause seizures.

50
Q

Ketamine CMRO2.

A

Ketamine increases CMRO2.

51
Q

Ketamine heart

A

The predominant hemodynamic effect of ketamine is indirect myocardial stimulation. Some direct myocardial depression is seen, however this is almost never clinically significant due to the indirect stimulation effects, even in critically ill patients.

52
Q
Drug - Dosing weight
Thiopental	 
 Propofol	 
 Fentanyl	 
 Remifentanil	 
 Succinylcholine	 
 Vecuronium	 
 Rocuronium	 
 Cisatracurium
A
Thiopental	 LBW (Induction); TBW (Maintenance)
 Propofol	 LBW (Induction); TBW (Maintenance)
 Fentanyl	 LBW (lean)
 Remifentanil	 LBW
 Succinylcholine	 TBW (total)
 Vecuronium	 IBW (ideal body weight)
 Rocuronium	 IBW
 Cisatracurium	 IBW
53
Q

Hydromorphone metabolism

A

Hydromorphone is primarily metabolized to hydromorphone-3-glucuronide which provides no analgesic effects. Buildup of renally-excreted hydromorphone-3-glucuronide can lead to neuroexcitatory effects including agitation, restlessness, and myoclonus.

54
Q

botulism treatment

A

The mainstay of treatment for botulism includes human derived immune globulin in patients less than one year of age and equine derived antitoxin in patients over one year of age. Supportive therapies are also important and includes intubation as needed.

55
Q

drug of choice for morphine spinal itching

A

Pruritus is a very common side effect of neuraxial morphine. Nalbuphine is the drug of choice and antihistamines have little or no effect (other than causing sedation).

56
Q

Alfentanil pKa and fraction of nonionized drug at physiologic pH

A

Alfentanil has the lowest pKa (6.5) and highest fraction of nonionized drug at physiologic pH.

57
Q

what determines opioid duration of action

A

The duration of effect of opioids, unlike many other drugs, is not primarily determined by drug elimination, but more importantly, by lipid solubility. Morphine has a longer onset time and duration of action because it has a more difficult time crossing and then leaving the blood-brain (or blood-spinal cord) barrier due to a lower lipid solubility. By contrast, the more lipid-soluble fentanyl has a shorter onset and duration of action since it readily crosses, and leaves, the blood-brain barrier.

58
Q

Treatment for status epilepticus includes:

A

Treatment for status epilepticus includes:
First Line: benzodiazepines.
Second Line: fosphenytoin, phenytoin, valproic acid, or levetiracetam.
Third Line: propofol or phenobarbital.

59
Q

benzo dosing for status epilepticus

A

IV - lorazepam - 4mg slow - 0.1mg/kg peds
IM - midazolam - 10mg - 0.2mg/kg peds
Rectal - Diazepam - 10mg - 0.5 mg/kg peds

midaz can also be given IV

60
Q

selectivity of beta blockers

A
Nonselective β antagonist
Propranolol	
Nadolol
Timolol
Pindolol
Sotalol

Nonselective β and selective α1 antagonist
Carvedilol
Labetalol

Selective β1 antagonist
Bisoprolol	
Betaxolol
Esmolol
Atenolol
Acebutolol
Metoprolol
61
Q

The cardioselective beta blockers
list
effects

A

The cardioselective beta blockers include esmolol, atenolol, and metoprolol, which reduce chronotropy (heart rate), dromotropy (AV node conduction), and inotropy (contractility) to decrease myocardial oxygen demand and increase supply (more time in diastole).

TrueLearn Insight : A mnemonic to recall the beta-1 selective beta-blockers is “BEAM” (β1, bisoprolol, betaxolol, esmolol, atenolol, acebutolol, metoprolol).

62
Q

Alvimopan

A

Alvimopan is a potent µ-receptor antagonist which does not cross the blood-brain barrier. It is used to help prevent postoperative ileus while allowing continuation of pain management with opioids.

63
Q

Diphenoxylate

A

Diphenoxylate is a phenylpiperidine opioid that is used clinically in the management of severe diarrhea. It acts primarily as an agonist at enteric µ-receptors but can cross the BBB and, in adequate doses, produces euphoria. The drug is typically administered orally in combination with atropine to limit its addictive potential via undesirable anticholinergic side effects. Given its clinical application, this drug may worsen POI

64
Q

opioid receptors are what coupled

A

g protein

65
Q
opioid receptors
µ1: 
µ2: 
κ: 
δ:
A

µ1: supraspinal analgesia, physical dependence
µ2: respiratory depression, miosis, euphoria, reduced gastrointestinal motility, physical dependence
κ: Spinal analgesia, sedation, miosis, inhibition of antidiuretic hormone release
δ: Analgesia, euphoria, physical dependence

66
Q

Sympathetic drugs metabolic effects

A

Sympathetic drugs have effects across multiple organ systems and can cause metabolic effects including hyperglycemia, increased free fatty acids, and hypokalemia through alpha- and beta-receptor activation.

67
Q

Thiopental in neuro

A

Barbiturate
The cerebral flow-metabolism relationship and cerebral autoregulation remain intact with the use of thiopental. Thiopental decreases both CBF and CMRO2 by 30% with induction doses and by 50% upon achievement of an isoelectric EEG.

68
Q

Codeine metabolism

A

The CYP 2D6 enzyme pathway is responsible for the metabolism of codeine to morphine, its active metabolite. Individuals with poor activity of this enzyme pathway are likely to experience treatment failure with codeine therapy.

69
Q

2C19

A

metabolism of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), diazepam, propranolol, and several antidepressants.

70
Q

2C9

A

glipizide, losartan, phenytoin, and warfarin

71
Q

norepi receptors

A

norepinephrine binds primarily alpha receptors causing intense vasoconstriction but also beta-1 receptors. Thus norepinephrine is indicated for hypotension due to vasodilation such as sepsis.

72
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Isoproterenol is a beta receptor agonist only leading to increased inotropy and chronotropy, but also causes vasodilation. Isoproterenol is indicated for bradycardia in third-degree heart block or in a denervated heart after recent cardiac transplant.

73
Q

Bronchospasm algorithm, especially the other IV drug

A

Treatment includes removing the offending stimulus, applying positive airway pressure, increasing FiO2, and administering inhaled beta-agonists. For bronchospasm that does not resolve with the preceding measures, intravenous epinephrine or the beta-agonist salbutamol may be needed in order to relax bronchial smooth muscle.

74
Q

non-depolarizing NMBDs, competitive or non-competitive

A

competitive

75
Q

why precedex cause bradycardia

A

Certain adrenergic agonists, specifically the alpha2-agonists dexmedetomidine and clonidine, are able to cross the blood-brain barrier. Thus they are able to bind to presynaptic alpha-2 receptors which decrease norepinephrine release leading to a decrease in sympathetic tone. This is responsible for the cardiovascular effects such as bradycardia and the CNS effects of sedation.

76
Q

how do we get dopamine to the brain

A

Dopamine is unable to cross the blood-brain barrier. In order to have its effects in the CNS, dopamine must be synthesized in the brain, be given as the precursor levodopa, or be affected by indirect sympathomimetics.

77
Q

what drug can increase tracheal tone

A

Succinylcholine, a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug, has been infrequently observed to increase tracheal tone. This is postulated to be a result of its ability to act as a surrogate for acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors, leading to undesirable vagal stimulation.

78
Q

treatment for absence seizures and MoA

A

only ethosuximide is used exclusively for the treatment of absence seizures. Its mechanism involves blockade of T-type calcium channels (which possess a corticothalamic distribution), resulting in a reduction in excessive excitatory activity.

79
Q

The opioid antagonist naloxone binds the opioid receptor with the greatest affinity

A

The opioid antagonist naloxone binds the μ opioid receptor with the greatest affinity. Antagonism of the μ receptor reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression but may also reverse analgesia.

80
Q

Dobutamine MoA

A

Dobutamine is a synthetic adrenergic agonist that increases cardiac contractility by stimulating the β1 receptor. Other cardiac effects of β1 stimulation include increased dromotropy, chronotropy, and lusitropy. Epinephrine and norepinephrine also bind β1 receptors.

81
Q

α2 receptor stimulation causes peripheral

A

α2 receptor stimulation causes peripheral vasodilation

82
Q

Stimulation of β2 receptors results in peripheral

A

Stimulation of β2 receptors results in peripheral vasodilation and bronchodilation

83
Q

β3 stimulation results in .

A

β3 stimulation results in increased lipolysis.

84
Q

Stimulation of β1 receptors causes

A

Stimulation of β1 receptors causes increased cardiac inotropy (contractility), chronotropy (heart rate), dromotropy (speed of conduction through the atrioventricular node), and lusitropy (rate of relaxation).

85
Q

α1 receptors in the iris

A

Mydriasis occurs when α1 receptors in the iris are stimulated, causing contraction of the radial muscle

86
Q

what do epi and norepi bind

A

Epinephrine binds all 5 adrenergic receptors. Norepinephrine has a high affinity for α1 receptors. It also binds β1 and β2 receptors although the affinity for β1 is much higher.

87
Q

onset and duration of H2 blockers

A

Drug Onset (hours) Duration (hours)
Cimetidine 1-1.5 3-4
Ranitidine 1 9-10
Famotidine 1 10-12

88
Q

preop lorazepam

A

Lorazepam premedication can prolong extubation times and does not improve patient satisfaction scores.

89
Q

preop clonidine

A

Clonidine decreases MAC but can increase the risk of hypotension and bradycardia.

90
Q

preop fentanyl

A

Fentanyl premedication may actually sensitize patients to pain postoperatively.

91
Q

preop scopolamine

A

Scopolamine is more likely than atropine to cause central anticholinergic syndrome.

92
Q

propofol FDA handling guidelines

A

Due to reports of bacterial contamination and patient reactions, strict aseptic technique should be used when handling propofol, it should be used within 12 hours of opening the vial, all vials should be used for only 1 patient, and it should not be given through the same line as blood or plasma products.

93
Q

what do you give after nuclear bomb exposure

A

Potassium iodide is effective at reducing I-131 uptake by the thyroid and reduces the incidence of radiation exposure related thyroid complications.

94
Q

max dose of neostigmine and what happens if exceeded

A

Patients who receive an excessive amount of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor are at an increased risk of developing weakness. The recommended maximum dose of neostigmine is 0.07 mg/kg.

95
Q

how does neostigmine affect succinylcholine.

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors also inhibit plasma butyrylcholinesterase, which can prolong the effects of succinylcholine.

96
Q

what does NDNB pretreatment do for succ administration and what does it not do

A

The occurrence of succinylcholine-induced fasciculations and increases in ICP and intragastric pressure may be decreased by NDNB pretreatment. Increases in IOP will occur despite pretreatment and current recommendations are to avoid succinylcholine in open-eye injuries.

97
Q

n extreme hemodynamic instability, such as multi-system trauma with refractory shock, an option to provide amnesia.

A

n extreme hemodynamic instability, such as multi-system trauma with refractory shock, scopolamine 5 mcg/kg IV (0.2-0.4 mg for an adult) is an option to provide amnesia. It is worth noting that this may interfere with subsequent neurologic examinations because of its long half-life.

98
Q

what type of receptor is
postganglionic parasympathetic
NMJ

A

postganglionic parasympathetic receptors (muscarinic) and neuromuscular junction receptors (nicotinic).

99
Q

treatment for organophosphate poisoning

A

Pharmacologic treatment consists of pralidoxime and atropine, although there is debate on the effectiveness of pralidoxime. Pralidoxime works by binding to the organophosphate molecules and reactivating acetylcholinesterase. By reactivating acetylcholinesterase, it is effective in treating both muscarinic and nicotinic symptoms. It generally only works if given within the first 48 hours of exposure. Atropine is a cholinergic antagonist at the muscarinic receptors, therefore preventing cholinergic parasympathetic activity. It is therefore most useful for drying pulmonary secretions and treating bradycardia.

100
Q

treat the hypertension and hypokalemia associated with primary hyperaldosteronism.

A

Spironolactone, a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, is used to treat the hypertension and hypokalemia associated with primary hyperaldosteronism. Potassium supplementation and additional antihypertensives are usually required when first initiating treatment.