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S.N Pathophys final > Hematology questions > Flashcards

Hematology questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?

a. vitiligo
b. peripheral neuropathy
c. carcinoma of the stomach
d. macrocytic anemia

A

b. peripheral neuropathy

d. macrocytic anemia

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2
Q

Does veganism cause Folate deficiency?

A

No

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3
Q

Which statement is true about the reduction of folate?

a. it is inhibited by methotrexate
b. it occurs during thymidylate synthesis
c. it is inhibited by sulphonamide
d. vegan people are affected more
e. it needs vitamin B12

A

a. it is inhibited by methotrexate

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4
Q

The lab reports for a patient with low MCV show high serum ferritin
and low TIBC. What is the most likely cause for this patients anemia?”
a. hypothyroidism
b. iron deficiency
c. thalassemia
d. hemoglobinopathy
e. anemia secondary to inflammation

A

e. anemia secondary to inflammation

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5
Q

Specific signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia may include:

a. intermittent glossitis
b. angular cheilosis
c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
d. dermatitis

A

All

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6
Q

Select the following that enhance iron absorption (select all that apply)

a. calcium
b. citric acid
c. ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
d. polyphenols (tea)

A

b. citric acid

c. ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)

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7
Q

Iron is absorved in the ______

A

Duodenum

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8
Q 
Signs/Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia may include all of the
 following except: "
a. Dizziness (vertigo)
b. Pallor of conjunctiva 
c. Tachypnoe
d. Abdominal pain
e. Tachycardia
A

d. Abdominal pain

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9
Q

Which are characteristic laboratory finding(s) for IDA?

a. Increased RDW
b. Decreased sTfR
c. Ovalocytes, elliptocytes, microcytes
d. Decreased MCV, MCH, MCHC

A

a. Increased RDW

d. Decreased MCV, MCH, MCHC

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10
Q

Which of the following normally contains >10% of body iron?
a. lymphocytes

c. heart
d. transferrin
e. macrophages

A

e. macrophages

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11
Q

What is the most important test for iron stores?

a. se transferrin
b. bone marrow biopsy
c. se Fe
d. TIBC
e. se ferritin

A

e. se ferritin

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12
Q

Where is most of non-heme iron found in the body?

a. in red blood cells
b. free in plasma
c. bound to transferrin
d. bound to IF
e. stored in the liver

A

e. stored in the liver

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Hemorrhage is the major cause of iron deficiency in Hungary
b. A molecule of transferrin may transport 4 atoms of iron
c. A unit of blood contains 200-250 mg iron
d. A man needs to absorb about 1 mg of dietary iron daily

A

c. A unit of blood contains 200-250 mg iron

d. A man needs to absorb about 1 mg of dietary iron daily

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14
Q 
Which of the following laboratory findings coincide with 
megaloblastic anemia?"
a. increased LDH
b. increased serum bilirubin 
c. increased transferrin
d. increased serum iron
A

a. increased LDH

b. increased serum bilirubin

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15
Q

Which of the following is a normochromic, normocytic anemia:

a. anemia of chronic renal disease
b. sideroblastic anemia
c. iron deficiency
d. megaloblastic anemia
e. thalassemia

A

a. anemia of chronic renal disease

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16
Q

Microcytic anemia may be caused by:

a. Acute bleeding
b. alpha Thalassemia
c. Renal damage
d. Foliate deficiancy
e. Alcohol

A

b. alpha Thalassemia

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of microcytic anemia?

a. pancytopenia
b. lead poisoning
c. thalassemia
d. iron deficiency anemia
e. anemia of chronic disease

A

a. pancytopenia

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18
Q

The most common form of sideroblastic anemia is:

a. Acquired, alcohol related
b. Hereditary, X-linked
c. Hereditary, autosomal recessive
d. hereditary, autosomal dominant
e. acquired, lead poisoning

A

a. Acquired, alcohol related

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about sideroblastic anemia?

a. It may respond to erythropoietin
b. it may be inherited
c. it may cause splenomegaly
d. it may be caused by folate deficiency
e. it is most frequently caused by myelodysplasia

A

d. it may be caused by folate deficiency

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20
Q

All of the following statements regarding sideroblastic anemias are
correct, EXCEPT:”
a. sideroblastic anemic diseases result from impaired iron utilization and
defective Hb formation”
b. they may cause splenomegaly
c. they can be hereditary or acquired
d. iron stores in the bone marrow are decreased
e. they can be treated with pyridoxine to stimulate heme-synthesis

A

d. iron stores in the bone marrow are decreased

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21
Q

Aside from the gradual onset signs of anemia, what other clinical presentations do you expect to see in aplastic anemia?”

a. associated thrombocytopenia, e.g. history of bleeding from the gums
b. neutropenia, e.g. repeated bacterial infections
c. purpura
d. koilonychia, “spoon nails”

A

a. associated thrombocytopenia, e.g. history of bleeding from the gums
b. neutropenia, e.g. repeated bacterial infections
c. purpura

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22
Q

Aplastic anemia is a condition where:

a. there is deficiency of iron
b. there is deficiency of vitamin B12
c. there is deficiency of vitamin B6
d. the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells
e. red blood cells are destroyed very fast in the circulation

A

d. the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells

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23
Q
  1. What can cause aplastic anemia?
    a. pregnancy
    b. drugs and chemicals
    c. viral infection
    d. idiopathic
A

All

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24
Q

Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect?

a. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin
b. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen
c. Mature red blood cells lack nuclei
d. Red blood cells lack mitochondria
e. proerythroblast has EPO receptors

A

b. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen

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25
Q
  1. Signs/symptoms of sickle cell anemia may include:
    a. Tachycardia
    b. Dizziness (vertigo)
    c. Abdominal pain
    d. Pallor of conjunctiva
A

All

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26
Q
  1. What could be the clinical manifestation(s) of PNH?
    a. decreased GFR
    b. bone marrow aplasia, pancytopenia
    c. normal se haptoglobin
    d. iron deficiency
A

b. bone marrow aplasia, pancytopenia

d. iron deficiency

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27
Q

Porphyrias=

A

Rare inherited disorder

Problems making heme

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28
Q

Heme is made of

A

Porphyrin which is bound to iron

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29
Q
  1. Signs/symptoms of porphyrias may include:
    a. abdominal pain
    b. dermatitis
    c. peripheral neuropathy
    d. gallstone
A

a. abdominal pain

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
    a. it may complicate B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia
    b. it may be associated with IgM antibodies in serum
    c. it may be due to drugs
    d. it is associated with pernicious anemia
    e. it is associated with a positive direct antiglobulin test
A

d. it is associated with pernicious anemia

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31
Q
  1. Hemolytic anemia can be caused by:
    a. thalassemia
    b. G6PD deficiency
    c. PK deficiency
    d. inflammation
A

a. thalassemia
b. G6PD deficiency
c. PK deficiency

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32
Q
  1. Where in the body is erythropoietin produced?
    a. spleen
    b. thyroid
    c. liver
    d. kidney
A

c. liver

d. kidney

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33
Q
  1. The primary cause of anemia of chronic renal disease is:
    a. hydremia
    b. blood lost in the urine
    c. deficiency of iron
    d. hemolysis resulting from capillary thrombosis
    e. decreased erythropoietin synthesis
A

e. decreased erythropoietin synthesis

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34
Q

“38.When red blood cells are removed from the circulation, part of their
components are recycled while others are disposed. Select the incorrect
statement about destruction of red blood cells:”
a. biliverdin and bilirubin impart color to bile
b. macrophages in the liver and spleen destroy worn out red blood cells
c. iron is stored in RES in the form of ferritin
d. the greenish pigment, biliverdin, is recycled to the bone marrow
e. iron is carried to the bone marrow by a protein called transferrin

A

d. the greenish pigment, biliverdin, is recycled to the bone marrow

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35
Q 
"39. What test would you do, besides history, CBC and blood smear,
 to confirm thalassemia? "
a. Hb electrophoresis
b. se bilirubin
c. TIBC
d. se ferritin
e. se Fe
A

a. Hb electrophoresis

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about alpha-thalassemia?
    a. Presence of Bart’s Hb
    b. Reduced production of alpha chain due to a point mutation
    c. The Mentzer index usually is >13
    d. Presence of HbH
A

a. Presence of Bart’s Hb

d. Presence of HbH

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about α-thalassemia? Select one or more:
    a. it is rare except in the Far East
    b. it causes a microcytic hypochromic blood picture
    c. it ameliorates β thalassemia
    d. it may cause haemoglobin H disease
A

b. it causes a microcytic hypochromic blood picture

d. it may cause haemoglobin H disease

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38
Q
  1. Which would you expect to see on a blood smear for beta thalassemia?
    a. Heinz bodies
    b. hypochromic microcytic anemia
    c. multinucleated neutrophils
    d. target cells
A

b. hypochromic microcytic anemia

d. target cells

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about β-thalassemia?
    a. reduced production of β chain due to a point mutation
    b. presence of HbH
    c. increased HbF
    d. the Mentzer index usually is >13
A

a. reduced production of β chain due to a point mutation

c. increased HbF

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about β-thalassemia trait?
    a. it is associated with a reticulocytosis
    b. it may cause hemoglobin H disease
    c. it is associated with splenomegaly
    d. it is associated with a raised hemoglobin A2 level
    e. it is associated with iron overload
A

d. it is associated with a raised hemoglobin A2 level

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41
Q
  1. Spherocytes in the blood film may occur in:
    a. Iron deficiency anemia
    b. Reticulocytosis
    c. Thalassemia major
    d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    e. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
A

d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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42
Q
  1. It is true about hereditary spherocytosis
    a. it can be treated by splenectomy
    b. it is due to pyruvate kinase deficiency
    c. it is caused by an inherited defect in hemoglobin
    d. it is more frequent in southern Europe
    e. It is more common in males
A

a. it can be treated by splenectomy

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43
Q
  1. Anemia secondary to uremia is characteristically:
    a. macrocytic
    b. microcytic, hypochromic
    c. hemolytic
    d. megaloblastic
    e. normocytic, normochromic
A

e. normocytic, normochromic

44
Q

“50. A 50-year-old patient is suffering from pernicious anemia.
Which of the following laboratory data are most likely on this patient?”
a. WBC 12.5 G/l; PLT 1250 G/l
b. WBC 6.5 G/l; PLT 80 G/l
c. WBC 4 G/l; PLT 750 G/l
d. WBC 5 G/l; PLT 50 G/l
e. WBC 12.5 G/l; PLT 250 G/l

A

d. WBC 5 G/l; PLT 50 G/l

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with pernicious anemia?
    a. thyroid antibodies in serum
    b. systemic lupus erythematosus
    c. ileocecal resection
    d. alcoholism
    e. malabsorption of B12-intrinsic factor complex
A

e. malabsorption of B12-intrinsic factor complex

46
Q
  1. Symptoms/alterations in polycythemia vera (PV)?
    a. Decreased erythropoetin level
    b. Decreased hematocrit
    c. Long standing febrile state
    d. Itching
A

a. Decreased erythropoetin level

d. Itching

47
Q
  1. Symptoms/alterations in polycythemia vera (PV), except?
    a. Itching
    b. Increased hematocrit
    c. Decreased erythropoetin level
    d. Long standing febrile state
A

d. Long standing febrile state

48
Q

“4. A factor in the molecular pathomechanism of chronic myeloid leukemia
(CML)? “
a. Decreased protein degradation
b. Abnormally increased intracellular signaling
c. Increased relocation of membrane lipids
d. Increased intracellular phosphatase activity
e. Decreased mitochondrial energy production

A

b. Abnormally increased intracellular signaling

49
Q
  1. As a result of 9:22 translocation in chronic myeloid leukemoa (CML):
    a. Apoptosis of affected cells is increased
    b. mRNA transcription decreases
    c. A chimeric protein is produced with increased kinase activity
    d. Activity of the bcr protein increases
    e. Cell differentiation becomes blocked at an early stage
A

c. A chimeric protein is produced with increased kinase activity

50
Q
  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is characterized by:
    a. All cell forms of the lymphoid lineage are present in the periphery
    b. Simultaneous involvement of multiple cell lines
    c. Favorable responsiveness to chemotherapy
    d. It is less frequent in adults compared to children
    - “-
    a. T lymphocytes are more frequently affected than B lymphocytes
    b. High chance of in utero mutation generation
    c. Recurrent genetic alterations can be identified by cytogenetic testing
    d. Poor response to chemotherapy
A

c. Favorable responsiveness to chemotherapy
d. It is less frequent in adults compared to children
b. High chance of in utero mutation generation
c. Recurrent genetic alterations can be identified by cytogenetic testing

51
Q
  1. The most frequent hematological tumor:
    a. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
    b. Primary myelofibrosis (PMF)
    c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
    d. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
    e. Follicular lymphoma
A

c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

52
Q
  1. Pathogenic factors of renal failure in myeloma multiplex (MM), except:
    a. Decreased perfusion
    b. Light chain deposition
    c. Nephrocalcinosis
    d. Amyloidosis
A

a. Decreased perfusion

53
Q
  1. Pathogenetic factors of anemia in myeloma multiplex (MM),
    a. Latent iron deficiency
    b. Bone marrow infiltration by plasma cell expansion
    c. Decreased erythropoetin production due to renal failure
    d. Hemodilution
A

b. Bone marrow infiltration by plasma cell expansion

c. Decreased erythropoetin production due to renal failure

54
Q
  1. Predominantly affected cell lines in myeloma multiplex (MM):
    a. Plasma cells
    b. Myeloblasts
    c. B lymphocytes
    d. Megakaryocytes
A

a. Plasma cells

55
Q
  1. Consequences of the bone lesions in myeloma multiplex (MM):
    a. Increased osteoblast activity
    b. Elevated serum calcium level
    c. Erythroid hyperplasia in the newly formed bone marrow space
    d. Pathological fractures
A

b. Elevated serum calcium level

d. Pathological fractures

56
Q
  1. Abnormal condition(s) preceding myeloma multiplex (MM):
    a. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
    b. Primary myelofibrosis (PMF)
    c. Polycythemia vera (PV)
    d. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
A

d. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

57
Q
  1. Characteristic alteration in myeloma multiplex (MM):
    a. Renal failure
    b. Elevated plasma total protein level
    c. Anemia
    d. Elevated blast count in the periphery
    - “-
    a. Elevated plasma cell count in the periphery
    b. Decreased plasma total protein level
    c. Osteolytic bone lesions
    d. Thrombocytosis
A

a. Renal failure
b. Elevated plasma total protein level
c. Anemia
c. Osteolytic bone lesions

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is an immature cell in platelet differentiation?
    a. Common myeloid progenitor cell
    b. Common lymphoid progenitor cell
    c. Mesodermal stem cell
    d. Mesenchymal stem cell
    e. None of the above
A

a. Common myeloid progenitor cell

59
Q
  1. Which cell lines are affected in myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN)?
    a. Dendritic cell
    b. Thymocyte
    c. Megakaryocyte
    d. Natural killer cell
A

c. Megakaryocyte

60
Q
  1. Which is a characteristic feature of a myeloproliferative neoplasm?
    a. Bone destruction
    b. Elevated erythropoietin level
    c. Splenomegaly
    d. Initial symptom is frequently bone pain
    e. Rapid progression
A

c. Splenomegaly

61
Q
  1. It is true for acute myeloid leukemia (AML):
    a. All cell forms of the myeloid lineage are present in the periphery
    b. It is more common in adults than ALL
    c. A pathological bone fracture is the most frequent symptom at presentation
    d. Blast ratio in the bone marrow does not exceed 20%
A

b. It is more common in adults than ALL

62
Q

“22. Main AML subclasses according to the World Health Organization (WHO)

classification: “
a. AML with myelodysplastic alterations
b. Therapy related AML
c. AML with recurrent genetic abnormality
d. AML associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection

A

a. AML with myelodysplastic alterations
b. Therapy related AML
c. AML with recurrent genetic abnormality

63
Q
  1. In AML, genes affected by mutation in more than 10% of the cases:
    a. Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (K-RAS)
    b. Nucleophosmin 1 (NPM1)
    c. Janus kinase 2 (JAK2)
    d. Break point cluster region (BCR)
A

b. Nucleophosmin 1 (NPM1)

64
Q 
"24. Which of the following diseases is associated with increased 
AML-transformation risk? "
a. Follicular lymphoma
b. Primary myelofibrosis (PMF)  
c. Essential thrombocytosis (ET)
d. Polycythemia vera (PV)
e. Myeloma multiplex (MM)
A

b. Primary myelofibrosis (PMF)

65
Q
  1. Which is an environmental factor playing a role in leukemogenesis?
    a. Down syndrome
    b. Deep vein thrombosis
    c. Human T lymphotropic virus (HTLV) infection
    d. Chronic alcohol consumption
    e. Vitamin K deficiency
A

c. Human T lymphotropic virus (HTLV) infection

66
Q
  1. Symptoms/alterations in essential thrombocytosis (ET)?
    a. Itching
    b. Decreased hematocrit
    c. Decreased erythropoetin level
    d. Splenomegaly
A

d. Splenomegaly

67
Q

“27. Which is a characteristic, frequent, acquired genetic alteration in essential
thrombocytosis (ET)?”
a. 9:22 chromosome translocation
b. Gene rearrangement of the cyclin D gene
c. Abl kinase gene mutations
d. K-ras gene mutations
e. Calreticulin gene mutations

A

e. Calreticulin gene mutations

68
Q

High PLT count

A

Thrombocytosis

69
Q

Low PLT count

A

Thrombocytopenia

70
Q
  1. Which disease is characterized by the total absence of differentiation?
    a. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).
    b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
    c. Essential thrombocytosis (ET).
    d. All of the above.
    e. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
A

a. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).

71
Q
  1. Which genetic factor plays a role in leukemogenesis?
    a. Down syndrome
    b. Sickle cell anemia
    c. Thalassemia major
    d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
    e. Epstein-Barr virus infection
A

a. Down syndrome

72
Q
  1. Which are the environmental factors playing a role in leukemogenesis, except?
    a. Industrial solvents
    b. Epstein-Barr virus infection
    c. Anti-tumor chemotherapy
    d. Ionizing irradiation
    e. Sickle cell anemia
A

e. Sickle cell anemia

73
Q
  1. The following are myeloid diseases, except:
    a. Polycythemia vera (PV)
    b. Essential thrombocytosis (ET).
    c. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).
    d. Myeloma multiplex (MM)
    e. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
A

d. Myeloma multiplex (MM)

74
Q
  1. Chemotherapeutic target(s) in leukemias:
    a. mRNA synthesis
    b. Purine synthesis
    c. %*50%Glycolysis
    d. Terminal oxidation
A

b. Purine synthesis

75
Q
  1. Targeted therapeutic options in leukemias:
    a. Proteosome inhibitors
    b. Cyclo-oxigenase inhibitors
    c. Tyrosin kinase inhibitors
    d. Proton-pump inhibitors
A

c. Tyrosin kinase inhibitors

76
Q
  1. Which is a common symptom of leukemia at presentation?
    a. Jaundice
    b. Febrile state without obvious cause
    c. Headache
    d. Altered vision
    e. Nausea and vomiting
A

b. Febrile state without obvious cause

77
Q
  1. Which is a common symptom of acute leukemia at presentation?
    a. Punctuated skin bleedings (petechiae)
    b. Painful swelling of the lower extremity
    c. Altered vision
    d. Nausea and vomiting
    e. Headache
A

a. Punctuated skin bleedings (petechiae)

78
Q
  1. Which is a clonal hematopoietic disease with primary bone marrow localization?
    a. Hodgkin disease
    b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
    c. Mantle cell lymphoma
    d. Follicular lymphoma
    e. None of the above
A

b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

79
Q
  1. The French-American-British (FAB) classification is primarily based on:
    a. Cytogenetic alterations
    b. Prognosis
    c. Molecular alterations
    d. Histopathological picture
    e. Genetic mutations
A

d. Histopathological picture

80
Q
  1. Which one is a targeted diagnostic procedure of clonal hematologic diseases?
    a. Fine needle biopsy
    b. Scintigraphy
    c. Computed tomography
    d. Gastroscopy
    e. Flow cytometry
A

e. Flow cytometry

81
Q
  1. Element of molecular pathomechanism of leukemia?
    a. Predominance of glycolysis in cellular energy production
    b. Increased mitochondrion production
    c. Plasma membrane reorganization
    d. Increased intracellular signaling leading to enhanced cell proliferation
    e. Accelerated differentiation
A

d. Increased intracellular signaling leading to enhanced cell proliferation

82
Q
  1. The World Health Organization (WHO) classification is primarily based on:
    a. Cytochemistry reaction pattern
    b. Cellular origin and genetic alterations
    c. Cytogenetic alterations
    d. Histopathological picture
    e. Prognosis
A

b. Cellular origin and genetic alterations

83
Q
  1. The World Health Organization (WHO) classification is primarily based on:
    a. Cytochemistry reaction pattern
    b. Cellular origin and genetic alterations
    c. Cytogenetic alterations
    d. Histopathological picture
    e. Prognosis
A

b. Cellular origin and genetic alterations

84
Q
  1. What is the cause of thrombocytopenia in liver cirrhosis?
    a. decreased bile secretion
    b. direct effect of metabolic alterations on the bone marrow
    c. splenomegaly – hypersplenia
    d. hyperbilirubinemia
    e. malabsorption
A

c. splenomegaly – hypersplenia

85
Q
  1. Thrombocytopenia can occur, except in:
    a. acute leukemia
    b. in autoimmune disease
    c. following massive transfusion
    d. acute inflammation
    e. in measles infection
A

d. acute inflammation

86
Q
  1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by:
    a. ADAMTS13 deficiency
    b. increased platelet aggregation
    c. von Willebrand factor protein of ultra large size
    d. renal failure
A

All

87
Q
  1. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by:
    a. it is associated with vitamin K deficiency
    b. decreased platelet aggregation
    c. it is more common in females than males
    d. decreased platelet release reaction
    e. bleedings into the joints
A

c. it is more common in females than males

88
Q
  1. Surface receptor that plays a role in platelet activation:
    a. prostacyclin
    b. histidine decarboxylase
    c. thromboxane A2
    d. glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
    e. endocannabinoid
A

d. glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

89
Q
  1. Which step of platelet activation takes place the earliest?
    a. aggregation
    b. contraction of the cytoskeleton
    c. adhesion
    d. elevation of intracellular calcium levels
    e. release of dense granule content
A

c. adhesion

90
Q
  1. Platelets are characterized by:
    a. the majority of blood group antigens are expressed on their surface
    b. they are capable to divide
    c. surface expression of HLA class I antigens
    d. a lack of granules
    e. they generate energy by glycolysis
A

c. surface expression of HLA class I antigens

91
Q
  1. Platelet production can be inhibited by:
    a. vitamin B12 deficiency
    b. all answers are correct
    c. chemotherapy
    d. bone marrow manifestation of malignant disease
    e. measles virus infection
A

All

92
Q
  1. Direct interaction partner of thrombin, except:
    a. subendothelial smooth muscle cells
    b. platelets
    c. lymphocytes
    d. monocytes
    e. endothelial cells
A

a. subendothelial smooth muscle cells

93
Q
  1. Interaction partner of thrombin:
    a. lymphocytes
    b. monocytes
    c. fibrinogen
    d. platelets
    e. all the answers are correct
A

e. all the answers are correct

94
Q

14 Genetic factors increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis:

a. activated protein C resistance
b. Gilbert’s syndrome
c. Leiden mutation
d. alfa-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

a. activated protein C resistance

c. Leiden mutation

95
Q
  1. Laboratory alteration suggesting deep vein thrombosis:
    a. decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
    b. decreased hemoglobin level
    c. decreased activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
    d. elevated plasma D-dimer level
A

d. elevated plasma D-dimer level

96
Q
  1. Endothelial cells synthesize:
    a. prostaglandin E2
    b. serotonin
    c. protein C
    d. von Willebrand factor
    e. elastase
A

d. von Willebrand factor

97
Q

“17. Which of the following statements is true regarding the
role of endothelial cells in coagulation?”
“a. upon tissue injury, endothelial cells physically prevent the exposure
of the subendothelium”
b. by the production of protein C, endothelial cells inhibit the coagulation process
c. none of the other answers are correct
d. endothelial cells inhibit platelet activation
e. endothelial cells have an overall anticoagulant activity

A

e. endothelial cells have an overall anticoagulant activitye

98
Q
  1. Its concentration increases in inflammation:
    a. protein C
    b. factor X (Stuart-Prower)
    c. thrombomodulin
    d. factor II (prothrombin)
    e. factor VIII (anti-hemophilic)
    - “-
    a. anti-hemophilic factor (VIII)
    b. fibrinogen (I)
    c. prothrombin (II)
    d. free fatty acids
A

e. factor VIII (anti-hemophilic)
a. anti-hemophilic factor (VIII)
b. fibrinogen (I)

99
Q
  1. Part of the coagulation process, except:
    a. release of thromboxane A2 from platelets
    b. release of fibrin degradation peptides
    c. release of tissue factor
    d. release of serotonin from platelets
    e. mast cell degranulation
A

e. mast cell degranulation

100
Q
  1. Vitamin K dependent coagulation factor, except:
    a. factor VIII (anti-hemophilic)
    b. factor II (prothrombin)
    c. factor X (Stuart-Prower)
    d. factor IX (Christmas)
    e. factor VII (proconvertin)
A

a. factor VIII (anti-hemophilic)

101
Q
  1. Typical laboratory results in vitamin K antagonist treatment:
    a. normal activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
    b. normal prothrombin time (PT)
    c. normal platelet count
    d. prolonged thrombin time (TT)
    - “-
    a. prolonged prothrombin time (PT)
    b. prolonged bleeding time
    c. decreased platelet count
    d. prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
A

c. normal platelet count
a. prolonged prothrombin time (PT)
d. prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

102
Q
  1. Characteristics in hemophilia type A:
    a. deficiency of factor VIII
    b. mucous membrane and skin bleedings
    c. males are affected
    d. deficiency of factor IX
A

a. deficiency of factor VIII
b. mucous membrane and skin bleedings
c. males are affected

103
Q
  1. Characteristics in hemophilia type B:
    a. deficiency of factor VIII
    b. joint and muscle involvement
    c. deficiency of factor IX
    d. autosomal recessive inheritance
A

b. joint and muscle involvement

c. deficiency of factor IX

104
Q
  1. Coagulation factors with serine protease activity:
    a. Stuart-Prower factor (X)
    b. fibrin stabilizing factor (XIII)
    c. anti-hemophilic factor (VIII)
    d. von Willebrand factor
A

a. Stuart-Prower factor (X)

105
Q
  1. The most frequent inherited coagulation deficiency:
    a. activated protein C resistance
    b. von Willebrand disease
    c. hemophilia type B
    d. hemophilia type A
    e. dysfibrinogenemia
A

b. von Willebrand disease

106
Q
  1. Interaction partner of von Willebrand factor: Select one:
    a. coagulation factor VIII
    b. fibrinogen
    c. glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor of platelets
    d. plasminogen
    e. activated protein C
A

a. coagulation factor VIII

107
Q
  1. Alterations in von Willebrand disease:
    a. decreased platelet function
    b. mucous membrane bleedings
    c. decreased factor VIII level
    d. prolonged bleeding time
A

b. mucous membrane bleedings
c. decreased factor VIII level
d. prolonged bleeding time

S.N Pathophys final (11 decks)

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