General IFR Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

How should a pilot describe braking action

A

Good, good to medium, medium, medium to poor, poor, nil

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2
Q

Holding speeds
Domestic
International

A

Domestic
MHA - 6,000: 200 KIAS
6,001 - 14,000: 230 KIAS
>14,000: 265 KIAS

International 
<14,000:  230 KIAS
14,000 - 20,000:  240 KIAS
20,000 - 34,000:  265 KIAS
>34,000:  0.83 MACH
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3
Q

VV001 in a METAR indicates what?

A

100’ indefinite ceiling

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4
Q

What is the name of the area beyond the runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?

A

Clearway

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5
Q

Single-engine operations

Method 2 (Escape Routing)

A

Aircraft will be able to drift down and still maintain 2,000 above all obstacles within 5 statute miles of either side of intended track.

Diversion coverage is provided for the entire length of each route segment.

The aircraft must be able to maintain a positive climb gradient at an altitude of 1,500’ above the alternate airport elevation.

Will provide escape routings and diversion airports suggestions for segments where terrain clearance is a factor at drift down altitude.

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6
Q

Terminal weather definitions

Open
Operational
Instrument

A

Open: > 3000 / 5
Operational: < 3000 / 5, but > 1000 / 3
Instrument: < 1000 / 3, but > 600 / 1

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7
Q

MSA’s provide

A

1000’ clearance over all obstructions but not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage

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8
Q

Single-engine operations

Method 1 (Payload Reduction)

A

Ensure the aircraft will be able to climb or descend to and maintain positive slope at an altitude of at least 2,000’ above all terrain and obstructions within 5 statute miles of each side of intended track.

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9
Q

What actions should be taken at the transition altitude?

QNH, QNE, QFE

A

It depends:
QNH (nautical height) - Set below TA
QNE (nautical elevation) - Set above TA
QFE (field elevation)

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10
Q

What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?

A

Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater

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11
Q

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What min ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?

A

¾ SM

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12
Q

What is the purpose of winglets?

A

Reduces drag by reducing wingtip vortices between high pressure and low pressure zones at the end of the wing.

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13
Q

Class 2 Navigation

A

En route operation outside of the the Operational Service Volumes of ICAO standard navaids. This is generally transoceanic operations and operations in desolate and remote land areas (Arctic)

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14
Q

Runway centerline lights are white except for:

A

3000’ remaining alternating white/red

1000’ remaining all red

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15
Q

Class 1 Navigation

A

En route navigation that is entirely within Operational Service Volumes (OSV) of ICAO standard navaids (VOR, VOR/DME, NDB). Even if navigation doesn’t use those navaids (ie pilotage)

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16
Q

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMIGS) requires a low visibility taxi plan for any airport which has takeoff and landing operations in less than:

A

1200’ RVR conditions

18
Q

Required obstacle clearance is based on the aircraft crossing the departure end at what altitude? (Unless specified otherwise)

A

35’

18
Q

What happens to TAS, IAS, and AOA if you hold constant Mach in a climb?

A

TAS decreases
IAS decreases
AOA increases

19
Q

Minimum Safe / Sector Altitudes (MSA) are expressed in:

A

Feet above mean sea level and normally have a 25NM radius

20
Q

Runway edge lights are white except for:

A

Last 2000’ they are yellow/amber

20
Q

Which condition reduces the requires runway for takeoff?

A

Increased headwind component

21
Q

Which type of clouds are indicative of strong turbulence?

A

Standing lenticular

22
Q

In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?

A

Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

22
Q

What effect does airfield elevation have on takeoff ground speed?

A

Higher ground speed at higher elevation airports

25
Q

RVSM Altimeter comparison tolerance

A

75’ on the ground

200’ in-flight

26
Q

Under which condition during landing roll are the main wheel brakes at max effectiveness?

A

When wing lift has been reduced

27
Q

How does Coiolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?

A

Causes clockwise rotation around a low front