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Nutrition 1165 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

1) Which of the following sequences represents a monosaccharide followed by a disaccharide followed by a polysaccharide?

a) fructose, sucrose, starch
b) lactose, glucose, dietary fiber
c) glucose, maltose, lactose
d) galactose, glycogen, starch

A

a) fructose, sucrose, starch

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2
Q

2) Carbohydrate loading, a training technique used by some endurance athletes, can help to increase _____________ stores.

a) glycogen
b) amylose
c) sucrose
d) lactase

A

a) glycogen

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3
Q

3) Which of the following statements about Type 1 diabetes is correct?

a) This type of disease occurs when cells are no longer sensitive to insulin.
b) Obesity is a major risk factor for developing this disease.
c) The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin.
d) Type 1 is the most common type of diabetes.

A

c) The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin.

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4
Q

4) Dietary fiber is categorized by:

a) its solubility in water.
b) its molecular weight.
c) the ratio of carbon to hydrogen molecules.
d) the number of branch points.

A

a) its solubility in water.

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5
Q

5) The organ(s) which supplies enzymes required for starch digestion include(s) the:

a) stomach.
b) gallbladder.
c) pancreas.
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

c) pancreas.

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6
Q

6) Lactose intolerance is caused by:

a) excess production of the enzyme lactase.
b) an allergic reaction to proteins found in milk and milk products.
c) inadequate production of the enzyme lactase.
d) the inability to produce the hormone insulin.

A

c) inadequate production of the enzyme lactase.

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7
Q

7) The most important determinant for developing lactose intolerance is:

a) ethnic background.
b) gender.
c) geographic location where a person lives.
d) whether one is lean or obese.

A

a) ethnic background.

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8
Q

8) The concentration of glucose in the blood is primarily regulated by:

a) pancreatic enzymes.
b) pancreatic hormones.
c) enzymes in the membranes of cells lining the small intestine.
d) hormones released by the GI tract.

A

b) pancreatic hormones.

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9
Q

9) The _____________________ reflects a ranking of how specific foods affect blood glucose as compared to the response of a reference food.

a) glycemic response
b) glycemic index
c) gluconeogenic index
d) digestibility and solubility index

A

b) glycemic index

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10
Q

10) Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that:

a) splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvate.
b) generates glucose from glucogenic amino acids.
c) synthesizes glycogen.
d) creates glucose molecules from glycogen.

A

a) splits glucose into two molecules of pyruvate.

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11
Q

11) Diabetes is best characterized by:

a) abnormally high blood glucose levels.
b) elevated blood lipids.
c) the presence of ketones in blood.
d) blood glucose levels below the normal range.

A

a) abnormally high blood glucose levels.

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12
Q

12) Which of the following types of diabetes is classified as an autoimmune disease?

a) Gestational
b) Type 2
c) Type 1
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

c) Type 1

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13
Q

13) Which of the following foods are the best sources of complex carbohydrates?

a) Milk and dairy products
b) Meat, fish, and poultry
c) Fats and oils
d) Cereals and grains

A

d) Cereals and grains

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14
Q

14) A diet high in dietary fiber can help reduce the risk of developing:

a) diverticular disease.
b) anemia.
c) Type 1 diabetes.
d) lactose intolerance.

A

a) diverticular disease.

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15
Q

15) Dietary fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by:

a) binding cholesterol and bile acids in the GI tract.
b) blocking reabsorption of bile acids in the GI tract.
c) inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver.
d) All of the these choices are correct.

A

d) All of the these choices are correct.

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16
Q

16) A well-documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is:

a) dental caries.
b) Type 1 diabetes.
c) diverticular disease.
d) constipation.

A

a) dental caries.

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17
Q

17) An oligosaccharide is a:

a) disaccharide found in fruits and vegetables.
b) storage form of plant starch.
c) carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units.
d) form of artificial sweetener.

A

c) carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units.

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18
Q

18) The breakdown of dietary carbohydrates releases _____kcal/g of energy.

a) 9
b) 4
c) 7
d) 2

A

b) 4

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19
Q

19) Fructose is found mostly in:

a) dairy products.
b) grains and cereals.
c) meat.
d) fruits and vegetables.

A

d) fruits and vegetables.

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20
Q

20) Which food would NOT be recommended as a source of calcium to someone who is lactose intolerant?

a) Soy milk
b) Tofu
c) Fortified orange juice
d) Ice cream

A

d) Ice cream

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21
Q

21) Which of the following conditions is likely to increase ketone production?

a) Untreated diabetes
b) Starvation
c) A very low carbohydrate diet
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

d) All of these choices are correct.

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22
Q

22) Carbohydrates promote dental caries by which of the following mechanisms?

a) Sugar promotes the growth of bacteria that breakdown enamel.
b) Bacteria metabolize carbohydrate to form acids, which break down enamel.
c) Carbohydrates stick to teeth, preventing the removal of plaque.
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

b) Bacteria metabolize carbohydrate to form acids, which break down enamel.

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23
Q

23) A 2000 calorie diet in which carbohydrate provides 50% of the calories would provide how many grams of carbohydrate?

a) 140
b) 200
c) 250
d) 400

A

c) 250

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24
Q

24) Which of the following is the best source of dietary fiber?

a) 2 scrambled eggs
b) 1 small doughnut
c) A 4 ounce salmon filet
d) 1 cup of broccoli

A

c) A 4 ounce salmon filet

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25
Q

25) Aspartame:

a) is an artificial sweetener.
b) consists of two amino acids linked together.
c) is often found in soft drinks.
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

d) All of these choices are correct.

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26
Q

26) Sugar alcohols are:

a) derived from ethyl alcohol.
b) a combination of amino acids.
c) produced from oleic acid.
d) structurally similar to dietary sugars.

A

d) structurally similar to dietary sugars.

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27
Q

27) Aerobic metabolism occurs in:

a) the cytoplasm of a cell.
b) the mitochondria of a cell.
c) the nucleus of a cell.
d) None of these choices is correct.

A

b) the mitochondria of a cell.

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28
Q

28) Which of the following statements about glycogen is FALSE?

a) Glycogen is a storage form of carbohydrate in humans and animals.
b) Glycogen is composed of many glucose molecules.
c) Glycogen is made and stored in liver and muscle.
d) The primary role of muscle glycogen is to maintain blood glucose levels.

A

d) The primary role of muscle glycogen is to maintain blood glucose levels.

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29
Q

29) Refined grain products contain predominantly what part(s) of the kernel?

a) Husk and germ
b) Stalk
c) Germ and bran
d) Endosperm

A

d) Endosperm

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30
Q

30) ___________ can be a concern for individuals with phenylketonuria.

a) Aspartame
b) Saccharin
c) Acesulfame K
d) Neotame

A

a) Aspartame

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31
Q

31) Dietary fiber promotes a healthy intestinal microflora in part by:

a) slowing the movement of food material in the gut.
b) promoting the production of short chain fatty acids which provide metabolic fuel for colonic cells.
c) decreasing the fluidity of the intestinal contents.
d) producing natural antibiotics that kill pathogenic bacteria.

A

b) promoting the production of short chain fatty acids which provide metabolic fuel for colonic cells.

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32
Q

32) Which of the following nutrients is NOT added to enriched grains?

a) Thiamin
b) Niacin
c) Folate
d) Vitamin E

A

d) Vitamin E

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33
Q

33) Which sugar substitute contains phenylalanine, yet is safe for those with phenylketonuria?

a) Sorbitol
b) Saccharine
c) Neotame
d) Aspartame

A

c) Neotame

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34
Q

34) Which of the following is true of colon cancer?

a) High fiber and whole grain intake may reduce the risk.
b) Changes in DNA underlie the development of colonic tumors.
c) Environmental carcinogens are thought to cause many cancers.
d) All of these statements are true.

A

d) All of these statements are true.

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35
Q

35) Indigestible carbohydrates provide positive health benefits in part by:

a) slowing fecal movement.
b) increasing the bulk of the colonic contents.
c) decreasing the amount of water in the colon.
d) All of these choices are true.

A

b) increasing the bulk of the colonic contents.

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36
Q

36) Carbohydrates provide 60% of the energy in John’s diet of 2700 kilocalories. This represents how many grams of carbohydrate?

a) 100
b) 225
c) 300
d) 405

A

d) 405

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37
Q

37) The daily value for dietary fiber is 25 grams in a 2000 kilocalorie diet. A slice of whole-wheat bread is 8% of the daily value. The slice of whole-wheat bread contains how much fiber?

a) 2 grams
b) 4 grams
c) 8 grams
d) 16 grams

A

a) 2 grams

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38
Q

38) Of the following foods, ___________ is the best dietary source of resistant starch.

a) apples
b) chilled, cooked potatoes
c) whole grain bread
d) oatmeal

A

b) chilled, cooked potatoes

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39
Q

39) Treatment of diverticulitis usually includes:

a) antibiotics and a temporary decrease in fiber intake.
b) increasing fluid intake and antacids.
c) insulin injections.
d) exercise and weight loss.

A

a) antibiotics and a temporary decrease in fiber intake.

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40
Q

40) Studies suggest that the incidence of colon cancer may be lowered with high fiber diets. How might this be explained?

a) Fiber decreases contact between mucosal cells and colonic contents.
b) Fiber decreases transit time.
c) Fiber containing foods are usually high in phytochemicals and antioxidant vitamins.
d) All of these statements are true.

A

d) All of these statements are true.

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41
Q

41) The AMDR for carbohydrate intake for a healthy diet has been set at ______ of the total energy required.

a) 15-10%
b) 30-45%
c) 45-65%
d) 65-80%

A

c) 45-65%

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42
Q

42) Sucrose is composed of:

a) many molecules of glucose linked together.
b) two molecules of glucose.
c) a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose.
d) two molecules of fructose.

A

c) a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose.

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43
Q

43) One possible adverse effect of excessive fiber consumption is:

a) an increase in blood cholesterol.
b) decreased absorption of calcium and iron.
c) increased incidence of colon cancer.
d) increased incidence of diverticulosis.

A

b) decreased absorption of calcium and iron.

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44
Q

44) The structure of glycogen consists of:

a) highly branched chains.
b) straight chains.
c) short chains linked together.
d) two monosaccharide units.

A

a) highly branched chains.

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45
Q

45) In which individual would you expect the highest muscle glycogen content?

a) A person on a high protein weight loss diet
b) A person who eats a balanced diet of protein, carbohydrate and fat
c) A sedentary person
d) A trained athlete consuming 65-70% of kcals as carbohydrate

A

d) A trained athlete consuming 65-70% of kcals as carbohydrate

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46
Q

46) Which hormone is most important for glucose uptake by body cells?

a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
c) Prolactin
d) Ghrelin

A

b) Insulin

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47
Q

1) Over the past 40 years, the fat intake of Americans has:

a) significantly declined, resulting in less obesity.
b) declined as a proportion of total kcalories consumed.
c) declined as people tend to cook at home more frequently.
d) risen significantly.

A

b) declined as a proportion of total kcalories consumed.

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48
Q

2) Which of the following is FALSE about eating a healthy diet?

a) It is essential for most people to reduce total fat consumption by 25-50%.
b) A healthy diet is low in saturated fat from meat and dairy.
c) A healthy diet is low in processed fats like shortenings.
d) Healthy diets include fats from fish, nuts and olive oil.

A

a) It is essential for most people to reduce total fat consumption by 25-50%.

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49
Q

3) Most fatty acids in food and in the body are bound to a molecule called:

a) cholesterol.
b) phospholipids.
c) lecithin.
d) glycerol.

A

d) glycerol.

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50
Q

4) The end of a fatty acid chain containing a methyl group is also referred to as the __________ end.

a) omega
b) alpha
c) delta
d) acid

A

a) omega

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51
Q

5) Fatty acids are categorized based on the carbon chain length as well as:

a) the number of sulfur-containing groups.
b) their solubility in water.
c) the types and locations of bonds between the carbons.
d) the number of acid groups in the fatty acid chain.

A

c) the types and locations of bonds between the carbons.

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52
Q

6) A fatty acid with only single bonds between carbon atoms is called a(n) ________ fatty acid.

a) saturated
b) unsaturated
c) hydrophobic
d) hydrophilic

A

a) saturated

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53
Q

7) Foods consisting mostly of fatty acids with only single bonds tend to be:

a) solid at room temperature.
b) soluble in water.
c) liquid at room temperature.
d) less stable than fatty acids with double bonds.

A

a) solid at room temperature.

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54
Q

8) An omega-6 fatty acid is an example of a(n):

a) saturated fatty acid.
b) trans fatty acid formed by hydrogenation.
c) unsaturated fatty acid.
d) a fatty acid found in tropical oils.

A

c) unsaturated fatty acid.

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55
Q

9) Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are examples of:

a) polyunsaturated fatty acids.
b) saturated fatty acids.
c) hydrogenated fats.
d) phospholipids.

A

a) polyunsaturated fatty acids.

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56
Q

10) A(n) ___________ fatty acid has a carbon-carbon double bond with the hydrogen atoms on the same side of the double bond.

a) cis
b) trans
c) essential
d) nonessential

A

a) cis

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57
Q

11) __________ fatty acids are not synthesized by the body.

a) Nonessential
b) Saturated
c) Short chain
d) Essential

A

d) Essential

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58
Q

12) Essential fatty acids can be used by the body to synthesize:

a) eicosanoids.
b) cholesterol.
c) vitamin D.
d) phosphoglycerides.

A

a) eicosanoids.

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59
Q

13) Phospholipids consist of glycerol with __________ attached.

a) three fatty acids
b) three amino acids
c) two fatty acids and a phosphate group
d) two fatty acids and lecithin

A

c) two fatty acids and a phosphate group

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60
Q

14) __________ can help fat and water mix by breaking large fat globules into smaller ones.

a) Bile
b) Pancreatic lipase
c) Eicosanoids
d) Cholesterol

A

a) Bile

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61
Q

15) Which of the following is used as an emulsifier in foods?

a) Lecithin
b) Trans fatty acids
c) Arachidonic Acid
d) Safflower oil

A

a) Lecithin

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62
Q

16) Bile, vitamin D, and some hormones such as testosterone and estrogen are derived from:

a) essential fatty acids.
b) cholesterol.
c) trans fatty acids.
d) phospholipids.

A

b) cholesterol.

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63
Q

17) Dietary sources of cholesterol include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) meat.
b) eggs.
c) fish.
d) peanut butter.

A

d) peanut butter.

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64
Q

18) Which organ produces the lipase enzyme that accomplishes the bulk of lipid digestion?

a) Stomach
b) Pancreas
c) Mouth
d) Liver

A

b) Pancreas

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65
Q

19) The function of bile in triglyceride digestion is:

a) to hydrolyze (split) the bond that attaches fatty acids to glycerol.
b) to break fat into small globules.
c) facilitate the formation of chylomicrons.
d) to bind and transport lipids in the blood.

A

b) to break fat into small globules.

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66
Q

20) Which of the following is formed in the LUMEN of the small intestine during lipid digestion?

a) Micelles
b) Cis fatty acids
c) Chylomicrons
d) LDL particles

A

a) Micelles

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67
Q

21) If you were to analyze the composition of adipose tissue, you would likely find an abundance of:

a) micelles.
b) triglycerides.
c) eicosanoids.
d) cholesterol.

A

b) triglycerides.

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68
Q

22) The precursor(s) for eicosanoids with health promoting properties is/are:

a) arachidonic acid.
b) omega-6 fatty acids.
c) omega-3 fatty acids.
d) oleic acid.

A

c) omega-3 fatty acids.

69
Q

23) The primary function of lipoprotein lipase is to:

a) convert nonessential fatty acids into essential fatty acids.
b) transport lipids through the blood.
c) convert cis fatty acids into trans fatty acids.
d) help clear triglycerides from circulating lipoproteins in the blood.

A

d) help clear triglycerides from circulating lipoproteins in the blood.

70
Q

24) Chylocmicrons are formed in the:

a) intestine.
b) liver.
c) lymph.
d) blood.

A

a) intestine.

71
Q

25) ___________________ promotes the uptake of fatty acids and glycerol by cells to be used as fuel or for storage.

a) Lipoprotein lipase
b) Lingual lipase
c) Pancreatic lipase
d) Glycerase

A

a) Lipoprotein lipase

72
Q

26) Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?

a) Chylomicrons
b) Low-density lipoproteins
c) High-density lipoproteins
d) Very-low density lipoproteins

A

b) Low-density lipoproteins

73
Q

27) Which of the following is required for cells to take up low-density lipoproteins?

a) Lipoprotein lipase
b) Homocysteine
c) LDL receptors
d) Insulin

A

c) LDL receptors

74
Q

28) Reverse cholesterol transport is accomplished by:

a) chylomicrons.
b) LDLs.
c) VLDLs.
d) HDLs.

A

d) HDLs.

75
Q

29) High levels of HDL in the blood are associated with:

a) improved immune function.
b) a reduced risk of heart disease.
c) increased risk of colon cancer.
d) increased risk of breast and prostate cancer.

A

b) a reduced risk of heart disease.

76
Q

30) When energy is ingested in excess of needs, the excess:

a) is lost as heat.
b) is converted into triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue.
c) is converted into cholesterol and stored in the liver.
d) is metabolized by the muscles and stored as ATP.

A

b) is converted into triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue.

77
Q

31) Hormone sensitive lipase:

a) is activated during periods of fasting .
b) is needed to deposit fatty acids into adipose tissue.
c) is needed for phosphoglyceride digestion.
d) is required for lipid digestion by cells lining blood vessels.

A

a) is activated during periods of fasting .

78
Q

32) In general, populations that have a high intake of total fat have a higher incidence of __________ than populations that have a lower intake.

a) certain types of cancer
b) heart disease
c) obesity
d) all of these choices are correct

A

d) all of these choices are correct

79
Q

33) Which of the following is characteristic of atherosclerosis?

a) Oxidation of LDL particles
b) Inflammation of the lining of the colon
c) High HDL levels
d) Production of chylomicrons by cells lining the blood vessels

A

a) Oxidation of LDL particles

80
Q

34) Immune cells within the lining of blood vessels have _____________ receptors which mediate the uptake of oxidized LDL cholesterol.

a) LDL
b) scavenger
c) foam
d) insulin

A

b) scavenger

81
Q

35) Women tend to develop heart disease later than men because:

a) women have lower levels of HDLs compared to men.
b) women tend to consume more trans fatty acids than men.
c) the hormone estrogen has a protective effect in women before menopause.
d) women have a greater density of blood vessels than men which helps blood to circulate more efficiently.

A

c) the hormone estrogen has a protective effect in women before menopause.

82
Q

36) Trans fatty acids are most abundant in foods that contain:

a) animal products.
b) tropical oils.
c) partially hydrogenated oils.
d) omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids.

A

c) partially hydrogenated oils.

83
Q

37) A dietary approach that protects against heart disease is the consumption of foods high in:

a) omega-3 fatty acids.
b) long chain fatty acids.
c) omega-6 fatty acids.
d) all of these provide protection against heart disease.

A

a) omega-3 fatty acids.

84
Q

38) Which of the following dietary practices does NOT help to protect a person from developing heart disease?

a) Consuming recommended amounts of dietary fiber.
b) Adequate consumption of antioxidant nutrients.
c) Substituting monounsaturated fats for saturated fats.
d) A diet which substitutes beef for fish.

A

d) A diet which substitutes beef for fish.

85
Q

39) Current recommendations regarding fat intake suggest a healthy diet should:

a) contain at least 20% of total kcals from saturated fats.
b) provide 20 to 35% of total calories (kcal) from fat.
c) limit the intake of foods high in monounsaturated fatty acids.
d) All of these are healthy recommendations regarding fat intake.

A

b) provide 20 to 35% of total calories (kcal) from fat.

86
Q

40) Which of the following diets provides approximately 18% of the total Calories (kcal) from fat?

a) 41 grams of fat; 2,385 kcal
b) 67 grams of fat; 3,268 kcal
c) 36 grams of fat; 1,154 kcal
d) 17 grams of fat; 2,392 kcal

A

b) 67 grams of fat; 3,268 kcal

87
Q

41) Which of the following most accurately describes the chemical structure of a fatty acid?

a) A three carbon molecule bound to nitrogen.
b) A carbon chain bound to a phosphate group.
c) A multiple ring structure with a sugar group attached.
d) A chain of carbon atoms linked together by chemical bonds.

A

d) A chain of carbon atoms linked together by chemical bonds.

88
Q

42) Which of the following is an example of tropical oil?

a) Palm kernel oil.
b) Soybean oil.
c) Olive oil.
d) Corn oil.

A

a) Palm kernel oil.

89
Q

43) Fish oils are a good dietary source of:

a) emulsifiers.
b) tropical oils.
c) omega-3 fatty acids.
d) trans fatty acids.

A

c) omega-3 fatty acids.

90
Q

44) The physical characteristics, texture and taste of fatty acids are determined by:

a) the length of the fatty acid chain and the types of bonds between the carbon atoms.
b) the number of acid groups.
c) the extent of digestion in the body.
d) the number of fatty acid chains bound to each glycerol molecule.

A

a) the length of the fatty acid chain and the types of bonds between the carbon atoms.

91
Q

45) Which of the following is used to make the lipid bilayer found in cell membranes in the body?

a) Saturated fatty acids.
b) Phospholipids.
c) Trans fatty acids.
d) Eicosanoids.

A

b) Phospholipids.

92
Q

46) Cholesterol is an example of a(n):

a) trans fatty acid.
b) phospholipid.
c) essential nutrient.
d) sterol.

A

d) sterol.

93
Q

47) Which of the following organs is able to manufacture cholesterol?

a) Liver.
b) Pancreas.
c) Gallbladder.
d) All of these organs manufacture cholesterol.

A

a) Liver.

94
Q

48) Eicosanoids are:

a) hormone-like compounds.
b) synthesized from omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids.
c) needed to regulate important body processes.
d) All of these statements are true.

A

d) All of these statements are true.

95
Q

49) Chylomicrons:

a) transport lipids, from the food we eat into the body.
b) are absorbed into the lymphatic system.
c) are formed by the intestinal mucosal cell.
d) All of these statements are true.

A

d) All of these statements are true.

96
Q

50) When needed for a source of energy, fatty acids are broken down into:

a) pyruvate.
b) acetyl CoA.
c) glucose.
d) chylomicrons.

A

b) acetyl CoA.

97
Q

51) The anti-inflammatory effects of omega-3 fats are beneficial in regards to:

a) heart disease.
b) rheumatoid arthritis.
c) multiple sclerosis.
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

d) All of these choices are correct.

98
Q

52) Which of the following health problems can increase a person’s risk of developing heart disease?

a) Type 2 diabetes
b) High blood pressure
c) Obesity
d) All of these increase the risk

A

d) All of these increase the risk

99
Q

53) Which of the following profiles is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis?

a) Total blood cholesterol in adults below 120 mg/100 mL of blood
b) HDL cholesterol below 40 mg/100 mL of blood
c) LDL levels between 120 and 129 mg/100 mL of blood
d) All of these are associated with increased atherosclerosis risk.

A

b) HDL cholesterol below 40 mg/100 mL of blood

100
Q

54) What initially causes an atherosclerotic plaque to begin developing?

a) An essential fatty acid deficiency.
b) Low blood pressure.
c) An injury to the artery wall.
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

c) An injury to the artery wall.

101
Q

55) All of the following foods EXCEPT _____________help reduce LDL cholesterol and reduce the risk of heart disease.

a) oats
b) flaxseed
c) nuts
d) margarine containing partially hydrogenated vegetable oils

A

d) margarine containing partially hydrogenated vegetable oils

102
Q

56) An injury to an artery wall leading to inflammation could be caused by:

a) high blood glucose.
b) infectious microorganisms.
c) free radicals formed during cigarette smoking.
d) All of these choices are correct.

A

d) All of these choices are correct.

103
Q

57) The oxidation of LDLs:

a) recruits macrophages with scavenger receptors to the site.
b) increases inflammation.
c) results in the formation of foam cells.
d) All of these statements are true.

A

d) All of these statements are true.

104
Q

58) Consumption of all of the following tend to increase blood cholesterol EXCEPT:

a) trans fatty acids.
b) saturated fatty acids.
c) monounsaturated fatty acids.
d) dietary cholesterol.

A

c) monounsaturated fatty acids.

105
Q

59) A strong correlation exists between the development of colon cancer and diets:

a) high in fish.
b) high in grains and cereals.
c) with moderate amounts of alcohol.
d) high in animal fats.

A

d) high in animal fats.

106
Q

60) What is the most likely reason that high fat diets contribute to weight gain and obesity?

a) Fat provides more kcals per gram than carbohydrate or protein.
b) Fat does not provide as much satiety as carbohydrate.
c) The conversion of dietary fat to stored fat is very efficient.
d) All of these contribute.

A

d) All of these contribute.

107
Q

61) Which of the following foods is most likely to contain significant amounts of trans fats?

a) Fish
b) Commercially made crackers and cookies
c) Salad dressings
d) Avocado

A

b) Commercially made crackers and cookies

108
Q

62) The AMDR for fat intake:

a) is constant throughout the life cycle.
b) is highest during adolescence.
c) is highest for 1-3 year olds.
d) increases over the life cycle.

A

c) is highest for 1-3 year olds.

109
Q

63) Which of the following is a good source of essential fatty acids?
a) Walnuts
b) Coconut oil
c) Beef
d) Milk

A

a) Walnuts

110
Q

64) Which statement is true about hamburger that is labeled 80% lean?
a) 80% of the kcalories are from protein and 20% are from fat
b) This is the leanest ground beef that can be purchased.
c) 20% of the weight of the meat is fat
d) 80% of the kcalories are from fat

A

c) 20% of the weight of the meat is fat

111
Q

65) A reduced fat food that contains a fat replacer consisting of millions of microscopic balls that slide over each other to give the creamy texture of fats is:
a) a carbohydrate-based fat replacer.
b) a protein-based fat replacer.
c) mucilage.
d) olestra.

A

b) a protein-based fat replacer.

112
Q

66) Foods containing fat replacers:
a) provide less fat and kcalories.
b) cause fat soluble vitamins to be poorly absorbed.
c) are not necessarily nutrient dense.
d) All of these choices are correct

A

d) All of these choices are correct

113
Q

1) The primary source of protein for most of the world’s population is:
a) meat.
b) dairy.
c) grains and vegetables.
d) fruits.

A

c) grains and vegetables.

114
Q

2) In the US, most dietary protein comes from:
a) animal sources.
b) beans.
c) nuts.
d) vegetables.

A

a) animal sources.

115
Q

3) Which statement about dietary protein sources is FALSE?
a) Animal products are the most highly concentrated sources of protein.
b) Plant sources of protein are typically rich in fiber and phytochemicals.
c) Legumes provide about as much protein per ½ cup serving as a cup of milk.
d) Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.

A

d) Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.

116
Q

4) Which nutrient is found in plant protein foods but not in animal protein foods?
a) Iron
b) Zinc
c) Calcium
d) Fiber

A

d) Fiber

117
Q

5) Which nutrient(s) found in animal protein foods is not found in plant protein foods?
a) Saturated fat
b) B vitamins
c) Phytochemicals
d) None of these nutrients are found in plant protein foods

A

a) Saturated fat

118
Q

6) Protein differs from carbohydrate and lipid in that protein:
a) does not provide the body with a source of energy.
b) is classified as an inorganic molecule.
c) contains the element nitrogen.
d) is not considered to be an essential nutrient.

A

c) contains the element nitrogen.

119
Q

7) Which of the following terms can be used to describe a protein?
a) Polypeptide
b) Branched amino acid chain
c) Polysaccharide
d) Monopeptide

A

a) Polypeptide

120
Q

8) All of the following components are always associated with an amino acid EXCEPT:
a) an amino group.
b) an acid group.
c) a phosphate group.
d) a side chain (functional group).

A

c) a phosphate group.

121
Q

9) Amino acids that cannot be made by the adult human body are termed:
a) essential.
b) hydrolyzable.
c) incomplete.
d) complete.

A

a) essential.

122
Q

10) Transamination refers to:
a) the transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to a carbon-containing molecule to form a nonessential amino acid.
b) the removal of the amine group from an amino acid.
c) the interaction of amino acid side chains important for protein folding.
d) the formation of a peptide bond between adjacent amino acids.

A

a) the transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to a carbon-containing molecule to form a nonessential amino acid.

123
Q

11) A(n) ____________ bond links one amino acid to the next.
a) disulfide
b) ionic
c) glycosidic
d) peptide

A

d) peptide

124
Q

12) Of ____ amino acids commonly found in food proteins, ____ are dispensible.
a) 20; 9
b) 11; 9
c) 20; 11
d) 24: 16

A

c) 20; 11

125
Q

13) The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by the:
a) ratio of nonessential to essential amino acids present in the polypeptide chain.
b) sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
c) carbon to nitrogen ratio in the polypeptide chain.
d) the number of peptide bonds present in the polypeptide chain.

A

b) sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.

126
Q

14) Which statement about amino acid absorption is FALSE?
a) Absorption of larger polypeptides occurs commonly in healthy adults.
b) Groups of similar amino acids share the same transport system.
c) If one amino acid is supplemented, it can slow the absorption of other amino acids.
d) Dipeptides and tripeptides are broken down to individual amino acids before leaving the mucosal cells of the small intestine.

A

a) Absorption of larger polypeptides occurs commonly in healthy adults.

127
Q

15) The specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is determined by
a) the types of food proteins that a person consumes.
b) DNA found in the nucleus of cells.
c) GI tract peptidases.
d) random interactions between free amino acids in the cytoplasm of cells.

A

b) DNA found in the nucleus of cells.

128
Q

16) If the shape of a protein is altered due to a genetic mutation, the _______________ of the protein may be affected.
a) nutritional value
b) functionality
c) taste
d) texture

A

b) functionality

129
Q

17) Protein denaturation can:
a) alter the three-dimensional shape of a protein.
b) decrease the nutritional value of a protein.
c) alter the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
d) break the peptide bonds holding a protein together.

A

a) alter the three-dimensional shape of a protein.

130
Q

18) The enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin:
a) break large polypeptides into smaller peptides.
b) are needed to denature proteins.
c) rearrange the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide.
d) are needed to make nonessential amino acids.

A

a) break large polypeptides into smaller peptides.

131
Q

19) Food allergies can result when a protein in the diet:
a) is not absorbed and is eliminated in the feces.
b) is filtered out of the blood and into the urine.
c) is absorbed without being completely digested.
d) provides amino acids that are not normally found in the human body.

A

c) is absorbed without being completely digested.

132
Q

20) Food allergies involve an interaction between a dietary protein and:
a) the immune system.
b) the excretory system.
c) DNA.
d) RNA.

A

a) the immune system.

133
Q

21) The amino acid pool refers to amino acids:
a) which are soluble in bodily fluids.
b) present in body tissues and fluids and that are available for protein synthesis or to generate ATP.
c) which are used by the body for building muscle tissue.
d) which the body is not able to make and must be supplied by the diet.

A

b) present in body tissues and fluids and that are available for protein synthesis or to generate ATP.

134
Q

22) The process of ___________ involves copying the DNA code from the gene to a molecule of mRNA.
a) transcription.
b) nuclear shuttling.
c) transamination.
d) translation.

A

a) transcription.

135
Q

23) Gene expression and protein synthesis involve:
a) messenger RNA.
b) transcription
c) translation.
d) All of these choices.

A

d) All of these choices.

136
Q

24) A limiting amino acid:
a) does not supply the element nitrogen.
b) is present in short supply relative to the body’s need.
c) cannot be used by the body during protein synthesis.
d) is used to synthesize non-protein molecules that contain nitrogen.

A

b) is present in short supply relative to the body’s need.

137
Q

25) The synthesis of glucose from certain amino acids involves:
a) deamination.
b) transcription.
c) translation.
d) transamination.

A

a) deamination.

138
Q

26) The waste product resulting from the deamination of a protein is:
a) ketone bodies.
b) urea.
c) lactate.
d) CO2.

A

b) urea.

139
Q

27) Hemoglobin is an example of:
a) a defense protein.
b) a transport protein.
c) an enzyme.
d) an immune protein (antibody).

A

b) a transport protein.

140
Q

28) An antibody:
a) is a type of protein that helps protect the body from foreign substances.
b) catalyzes chemical reactions in the body.
c) helps circulate lipids in the blood.
d) regulates the acid-base balance (pH) in the body.

A

a) is a type of protein that helps protect the body from foreign substances.

141
Q

29) Proteins regulate which of the following body processes?
a) Acid-base balance
b) Fluid balance
c) Muscle contraction
d) All of these are correct

A

d) All of these are correct

142
Q

30) Protein-energy malnutrition is characterized by:
a) increased susceptibility to food allergies.
b) wasting and increased susceptibility to infection.
c) excessive urinary output.
d) hyperglycemia.

A

b) wasting and increased susceptibility to infection.

143
Q

31) Kwashiorkor is best characterized by:
a) severe protein deficiency in young children.
b) increased susceptibility to food allergies in adults.
c) misshapen (sickle-shaped) red blood cells.
d) the inability to digest proteins from soy and other plant proteins.

A

a) severe protein deficiency in young children.

144
Q

32) Excessive intake of animal protein foods could cause:
a) excessive bone mineralization, causing brittleness.
b) a diet to be too low in energy.
c) increased waste production overworking the liver.
d) an increased risk of heart disease.

A

d) an increased risk of heart disease.

145
Q

33) Adverse reactions including flushing, headache, rapid heartbeat, chest pain and weakness have been reported after the consumption of:
a) phenylalanine.
b) isoflavones.
c) monosodium glutamate.
d) dipotassium phosphate.

A

c) monosodium glutamate.

146
Q

34) Protein requirements are in part based on a person’s:
a) body weight.
b) age.
c) health status.
d) All of these are correct.

A

d) All of these are correct.

147
Q

35) Which of the following is a TRUE statement?
a) Protein requirements decrease during injury and illness.
b) Most Americans do not consume enough protein.
c) The amount of protein used by the body is estimated by calculating nitrogen losses.
d) All of these statements are true.

A

c) The amount of protein used by the body is estimated by calculating nitrogen losses.

148
Q

36) Positive nitrogen balance can occur:
a) when an individual is wasting as a result of protein-energy malnutrition.
b) if protein intake does not meet an individual’s protein requirements.
c) in a rapidly growing child.
d) when total body nitrogen balance does not change for 30 days.

A

c) in a rapidly growing child.

149
Q

37) Which group has the highest protein requirement (per unit of body weight)?
a) Infants
b) Adults who exercise regularly
c) Adult women
d) Elderly men

A

a) Infants

150
Q

38) To estimate protein requirements, you must know a person’s:
a) body weight.
b) urinary ammonia output.
c) height.
d) All of these would be required

A

a) body weight.

151
Q

39) Protein quality is determined by:
a) comparing the non-essential amino acid profile in a food with that in a reference protein.
b) the biological activity of the actin and myosin filaments in meat products.
c) how efficiently a protein in the diet can be used to make body proteins.
d) the ratio of nonessential to essential amino acids present in a food.

A

c) how efficiently a protein in the diet can be used to make body proteins.

152
Q

40) Obtaining protein from plant foods may be advantageous because plant foods:
a) are typically good sources of fiber.
b) may contain healthy poly- and mono- unsaturated fats.
c) may lower blood cholesterol when consumed regularly.
d) All of these statements are correct.

A

d) All of these statements are correct.

153
Q

41) Which of the following is TRUE of protein needs in athletes?
a) Strength and endurance athletes may require 50-100% more protein than the RDA.
b) Protein supplements are not typically necessary as long as kcal needs are met.
c) It is unlikely that protein requirements in excess of the AMDR would be required.
d) All of these statements are correct.

A

d) All of these statements are correct.

154
Q

42) A chemical score is calculated by comparing the amount of the limiting amino acid in the test protein with the amount of that amino acid in a reference protein such as:
a) egg protein.
b) human muscle protein.
c) wheat protein.
d) soy protein.

A

a) egg protein.

155
Q

43) A pattern of food intake that eliminates all animal products is called:
a) lacto-ovo vegetarian.
b) vegan vegetarian.
c) phyto vegetarian.
d) pesco vegetarian.

A

b) vegan vegetarian.

156
Q

44) Protein complementation is a technique which:
a) increases the biological value of a protein.
b) increases the nitrogen content of dietary protein sources.
c) minimizes nitrogen loss in the urine.
d) combines proteins from different sources so that essential amino acids requirements are met.

A

d) combines proteins from different sources so that essential amino acids requirements are met.

157
Q

45) Protein complementation is most important for people who are:
a) vegan vegetarians.
b) recovering from surgery.
c) lacto-ovo vegetarians.
d) consumers of both plant and animal foods.

A

a) vegan vegetarians.

158
Q

46) __________________ are at increased risk of not getting adequate vitamin B12 in their diet.
a) Lacto-ovo vegetarians
b) Trained athletes
c) Vegan vegetarians
d) Pregnant and lactating women

A

c) Vegan vegetarians

159
Q

49) Individuals with the genetic disorder phenylketonuria (PKU) should limit their intake of foods containing:
a) carbohydrate.
b) iron.
c) monosodium glutamate.
d) aspartame.

A

d) aspartame.

160
Q

50) The basic building blocks of proteins are:
a) monosaccharides.
b) amino acids.
c) sterols.
d) ketone bodies.

A

b) amino acids.

161
Q

51) Heating a protein causes:
a) transamination.
b) deamination.
c) denaturation.
d) all of these.

A

c) denaturation.

162
Q

52) The AMDR for protein intake is _______% of energy intake.
a) 20-35
b) 45-65
c) 30-45
d) 10-35

A

d) 10-35

163
Q

54) Which metabolic waste product increases when amino acids are converted to other metabolic intermediates?
a) Ammonia
b) Pyruvate
c) CO2
d) Bilirubin

A

a) Ammonia

164
Q

55) Which of the following functions is performed by proteins in the body?
a) Transport
b) Structure
c) Immunity
d) All of these functions are performed by proteins.

A

d) All of these functions are performed by proteins.

165
Q

57) Which of the following is a physical characteristic associated with Kwashiorkor?
a) Bloated abdomen
b) Excess sweating
c) Tall stature
d) Hypertrophic (enlarged) leg muscles

A

a) Bloated abdomen

166
Q

58) Regular soy consumption may help:
a) increase fertility.
b) lower blood LDL cholesterol levels.
c) improve athletic performance.
d) reduce muscle fatigue.

A

b) lower blood LDL cholesterol levels.

167
Q

61) A measure of protein quality determined by comparing the amount of nitrogen retained in the body with the amount absorbed from the diet is called the:
a) chemical score.
b) biological value.
c) protein efficiency ratio.
d) net protein utilization.

A

b) biological value.

168
Q

62) A complete dietary protein:
a) contains the element sulfur.
b) has been hydrolyzed so that digestion is not necessary.
c) provides essential amino acids in the proportion needed to support protein synthesis.
d) has a low biological value.

A

c) provides essential amino acids in the proportion needed to support protein synthesis.

169
Q

63) Complete protein sources can be found in which MyPyramid food group?
a) Fats and oils
b) Fruits and vegetables
c) Dairy
d) Grains

A

c) Dairy

Nutrition 1165 (3 decks)

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