Exam 1

Question 1

1) Which of the following is NOT considered a macronutrient?
a) Carbohydrate
b) Fat
c) Protein
d) Vitamins

Answer 1

d) Vitamins

Question 2

2) Physiologic processes take place in the body to keep body temperature, heart rate, and blood sugar relatively constant. This stable state is called:
a) anabolism.
b) catabolism.
c) homeostasis.
d) metabolism.

Answer 2

c) homeostasis.

Question 3

3) A processed food is defined as:
a) having more than five ingredients.
b) requiring heating or cooking before it can be eaten.
c) a food which has had preservatives added.
d) any food that has been changed from its natural state.

Answer 3

d) any food that has been changed from its natural state.

Question 4

4) Which of the following statements about the typical American diet is true?
a) Intake of whole grains is above the recommended level and less energy is consumed than expended.
b) Intake of whole grains is low and more energy is consumed than expended.
c) Intake of fiber is adequate and intake of fruits and vegetables is less than recommended.
d) Intake of fiber is low and fruit and vegetable intake is above recommended levels.

Answer 4

b) Intake of whole grains is low and more energy is consumed than expended.

Question 5

5) Where do most people in the U.S. get their nutrition information?
a) Dietitians
b) Mass media, i.e., television, magazines and newspapers
c) Physicians
d) Talk radio

Answer 5

b) Mass media, i.e., television, magazines and newspapers

Question 6

19) A substance found in plants which cannot be made by the body and is not necessary to sustain life, but has healthful benefits, is:
a) an herbal supplement.
b) a phytochemical.
c) an enzyme.
d) a zoochemical.

Answer 6

b) a phytochemical.

Question 7

20) Which of the following yields energy but is not considered a nutrient?
a) Alcohol
b) Carbohydrate
c) Fat
d) Protein

Answer 7

a) Alcohol

Question 8

21) The energy provided by foods is measured in:
a) BTUs.
b) kilocalories.
c) thermal equivalents.
d) watts.

Answer 8

b) kilocalories.

Question 9

22) Which of the following conditions does NOT represent a state of malnutrition?
a) Weight loss as a result of increasing physical activity.
b) Vitamin A toxicity as a result of excessive intake of vitamin supplements.
c) Osteoporosis as a result of long-term inadequate intake of calcium and vitamin D.
d) Overweight status as a result of regular ingestion of large portions of energy-dense foods.

Answer 9

a) Weight loss as a result of increasing physical activity.

Question 10

26) A measure of the nutrient content of a food compared to its energy content is referred to as
a) Healthy Food Index.
b) nutrient score.
c) dietary reference intake.
d) nutrient density.

Answer 10

d) nutrient density.

Question 11

30) Which of the following nutrients are NOT organic molecules?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Minerals

Answer 11

d) Minerals

Question 12

35) Processed foods and convenience foods tend to ______ compared to freshly prepared foods.
a) provide more kcalories
b) contain fewer nutrients
c) be higher in fat, sugar, or salt
d) All of these statements are true

Answer 12

d) All of these statements are true

Question 13

36) Which of the following functions is performed by members of all six classes of nutrients?
a) Provide energy
b) Form structures
c) Regulate body processes
d) All of these functions are performed by each of the six classes of nutrients

Answer 13

c) Regulate body processes

Question 14

37) Under-nutrition does not include:
a) starvation reflecting a deficiency of energy.
b) eating too much saturated fat.
c) the deficient intake of single nutrients.
d) the inability to absorb a particular nutrient.

Answer 14

b) eating too much saturated fat.

Question 15

38) An adverse or toxic reaction is most likely to occur if:
a) an individual overuses vitamin and/or mineral supplements.
b) the individual cannot absorb nutrients efficiently.
c) the individual’s diet is not varied enough.
d) the individual overeats a particular food.

Answer 15

a) an individual overuses vitamin and/or mineral supplements.

Question 16

39) The recommendation to eat everything in “moderation” refers to:
a) including each food group in the diet.
b) including a variety of foods from within each food group.
c) selecting appropriate portion sizes.
d) varying the foods eaten from day to day, week to week and season to season.

Answer 16

c) selecting appropriate portion sizes.

Question 17

1) _________ are units of matter that cannot be further broken down by chemical means.
a) Organic compounds
b) Cells
c) Atoms
d) Solvents

Answer 17

c) Atoms

Question 18

2) Nutrients classified as “organic molecules” have a molecular structure which contains the element:
a) carbon.
b) oxygen.
c) nitrogen.
d) sulfur.

Answer 18

a) carbon.

Question 19

Which of the following is an energy-yielding nutrient?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Minerals
C. Vitamins
D. Water
E. All of the above are energy yielding

Answer 19

A. Carbohydrate

Question 20

Which class of nutrients is needed in larger quantities than all the rest?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Lipids
D. Water

Answer 20

D. Water

Question 21

A nutrient is essential if it:
A. must be consumed by the diet
B. cannot be made by the body
C. provides kcalories
D. both A&B
E. all the above

Answer 21

D. both A&B

Question 22

A substance in foods used by the body for energy, maintanence/growth of body structures, or regulation of chemical processes is known as a/an
A. functional foods
B. nutrient
C. organic compound
D. phytochemical

Answer 22

B. nutrient

Question 23

the leading causes of death in 1900 in the U.S. were ________; today the leading causes are _______.
A. autoimmune diseases; chronic diseases
B. chronic diseases; infectious diseases
C. infectious diseases; chronic diseases
D. infectious diseases; autoimmune diseases

Answer 23

C. infectious diseases; chronic diseases

Question 24

Minerals are classified as either:
A. simple or complex
B. organic or inorganic
C. essential or nonessential
D. major or trace
E. fat or water soluble

Answer 24

D. major or trace

Question 25

In the US, what fraction of the adult population is classified as having a “health” or “normal” weight?
A. one-quater
B one third
C. one half
D. two thirds

Answer 25

B one third

Question 26

6) The correct sequence of events in the scientific method is:
a) conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, form a theory, and make an observation.
b) develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, make an observation, and form a theory.
c) form a theory, conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, and make an observation.
d) make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.

Answer 26

d) make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.

Question 27

8) Approximately 1000 college students were asked to keep a record of what supplemental vitamins they took and how many colds they had over the course of a year. The amount of vitamin C consumed was compared with the students’ incidences of colds. This is an example of a(an):
a) clinical trial.
b) epidemiological study.
c) intervention study.
d) laboratory study.

Answer 27

b) epidemiological study.

Question 28

9) Which of the following is the BEST reason to include a placebo in the experimental design of a human intervention trial?
a) The researchers do not know who is receiving an intervention and who is not.
b) Placebos reduce the cost of the study.
c) It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research.
d) It makes it possible to include a larger number of subjects in the experiment.

Answer 28

c) It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research.

Question 29

10) One group of individuals is asked to eat a diet high in fruits, vegetables and dairy foods while a second group of individuals is asked to eat a diet with lower amounts of fruits, vegetables and dairy foods. The two groups’ blood pressure readings are monitored and compared. This is an example of a(an):
a) case-control study.
b) epidemiological study.
c) intervention study.
d) laboratory study.

Answer 29

c) intervention study.

Question 30

11) Comparison of the amount of a particular nutrient consumed with the amount of the nutrient excreted is characteristic of a(an):
a) balance study.
b) collection study.
c) depletion-repletion study.
d) epidemiological study.

Answer 30

a) balance study.

Question 31

12) Which is NOT a true statement about nutritional studies using animals?
a) Animal studies can be more easily controlled than human studies.
b) The digestive system of some animals is quite different from humans, making these animals inappropriate choices for some studies.
c) The choice of the animal studied may influence the outcome of the study.
d) Results from animal studies can always be readily extrapolated to humans.

Answer 31

d) Results from animal studies can always be readily extrapolated to humans.

Question 32

13) Which of the following describes a hypothesis?
a) A conclusion based on many studies with similar outcomes.
b) An idea based upon no observable phenomena.
c) A fact stated in a textbook.
d) An educated guess made to explain an observation.

Answer 32

d) An educated guess made to explain an observation.

Question 33

17) One important principle of a healthy diet is to eat a variety of foods. In this context, “variety” refers to:
a) choosing at least one food from each food group on the Food Pyramid daily.
b) including low calorie food choices to balance high calorie foods at each meal.
c) choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups.
d) making sure portion sizes are matched to energy needs.

Answer 33

c) choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups.

Question 34

1) Recommended Dietary Allowances were first published in which decade?
a) 1920s
b) 1940s
c) 1960s
d) 1980s

Answer 34

b) 1940s

Question 35

23) What is true regarding the differences between a hypothesis and a theory?
a) A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning.
b) Hypotheses are not tested; theories are tested.
c) Theories are the foundations of hypotheses.
d) A hypothesis is tested using quantifiable data; theories are tested using subjective data.

Answer 35

a) A hypothesis is an educated guess and a theory is based on scientific study and reasoning.

Question 36

27) Researchers are interested in whether caffeine has any effect on short-term memory. A study is designed in which two groups of subjects are given capsules that look identical. Group A receives capsules containing caffeine and Group B receives capsules containing powdered sugar. Group B is being given a:
a) catalyst.
b) placebo.
c) stimulant.
d) simulation factor.

Answer 36

b) placebo.

Question 37

29) The discipline which explores the relationship between genetic variation and nutrition is called:
a) nutrigenomics.
b) genetic nutritional variation.
c) nutritional genomic analysis.
d) nutrient gene factor identification.

Answer 37

a) nutrigenomics.

Question 38

40) Nutrients are classified according to their chemical properties. What are the six classes of nutrients? Which are macronutrients? Which are micronutrients?

Answer 38

Macronutrients Micronutrients

Water Vitamins

Carbohydrates Minerals

Proteins

Fats

Question 39

41) A serving of hot chocolate provides 5 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein and 28 grams of carbohydrate. How many kcalories are in the serving of hot chocolate?

Answer 39

5 X 9= 45

2 X 4= 8

28 X 4=112

165 kCalories

Question 40

42) Americans are replacing more and more home cooked meals with meals from fast food restaurants. a) What are the nutritional impacts of this trend? b) How does this trend influence disease risk?

Answer 40

a) Larger portions increase energy intake beyond needs; tend to be higher in fat, sodium, and sugar.
b) Along with lack of physical activity, increases risk of chronic diseases such as diabetes, obesity, heart disease, and cancer.

Question 41

43) Describe the three general functions of nutrients.

Answer 41

Provide energy: Carbohydrate, protein and lipids undergo biochemical reactions that provide energy for synthesis, basic body functions and physical activity

Forming structures: bones, muscles, cells are formed from protein, fats, minerals

Regulating Body Processes: all 6 classes of nutrients regulate various body processes and function to maintain homeostasis

Question 42

47) Describe what is meant by the term control group and explain why a well designed experiment includes a control group.

Answer 42

A group of participants in a study who are treated the same as subjects in an experimental group, except that no experimental treatment is implemented. They would receive a placebo to control bias. A control group is used as a basis of comparison.

Question 43

53) Mrs. Sandoz’ fourth grade class spent several class periods learning about nutrition. They learned about MyPyramid and how eating a healthy diet could benefit them. Mr. Danner’s fourth grade class, in the same building, did not have a unit on nutrition. After the nutrition unit was finished in Mrs. Sandoz’ class, researchers looked at the selections students made in the cafeteria and how much food was consumed and thrown away by each class to see if the nutrition education had an effect on the students’ eating habits.
a) What type of study was this?
b) Which classroom was the control classroom?
c) Which classroom was the experimental group?
d) What other factors affect students’ choice of food, besides what they know about health and food?

Answer 43

a) Case control/Clinical Trial
b) Mr. Danner’s
c) Mrs. Sandoz’s
d) Availability, Cultural and Family Background, Social Acceptability, Personal Preference, Psychological and Emotional Factors

Question 44

54) What is epidemiology? Compare the type of information obtained from epidemiological studies to that obtained from human intervention studies.

Answer 44

Epidemiology observes the relationships between diet and health among population groups and identifies patterns or correlations among patterns and disease.

Human intervention studies test hypotheses that arise from epidemiological studies. Intervention studies use experiments to intervene in individual lives and test a hypothesis so that a theory may be developed.

Question 45

2) Which is NOT a goal of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)?
a) Prescribing what a person should eat each day
b) Prevention of nutrient deficiencies
c) Promotion of healthful eating
d) Reduction of chronic diseases

Answer 45

a) Prescribing what a person should eat each day

Question 46

3) The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 97-98%

Answer 46

d) 97-98%

Question 47

4) The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for a selected nutrient would meet the needs of approximately what percentage of individuals in a population?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 99%

Answer 47

b) 50%

Question 48

5) Which is TRUE regarding Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs)?
a) For some groups, there is an established benefit of consuming nutrients at this level.
b) It is a not a recommended level for consumption.
c) Consuming nutrients at this level will probably cause adverse health effects.
d) The UL is set at the level of intake that causes adverse effects in 5% of the population .

Answer 48

b) It is a not a recommended level for consumption.

Question 49

6) Which is the FALSE statement regarding RDAs?
a) RDAs recommend amounts of nutrients that can serve as a goal for individual intake.
b) The RDAs are one component of the DRIs.
c) The EARs are derived from the RDAs.
d) RDAs are often used in menu planning.

Answer 49

c) The EARs are derived from the RDAs.

Question 50

7) Which would most likely be used to plan menus for a school breakfast and lunch program?
a) AIs
b) DRVs
c) RDAs
d) ULs

Answer 50

c) RDAs

Question 51

8) Which is NOT included in the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
a) Limit your intake of saturated fat, cholesterol, and trans fat.
b) Limit consumption of foods containing refined grains and added sugars.
c) Exercise three times a week.
d) Balance calories to maintain weight.

Answer 51

c) Exercise three times a week.

Question 52

9) The purpose of the AMDRs is to:
a) make recommendations for the proportions of fats, carbohydrates and proteins that make up a healthy diet.
b) inform people how to choose from all the different food groups.
c) allow individuals to calculate their energy needs and to determine how their diet meets these needs.
d) encourage individuals to make healthy food choices.

Answer 52

a) make recommendations for the proportions of fats, carbohydrates and proteins that make up a healthy diet.

Question 53

10) The variables used to calculate Estimated Energy Requirements include:
a) age, BMI, weight and gender.
b) age, gender, weight, height, and physical activity level.
c) physical activity level, gender and BMI.
d) gender, age, weight, physical activity level and proportions of kcals consumed as fats.

Answer 53

b) age, gender, weight, height, and physical activity level.

Question 54

11) Which is NOT a goal or objective of the Healthy People Initiative?
a) Eliminating health disparities among Americans
b) Decreasing prevalence of obesity among adults
c) Increasing the number of formula-fed infants in the U.S.
d) Reduction of deaths due to heart disease

Answer 54

c) Increasing the number of formula-fed infants in the U.S.

Question 55

12) The nutritional analysis of a diet that follows The MyPlate recommendations would most closely resemble which DRI group?
a) EARs
b) RDAs
c) AIs
d) ULs

Answer 55

b) RDAs

Question 56

13) Which is typically not found on a Nutrition Facts label?
a) Calories from fat
b) Calories per serving as compared to comparable products
c) Percent daily values for key nutrients
d) Serving size

Answer 56

b) Calories per serving as compared to comparable products

Question 57

14) A healthy eating pattern emphasizes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) nutrient-dense foods.
b) medium amounts of high protein foods.
c) consuming more oils than solid fats.
d) eating 3 servings of foods containing refined grains per day.

Answer 57

d) eating 3 servings of foods containing refined grains per day.

Question 58

15) Which is the FALSE statement regarding the MyPlate guidelines?
a) No matter your caloric requirements, MyPlate can be effectively used as a guide for eating.
b) MyPlate Daily Food Plan does NOT include recommendations for physical activity.
c) The amount of the plate covered by each food group is proportional to the amount each group should contribute to a healthy diet.
d) MyPlate emphasizes proportionality, variety, moderation and nutrient density.

Answer 58

b) MyPlate Daily Food Plan does NOT include recommendations for physical activity.

Question 59

16) How is the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label determined?
a) By contribution to total weight
b) By contribution to total volume
c) By nutrient density
d) In alphabetical order

Answer 59

a) By contribution to total weight

Question 60

17) Which of the following is NOT an authorized health claim associating intake with a health consequence?
a) Soluble fiber and coronary heart disease
b) Dietary fat and cancer risk
c) Sodium intake and blood pressure
d) Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts

Answer 60

d) Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts

Question 61

19) A system that scores the average American diet is the:
a) Dietary Guidelines.
b) Food Guide Pyramid.
c) Exchange List.
d) Healthy Eating Index.

Answer 61

d) Healthy Eating Index.

Question 62

20) Which of the following methods is MOST likely to provide accurate information about what a person typically eats?
a) A computerized food frequency questionnaire
b) A 3-day food record that includes a weekend day kept by the individual
c) Analyzing all grocery store and restaurant receipts kept over a 60 day time period
d) A diet history that includes a 24 hour recall and a food frequency questionnaire

Answer 62

d) A diet history that includes a 24 hour recall and a food frequency questionnaire

Question 63

22) To manage weight and prevent unhealthy weight gain, the MyPlate guide recommends:
a) a minimum of 150 minutes of activity weekly.
b) 30 minutes most days of the week.
c) 60 minutes 3 days of the week.
d) 75-100 minutes of vigorous activity every 10 days.

Answer 63

a) a minimum of 150 minutes of activity weekly.

Question 64

24) Daily Values are based on a ___________ kcalorie diet.
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 2000
d) 2500

Answer 64

c) 2000

Question 65

25) Which of the following statements about the assessment of food intake is FALSE?
a) Food frequency questionnaires do not give specific information about an individual’s food intake.
b) Food records are reliable but individuals may change their usual intake while recording his or her intake.
c) The most common error made in reporting food intake is to overestimate portion sizes.
d) Food intake records should include one weekend day for greatest accuracy.

Answer 65

c) The most common error made in reporting food intake is to overestimate portion sizes.

Question 66

26) Nutrition Facts labels include information about which vitamins?
a) A & C
b) A & E
c) A & D
d) C & D

Answer 66

a) A & C

Question 67

27) Nutrition Facts labels contain information about which minerals?
a) Calcium and iron
b) Calcium and zinc
c) Iron and magnesium
d) Iron and zinc

Answer 67

a) Calcium and iron

Question 68

28) The descriptor, Healthy, can legally be used on a food product when the product contains adequate levels of at least one selected nutrient and is low in:
a) fat, saturated fat, sodium, and cholesterol.
b) fat, fiber and protein.
c) fat, sugar and cholesterol.
d) fat, sodium and protein.

Answer 68

a) fat, saturated fat, sodium, and cholesterol.

Question 69

30) Which of the following is true regarding the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010?
a) Recommendations are made for specific amounts of individual nutrients.
b) The DGA 2010 is based on the DRIs.
c) They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease.
d) These recommendations are designed for Americans 19 years and older.

Answer 69

c) They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease

Question 70

31) ____________ are used when not enough information is available to establish an EAR for a particular nutrient.
a) AIs
b) DRIs
c) RDAs
d) ULs

Answer 70

a) AIs

Question 71

32) The three main categories in the Exchange List are carbohydrate, meat and meat substitutes, and:
a) protein.
b) fiber.
c) fruits & vegetables.
d) fat.

Answer 71

d) fat.

Question 72

37) Using dietary information provided by ______________would be the most practical approach to evaluate your own diet.
a) Exchange Lists
b) Dietary Guidelines for Americans
c) DRVs
d) MyPlate

Answer 72

d) MyPlate

Question 73

38) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels are most likely to be exceeded when:
a) large quantities of food are consumed by highly trained athletes.
b) people are recovering from surgery and need more kcalories.
c) dietary supplements are taken.
d) people eat meat from wild game animals.

Answer 73

c) dietary supplements are taken.

Question 74

33) Computer software can be used to analyze diets. The most appropriate time to use a nutrition analysis program would be when:
a) checking for a clinical symptom of nutritional deficiency.
b) you wanted to know how many third graders in a classroom ate breakfast.
c) comparing the planned menu for children in an elementary school to the RDAs.
d) determining the estimated energy requirements of senior citizens.

Answer 74

c) comparing the planned menu for children in an elementary school to the RDAs.

Question 75

34) Which health claim on a food label is NOT allowed?
a) Diets low in fat and rich in fruits and vegetables may reduce the risk of some types of cancer.
b) Diets rich in vitamin C will reduce the incidence of colds and flu.
c) Adequate calcium intake throughout life helps maintain bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
d) Diets high in sodium may increase the risk of high blood pressure in some people.

Answer 75

b) Diets rich in vitamin C will reduce the incidence of colds and flu.

Question 76

35) Food Disappearance Surveys are used to identify:
a) general trends in food intake among a population.
b) processing losses.
c) at-risk groups in the population.
d) marketing trends.

Answer 76

a) general trends in food intake among a population.

Question 77

36) A complete nutritional assessment would include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) laboratory measurements.
b) past and present dietary intake information.
c) setting nutritional goals.
d) anthropometric measurements.

Answer 77

c) setting nutritional goals.

Question 78

39) Which statement regarding foods selected in a restaurant is FALSE?
a) A menu item labeled “low fat” must meet the same criteria as a packaged product with a “low fat” label.
b) Nutrient claims about menu items must be backed up with appropriate nutrition information.
c) A restaurant cannot make a health claim on its menu.
d) Restaurants are not required to have food labels unless the establishment has 20 or more locations.

Answer 78

c) A restaurant cannot make a health claim on its menu.

Question 79

40) Analysis of blood can be used to determine:
a) what someone ate the previous day.
b) glucose and cholesterol levels.
c) an individual’s overall nutritional status.
d) bone mineral density.

Answer 79

b) glucose and cholesterol levels.

Question 80

41) Which of the following is true regarding “qualified” health claims?
a) They result from significant scientific agreement.
b) They must be accompanied by a statement of explanation.
c) Their use on food labels does not require FDA approval.
d) They can only be used on dietary supplements.

Answer 80

b) They must be accompanied by a statement of explanation.

Question 81

43) Which statement about dietary supplements is true?
a) The label must include all the ingredients in the dietary supplement.
b) All dietary supplements are produced according to the same strict laws that govern drug manufacturing.
c) All dietary supplements must be approved by the FDA to ensure safety and effectiveness.
d) Dietary supplements cannot be removed from the market once they are introduced.

Answer 81

a) The label must include all the ingredients in the dietary supplement.

Question 82

44) Which of the following statements is true about the Daily Values standards?
a) DVs help consumers know if a food is a good source of a particular nutrient.
b) A DV of 5% or less on a food label indicates that the food is low in that nutrient.
c) The DVs may overestimate nutrient needs for some populations but they would never underestimate the requirements for any group.
d) All of these statements are true.

Answer 82

d) All of these statements are true.

Question 83

45) Which statement about proportionality is true?
a) Proportionality means we need to eat more of some types of foods than others.
b) Proportionality is represented by the area covered on the MyPlate logo.
c) Proportionality indicates that grains, vegetables, fruits and dairy are the groups from which to eat the most foods.
d) All of these statements are true.

Answer 83

d) All of these statements are true.

Question 84

46) The recommendation of moderation in healthy diets:
a) means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods.
b) means choosing nutrient dense foods as often as energy-dense foods.
c) relates to consuming moderate amounts of complex carbohydrates.
d) All of these statements are true.

Answer 84

a) means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods.

Question 85

47) Empty calories are:
a) from added sugars and/or solid fats.
b) contributed by junk foods and are completely banned in a healthy diet.
c) suggested to be limited to ≤ 50% of the kcals in a healthy diet.
d) the kcals consumed when an eating plan other than MyPlate is followed.

Answer 85

a) from added sugars and/or solid fats.

Question 86

48) Which of the following is true of structure/function claims?
a) FDA approval is required.
b) They do NOT have to be accompanied by a disclaimer.
c) Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease.
d) Common examples are “high fiber and “fat free”.

Answer 86

c) Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease.

Question 87

49) The amount of a nutrient estimated to meet the needs of 50% of people in the same gender and life stage group is the:
a) EAR.
b) RAE.
c) AI.
d) RDA.

Answer 87

a) EAR.

Question 88

50) Which of the following is FALSE concerning the MyPlate web site?
a) The tools on the web site are only applicable to a 2000 kcal dietary requirement.
b) Nutrition information can be personalized for individuals.
c) The website allows individuals to analyze their diets for energy and nutrient intake.
d) The website is of little use to those Americans without internet access.

Answer 88

a) The tools on the web site are only applicable to a 2000 kcal dietary requirement.

Question 89

51) How would donuts be categorized in the MyPlate food plan?
a) Grains & dairy
b) Protein & grains
c) Grains & empty calories
d) Empty calories & vegetables

Answer 89

c) Grains & empty calories

Question 90

52) The MyPlate plan separates foods into groups to help Americans apply the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines to their individual diets. These groups are:
a) milk, meat, grains, fruits & vegetables and legumes.
b) meat, milk, beans & nuts, grains and fruits & vegetables.
c) fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy.
d) grains, vegetables, fruits, dairy and meat, beans & nuts.

Answer 90

c) fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy.

Question 91

53) On the MyPlate guide, oils are:
a) listed in the fat group.
b) included and recommendations are given in teaspoons.
c) not given specific consideration.
d) considered empty calories.

Answer 91

b) included and recommendations are given in teaspoons.

Question 92

54) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010 considers all of the following healthy eating patterns EXCEPT:
a) USDA Food Patterns.
b) the Asian Cultural Food Consumption Program.
c) Mediterranean-style eating pattern.
d) the DASH Eating Plan.

Answer 92

b) the Asian Cultural Food Consumption Program.

Question 93

4) The movement of food through the digestive tract is regulated by:
a) the endocrine and nervous systems.
b) the lymphatic and muscular systems.
c) the respiratory and urinary systems.
d) the cardiovascular system.

Answer 93

a) the endocrine and nervous systems.

Question 94

5) The most important roles of the digestive system include digestion and:
a) metabolism.
b) absorption.
c) circulation.
d) excretion.

Answer 94

b) absorption.

Question 95

3) Which of the following sequences is organized from the simplest to the most complex arrangement?
a) atoms : molecules : tissues : organs
b) molecules : tissues : atoms : organs
c) tissues: atoms : molecules : organs
d) atoms : organs : tissues : molecules

Answer 95

a) atoms : molecules : tissues : organs

Question 96

6) The internal lining of the gastrointestinal tract is the:
a) submucosa.
b) serosa.
c) muscularis.
d) mucosa.

Answer 96

d) mucosa.

Question 97

7) The digestive tract begins at the _________ and ends at the _________.
a) esophagus; small intestine
b) mouth; transverse colon
c) esophageal sphincter; pylorus
d) mouth; anus

Answer 97

d) mouth; anus

Question 98

8) Transit time is the rate at which food:
a) moves through the digestive tract.
b) is swallowed.
c) is absorbed into the blood.
d) is broken down into chyme.

Answer 98

a) moves through the digestive tract.

Question 99

9) Which of the following is NOT a product released by the GI tract?
a) Mucus
b) Enzymes
c) Chyme
d) Hormones

Answer 99

c) Chyme

Question 100

10) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Salivary glands
d) Kidney

Answer 100

d) Kidney

Question 101

11) Chewing is an important digestive function because it improves the functionality of:
a) enzymes.
b) hormones.
c) mucus.
d) peristalsis.

Answer 101

a) enzymes.

Question 102

12) What enzyme prevents bacterial growth in the mouth?
a) Amylase
b) Lysozyme
c) Bacteriocidase
d) Lipase

Answer 102

b) Lysozyme

Question 103

13) Which structure prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea?
a) Tongue
b) Pharynx
c) Esophageal sphincter
d) Epiglottis

Answer 103

d) Epiglottis

Question 104

14) The pharynx is a cavity shared by the digestive tract and the:
a) urinary tract.
b) respiratory tract.
c) pancreatic duct.
d) common bile duct.

Answer 104

b) respiratory tract.

Question 105

15) Coordinated muscular contractions that move food through the GI tract are called:
a) segmentation.
b) muscular syncopation.
c) gastroesophageal sphincterization.
d) peristalsis.

Answer 105

d) peristalsis.

Question 106

16) When the gastroesophageal sphincter contracts, food:
a) flows from the esophagus into the stomach.
b) is prevented from reentering the esophagus from the stomach.
c) leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine.
d) is eliminated from the body through the anus.

Answer 106

b) is prevented from reentering the esophagus from the stomach.

Question 107

17) Which of the following is NOT true of the stomach?
a) It produces pepsinogen.
b) Parietal cells in gastric pits produce hydrochloric acid.
c) The main function is absorption.
d) It has 3 layers of smooth muscle.

Answer 107

c) The main function is absorption.

Question 108

18) The formation of chyme occurs in which part of the GI tract?
a) Small intestine
b) Large intestine
c) Gallbladder
d) Stomach

Answer 108

d) Stomach

Question 109

19) Activity in the digestive tract begins in response to the sight and smell of food. This is referred to as the _________ response.
a) cephalic
b) gastric
c) intestinal
d) cognitive

Answer 109

a) cephalic

Question 110

20) The hormone gastrin is released in response to:
a) the presence of food in the stomach.
b) contraction of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
c) relaxation of the anal sphincter.
d) the presence of the bacteria Helicobacter pylori in the stomach.

Answer 110

a) the presence of food in the stomach.

Question 111

21) The stomach wall is protected from the acidity of the gastric juice by:
a) the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
b) a viscous mucus layer.
c) the action of gastrin.
d) pancreatic secretions.

Answer 111

b) a viscous mucus layer.

Question 112

22) Which of the following is most likely to inhibit gastric secretion and motility?
a) The sight and smell of food
b) The release of gastrin from the stomach
c) The passage of chyme into the small intestine
d) The release of bile from the gallbladder

Answer 112

c) The passage of chyme into the small intestine

Question 113

23) The sphincter that regulates the flow of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine is the __________ sphincter.
a) gastroesophageal
b) celiac
c) anal
d) pyloric

Answer 113

d) pyloric

Question 114

24) Which of the following meals is likely to stay in the stomach the longest?
a) Cheeseburger, small French fries, small soft drink, ice cream
b) Grilled chicken breast, mashed potato with butter, green beans, skim milk
c) Tuna sandwich on whole wheat, pickle, ice tea
d) Rice Krispies, skim milk, blueberries, coffee

Answer 114

a) Cheeseburger, small French fries, small soft drink, ice cream

Question 115

25) Stomach emptying is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) the nutrient composition of a meal.
b) the time of day the meal is consumed.
c) the meal consistency (liquid versus solid).
d) emotional states (sadness, anger, stress).

Answer 115

b) the time of day the meal is consumed.

Question 116

26) Which of the following accessory organs releases its secretions into the GI tract?
a) Gallbladder
b) Pancreas
c) Salivary glands
d) All of these are correct

Answer 116

d) All of these are correct

Question 117

27) Pancreas secretions contain digestive enzymes and:
a) bicarbonate ions.
b) bile.
c) cholecystokinin (CCK).
d) chyme.

Answer 117

d) chyme.

Question 118

28) Chyme is neutralized in the small intestine by secretions from the:
a) gallbladder.
b) kidneys.
c) liver.
d) pancreas.

Answer 118

d) pancreas.

Question 119

29) The release of bile and pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine is controlled by:
a) secretin and CCK.
b) stimulation of stretch receptors in the stomach.
c) gastrin.
d) salivary amylase.

Answer 119

a) secretin and CCK.

Question 120

30) The primary site of nutrient absorption is the:
a) liver.
b) large intestine.
c) stomach.
d) small intestine.

Answer 120

d) small intestine.

Question 121

31) The absorption of nutrients by simple diffusion requires:
a) a carrier molecule.
b) energy.
c) a concentration gradient.
d) All of these choices are correct

Answer 121

c) a concentration gradient.

Question 122

32) Which of the following digestive organs is lined with fingerlike projections called villi?
a) Esophagus
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine

Answer 122

c) Small intestine

Question 123

33) The absorptive surface of the small intestine is increased by the presence of:
a) sphincters.
b) microvilli.
c) enterocytes.
d) gastric pits.

Answer 123

b) microvilli.

Question 124

34) Which of the following structures is located past (beyond) the ileocecal valve?
a) Colon
b) Common bile duct
c) Stomach
d) Pharynx

Answer 124

a) Colon

Question 125

35) The primary function of the large intestine is to:
a) prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion.
b) absorb digested nutrients.
c) neutralize chyme.
d) All of these choices are correct.

Answer 125

a) prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion.

Question 126

36) A diseased gallbladder can interfere with:
a) chyme formation.
b) the ability to chew.
c) the ability to regulate blood glucose levels.
d) fat digestion.

Answer 126

d) fat digestion.

Question 127

37) “Heartburn” is typically:
a) caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter.
b) more common in men and those who are underweight.
c) caused when the stomach bulges through the diaphragm.
d) All of the choices are true.

Answer 127

a) caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter.

Question 128

38) The most common cause of ulcers is:
a) chronic use of the pain reliever Tylenol.
b) eating large amounts of acidic foods such as peppers and tomatoes.
c) a bacterial infection.
d) stress.

Answer 128

c) a bacterial infection.

Question 129

39) Inflammation of the small intestinal mucosa reduces the ability of the intestine to absorb water or nutrients causing:
a) constipation.
b) diarrhea.
c) gastroesophageal reflux disease.
d) gallstones.

Answer 129

b) diarrhea.

Question 130

40) Which statement about Helicobacter pylori is true?
a) These microorganisms are killed by the low pH of the stomach secretions.
b) Dr. B. J. Marshall developed gastric inflammation after he drank a culture of H. pylori.
c) H. pylori causes irritable bowel syndrome.
d) H. pylori only causes ulcers if the stomach is already inflamed from stress.

Answer 130

b) Dr. B. J. Marshall developed gastric inflammation after he drank a culture of H. pylori.

Question 131

41) ___________ is when all essential nutrients are given directly into the blood stream.
a) Enteral feeding
b) Tube feeding
c) Total parenteral nutrition
d) Force feeding

Answer 131

c) Total parenteral nutrition

Question 132

42) During ________________, the digestive system can absorb whole intact proteins.
a) infancy
b) aging adulthood
c) adulthood
d) childhood

Answer 132

a) infancy

Question 133

43) Which nutrient(s) are absorbed into the lymphatic system before entering the blood?
a) Fat
b) Water
c) Water-soluble vitamins
d) Glucose

Answer 133

a) Fat

Question 134

44) After water soluble nutrients are absorbed in the intestine, they are carried to the __________ via the ___________.
a) kidneys; capillaries
b) liver; hepatic portal vein
c) gall bladder; bile duct
d) pancreas; lacteals

Answer 134

b) liver; hepatic portal vein

Question 135

45) The hepatic portal circulation carries nutrients from the small intestine to the:
a) brain.
b) kidneys.
c) stomach.
d) liver.

Answer 135

d) liver.

Question 136

46) The _____________ regulates the movement of molecules in and out of cells.
a) cytoplasm
b) mitochondria
c) cell membrane
d) cell wall

Answer 136

c) cell membrane

Question 137

47) The sum of the chemical reactions that occur inside body cells is collectively referred to as:
a) digestion.
b) absorption.
c) metabolism.
d) hydrolysis.

Answer 137

c) metabolism.

Question 138

52) ________ are protein molecules that accelerate the rate of chemical reactions.
a) Hormones
b) Chylomicrons
c) Enzymes
d) Buffers

Answer 138

c) Enzymes

Question 139

53) The function of sphincters in the digestive tract is:
a) to coordinate muscular contractions that propel food forward.
b) to regulate the flow of food.
c) to control the release of bile.
d) to regulate enzymatic reactions.

Answer 139

b) to regulate the flow of food.

Question 140

54) As chyme moves out of the stomach, it passes through the:
a) gastroesophageal sphincter.
b) cecum.
c) pyloric sphincter.
d) cardiac sphincter.

Answer 140

c) pyloric sphincter.

Question 141

55) Probiotics are:
a) an example of total parenteral nutrition.
b) substances that promote the growth of beneficial intestinal bacteria.
c) are used to prevent bacterial overgrowth in the stomach.
d) beneficial bacteria added to foods.

Answer 141

d) beneficial bacteria added to foods.

Question 142

56) The end-products of carbohydrate catabolism includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) water.
b) carbon dioxide.
c) energy (ATP).
d) urea.

Answer 142

d) urea.