9.0 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) II

Question 1

<div>Concerning severe iron deficiency</div>

<div>A. red blood cells are enlarged</div>

<div>B. only erythropoiesis is affected</div>

<div>C. iron in vegetable produce is absorbed more efficiently than iron in animal produce</div>

<div>D. men and women are equally effected commonly</div>

<div>E. disease worsens in pregnancy</div>

Answer 1

<div>Concerning severe iron deficiency</div>

<div>A. red blood cells are enlarged (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. only erythropoiesis is affected (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. iron in vegetable produce is absorbed more efficiently than iron in animal produce (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. men and women are equally effected commonly (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. disease worsens in pregnancy (TRUE)</div>

Question 2

<div>The following are pro-thrombotic</div>

<div>A. Microparticles</div>

<div>B. plasminogen activator inhibitors</div>

<div>C. nitric oxide</div>

<div>D. fibrin</div>

E. Von Willebrand factor

Answer 2

<div>The following are pro-thrombotic</div>

<div>A. Microparticles (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. plasminogen activator inhibitors (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. nitric oxide (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. fibrin (TRUE)</div>

E. Von Willebrand factor (TRUE)

Question 3

<div>In the development of an atherosclerotic plaque</div>

<div>A. endothelial cells are injured by oxidised lipoproteins</div>

<div>B. smooth muscle cells secrete collagen</div>

<div>C. endothelial cells are injured by laminar blood flow</div>

<div>D. smooth muscle cells secrete collagenase</div>

<div>E. endothelial cell injury only occurs at arterial branch points</div>

Answer 3

<div>In the development of an atherosclerotic plaque</div>

<div>A. endothelial cells are injured by oxidised lipoproteins (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. smooth muscle cells secrete collagen (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. endothelial cells are injured by laminar blood flow (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. smooth muscle cells secrete collagenase (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. endothelial cell injury only occurs at arterial branch points (FALSE)</div>

Question 4

<div>The following statements are true</div>

<div>A. Bcl2 is a pro-survival protein</div>

<div>B. P53 inactivates p21</div>

<div>C. the APC gene is often mutated by frameshift mutations</div>

<div>D. Bcr-Abl is formed as the consequence of a chromosomal inversion</div>

<div>E. Ras proteins are activated by GTP hydrolysis</div>

Answer 4

<div>The following statements are true</div>

<div>A. Bcl2 is a pro-survival protein (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. P53 inactivates p21 (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. the APC gene is often mutated by frameshift mutations (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. Bcr-Abl is formed as the consequence of a chromosomal inversion (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. Ras proteins are activated by GTP hydrolysis (FALSE)</div>

Question 5

<div>Concerning neoplasia</div>

<div>A. leiomyosarcoma is a benign tumour arising from muscle</div>

<div>B. an adenoma is a benign tumour of glandular epithelium</div>

<div>C. leukemia is a malignancy</div>

<div>D. adenocarcinoma of the cervix is a benign neoplasm</div>

<div>E. benign tumours are never fatal</div>

Answer 5

<div>Concerning neoplasia</div>

<div>A. leiomyosarcoma is a benign tumour arising from muscle (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. an adenoma is a benign tumour of glandular epithelium (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. leukemia is a malignancy (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. adenocarcinoma of the cervix is a benign neoplasm (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. benign tumours are never fatal (FALSE)</div>

Question 6

<div>Concerning oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes</div>

<div>A. silencing of tumour suppressor genes can occur via RNA methylation</div>

<div>B. inactivation of Rb often occurs via chromosomal rearrangements</div>

<div>C. in general, oncogenes require bi-allelic activation</div>

<div>D. mutations in DNA polymerases are an occasional source of genetic instability</div>

<div>E. the p53 gene is mutated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome</div>

Answer 6

<div>Concerning oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes</div>

<div>A. silencing of tumour suppressor genes can occur via RNA methylation (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. inactivation of Rb often occurs via chromosomal rearrangements (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. in general, oncogenes require bi-allelic activation (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. mutations in DNA polymerases are an occasional source of genetic instability (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. the p53 gene is mutated in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome (TRUE)</div>

Question 7

<div>In cell cycle control</div>

<div>A. P16INK4a is a tumour suppressor gene</div>

<div>B. Rb promotes G1/S transition</div>

<div>C. phosphorylation of Rb is mediated by CDK4</div>

<div>D. overactivation of cyclin D1 inhibits cell cycle progression</div>

<div>E. P21 inhibits the cyclinD1/CDK4 complex</div>

Answer 7

<div>In cell cycle control</div>

<div>A. P16INK4a is a tumour suppressor gene (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. Rb promotes G1/S transition (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. phosphorylation of Rb is mediated by CDK4 (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. overactivation of cyclin D1 inhibits cell cycle progression (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. P21 inhibits the cyclinD1/CDK4 complex (TRUE)</div>

Question 8

<div>Regarding DNA damage repair</div>

<div>A. failure of mismatch repair/microsatellite instability occurs in some sporadic colon cancers</div>

<div>B. inactivation of MLH1 is often via methylation of its promoter</div>

<div>C. BRACA1 prepares single strand ends for base paring to the other helix</div>

<div>D. defects in cell cycle checkpoints can contribute to genetic instability</div>

<div>E. DNA breaks are repaired by the homologous recombination or mismatch repair pathway</div>

Answer 8

<div>Regarding DNA damage repair</div>

<div>A. failure of mismatch repair/microsatellite instability occurs in some sporadic colon cancers (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. inactivation of MLH1 is often via methylation of its promoter (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. BRACA1 prepares single strand ends for base paring to the other helix (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. defects in cell cycle checkpoints can contribute to genetic instability (TRUE)</div>

<div>E. DNA breaks are repaired by the homologous recombination or mismatch repair pathway (FALSE)</div>

Question 9

<div>Concerning carcinogenic agents</div>

<div>A. they can be identified by an Ames test</div>

<div>B. all carcinogens are also mutagens</div>

<div>C. naphthylamine exposure is associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer</div>

<div>D. asbestos exposure is linked to the development of mesothelioma, a cancer of adrenal tissue</div>

<div>E. UV light causes C to A transitions</div>

Answer 9

<div>Concerning carcinogenic agents</div>

<div>A. they can be identified by an Ames test (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. all carcinogens are also mutagens (FALSE)</div>

<div>C. naphthylamine exposure is associated with an increased risk of bladder cancer (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. asbestos exposure is linked to the development of mesothelioma, a cancer of adrenal tissue (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. UV light causes C to A transitions (FALSE)</div>

Question 10

<div>With respect to infectious agents and cancer</div>

<div>A. Helicobacter pylori induces genomic instability</div>

<div>B. vaccination against HPV16/18 prevents cervical cancer</div>

<div>C. EBV is associated with the development of cancer in immunosuppressed individuals</div>

<div>D. Schistosoma haematobium is associated with colon cancer in humans</div>

<div>E. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common problem in AIDS/HIV patients and is caused by HTLV-1</div>

Answer 10

<div>With respect to infectious agents and cancer</div>

<div>A. Helicobacter pylori induces genomic instability (TRUE)</div>

<div>B. vaccination against HPV16/18 prevents cervical cancer (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. EBV is associated with the development of cancer in immunosuppressed individuals (TRUE)</div>

<div>D. Schistosoma haematobium is associated with colon cancer in humans (FALSE)</div>

<div>E. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common problem in AIDS/HIV patients and is caused by HTLV-1 (FALSE)</div>

Question 11

<div>Which statement is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Only malignant, rather than benign tumours can cause death</div>

<div>B. Dysplasia is the change from one cell type to another in response to a stimulus </div>

<div>C. A key feature of benign tumours is their ability to metastasise </div>

<div>D. A lipoma is a benign tumour<br></br> E. Leiomyosarcoma is a benign tumour</div>

Answer 11

D. A lipoma is a benign tumour

Question 12

<div>Which statement about bacterial cells is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. They do not undergo meiosis</div>

<div>B. They have unstable genomes</div>

<div>C. They divide by binary fission </div>

<div>D. They have an extensive cytoskeleton <br></br> E. They are often polycistronic</div>

Answer 12

D. They have an extensive cytoskeleton

Question 13

<div>Which statement is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. The outer membrane of bacterial cell walls contains porins </div>

<div>B. Haemophilus influenzae has a polysaccharide capsule </div>

<div>C. Transposons are carried by plasmids </div>

<div>D. Vibrio cholera has a curved rod shape <br></br> E. Lipid A is highly variable</div>

Answer 13

E. Lipid A is highly variable

Question 14

<div>What statement is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Vancomycin binds the 30S ribosomal subunit </div>

<div>B. Tetracycline binds 50S ribosomal subunit </div>

<div>C. Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase </div>

<div>D. Chloramphenicol inhibits peptidyl transferase activity <br></br> E. Fluoroquinolones alter 16S rRNA in the 30S subunit</div>

Answer 14

C. Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Question 15

<div>Which statement about <i>Mycobacterium tuberculosis </i>is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. TB causes caseating granulomas</div>

<div>B. TB inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion</div>

<div>C. TB secretes SMAD4 protein to downregulate reactive oxygen species </div>

D. The tuberculin skin test assesses CD4⁺ T-cell response <br></br> E. It is ‘acid-fast’ on gram staining

Answer 15

C. TB secretes SMAD4 protein to downregulate reactive oxygen species

Question 16

<div>Which state about bacteria toxins is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Shiga toxin is an adenylate cyclase </div>

<div>B. C. difficile toxin glycosylates GTPases</div>

<div>C. Cytotoxic necrotising factors are deamidases </div>

<div>D. Botulinum toxin result in a flaccid paralysis <br></br> E. Superantigens bridge MHC Class II molecules</div>

Answer 16

A. Shiga toxin is an adenylate cyclase

Question 17

<div>Which statement about Chlamydia is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Chlamydia in an extracellular bacteria </div>

<div>B. Its reticulate body cannot replicate </div>

<div>C. It can cause trachoma </div>

<div>D. Chlamydia has a larger genome than Salmonella <br></br> E. It’s elementary body has a high metabolic activity</div>

Answer 17

C. It can cause trachoma

Question 18

<div>Which statement about <i>Streptococcus pyogenes </i>is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Its causes necrotising fasciitis </div>

<div>B. M protein binds C5a</div>

<div>C. It is Gram negative cocci </div>

<div>D. Streptolysins lyses clots <br></br> E. It is a Lancefield Group B pathogen</div>

Answer 18

A. Its causes necrotising fasciitis

Question 19

“<div>Which statement about Cholera is TRUE?</div> <div>A. The toxin structure is A₅B</div> <div>B. The toxin causes reduced levels of cAMP</div> <div>C. Cholera binds to Heparin-Binding Epidermal Growth Factor (HB-EGF) on the cell surface </div> <div>D. Cholera toxin acts on G-proteins (Gα_S)<br></br> E. Vibrio cholera colonises the colon</div>”

Answer 19

D. Cholera toxin acts on G-proteins (Gα_S)

Question 20

<div>What statement is INCORRECT? </div>

<div>A. Haemophilus influenzae is a gram positive rod </div>

<div>B. Helicobacter pylori is a gram negative and helically shaped </div>

<div>C. Neisseria meningitidis is a gram negative coccus</div>

<div>D. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram positive coccus <br></br> E. E.coli is a gram negative rod</div>

Answer 20

A. Haemophilus influenzae is a gram positive rod

Question 21

<div>Regarding <i>Toxoplasma gondii,</i> the following are correct, EXCEPT</div>

<div>A. The cat is the definitive host </div>

<div>B. They are unicellular organisms </div>

<div>C. It is an obligate intracellular parasite </div>

<div>D. Human are the only intermediate host <br></br> E. Produces flu-like symptoms in healthy individuals</div>

Answer 21

D. Human are the only intermediate host

Question 22

<div>Regarding Malaria, which statement is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. It is transmitted by <i>Anopheles </i>mosquito </div>

<div>B. <i>P. ovale</i> causes the greatest proportion of cases</div>

<div>C. Sporozoites infect hepatocytes </div>

<div>D. Merozoites infect red blood cells <br></br> E. The oocyst releases sporozoites</div>

Answer 22

B.<i>P. ovale</i>causes the greatest proportion of cases

Question 23

<div>Which of the following is NOT a feature of reversible cell injury?</div>

<div>A. Nuclear chromatin clumping </div>

<div>B. Loss of cristae</div>

<div>C. Lysosome rupture </div>

<div>D. Lipid vacuoles <br></br> E. Plasma membrane blebbing</div>

Answer 23

C. Lysosome rupture

Question 24

<div>Which of these is NOT a feature of infarcts?</div>

<div>A. Histological changes occur within 30 minutes </div>

<div>B. Myocardial infarcts are described as pale infarcts </div>

<div>C. The infarction is replaced by scar tissue </div>

<div>D. Haemorrhage can be an early feature of infarcts <br></br> E. The brain shows liquefactive necrosis</div>

Answer 24

A. Histological changes occur within 30 minutes

Question 25

<div>Which of the following is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Poikilocytosis is never a feature of iron deficiency anaemia</div>

<div>B. Hereditary spherocytosis is an extravascular haemolytic anaemia </div>

<div>C. Erythrocytes are hypochromic in iron deficiency anaemia </div>

D. A peptic ulcer classically results in megaloblastic anaemia <br></br> E. The intrinsic receptor is in the proximal duodenum

Answer 25

C. Erythrocytes are hypochromic in iron deficiency anaemia

Question 26

<div>Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding atherosclerosis?</div>

<div>A. Collagenase is secreted to assist with matrix remodelling </div>

<div>B. Reactive oxygen species active vascular smooth muscle cells</div>

<div>C. Smooth muscle cells migrate but do not change their phenotype </div>

<div>D. Following activation, smooth muscle cells proliferate<br></br> E. Endothelial cell injury is the initiator of atherosclerosis</div>

Answer 26

C. Smooth muscle cells migrate but do not change their phenotype

Question 27

<div>Which of the following statements is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Thrombi in veins contain Line of Zahn (laminations) </div>

<div>B. Cigarette smoking is not a risk factor for thrombosis</div>

<div>C. Immobilisation is not a risk factor for thrombosis </div>

<div>D. Monocytes/macrophages are involved in the organisation of thrombi<br></br> E. Thrombi are soft and jelly-like in substance</div>

Answer 27

D. Monocytes/macrophages are involved in the organisation of thrombi

Question 28

<div>Which definition is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Poikilocytosis; abnormal variation in cell shape </div>

<div>B. Reticulocyte; nucleated red cell precursor </div>

<div>C. Normoblast; nucleated red cell precursor </div>

<div>D. Megaloblast; abnormally large red cell precursor<br></br> E. Anisocytosis; abnormal variations in size</div>

Answer 28

B. Reticulocyte; nucleated red cell precursor

Question 29

<div>Regarding HIV, which statement is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. The HIV capsid is spherical</div>

<div>B. HIV-1 is less virulent than HIV-2</div>

<div>C. A long terminal repeat is only present at the N-terminus of the provirus genome </div>

<div>D. gp120 is heavily glycosylated <br></br> E. Homozygotes with a 32bp deletion of CCR5 cannot be infected with HIV</div>

Answer 29

D. gp120 is heavily glycosylated

Question 30

<div>Regarding the influenza virus, which statement is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Antigenic drift refers to haemagglutinin amino acid mutations </div>

<div>B. The HA molecule is a trimer </div>

<div>C. The M2 protein is found in the virion core </div>

<div>D. Avian haemagglutinin prefers α 2’-3’ linkage between sialic acid and galactosidase <br></br> E. Neuraminidase cleaves sialic acid</div>

Answer 30

C. The M2 protein is found in the virion core

Question 31

<div>Regarding hepatitis viruses, which statement is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. The Hepatitis B virus, but not Hepatitis C virus, increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma</div>

<div>B. Hepatitis C most commonly causes an acute infection </div>

<div>C. The HBsAg gene encodes a reverse transcriptase </div>

<div>D. Hepatitis C is an RNA virus <br></br> E. Age of HBV infection does not affect the clinical outcome</div>

Answer 31

D. Hepatitis C is an RNA virus

Question 32

<div>Regarding prion disease, which statement is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. The majority of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is familial</div>

<div>B. Normal PrP is a GPI-anchored protein </div>

<div>C. Normal prion protein is highly variable within mammalian species </div>

<div>D. Kuru is a prion disease of sheep <br></br> E. The body mounts an adaptive response to misfolded prion proteins</div>

Answer 32

B. Normal PrP is a GPI-anchored protein

Question 33

<div>Regarding fungal infections, which statement is TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Filamentous moulds are a normal part of human flora</div>

<div>B. Histoplasma has pH-dependant dimorphism regulating gene expression </div>

<div>C. Candida albicans causes pityriasis versicolor</div>

D. Cryptococcus neoformans typical causes pneumonia in patients <br></br> E. Pneumocystis is treated with co-trimoxazole

Answer 33

E. Pneumocystis is treated with co-trimoxazole

Question 34

<div>Regarding fungi, which statement is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. Fluconazole acts on fungal microtubules </div>

<div>B. Nystatin inhibits ergosterol function </div>

<div>C. Candida is a septate filamentous mould </div>

<div>D. Aspergillus is an aseptate filamentous mould <br></br> E. The fungal wall has an outer layer of chitin microfibrils</div>

Answer 34

C. Candida is a septate filamentous mould

Question 35

<div>Which of the following statements are TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Neutrophils act as sentinel cells</div>

<div>B. Innate Lymphoid Cells 1 assist in immunity against viruses</div>

<div>C. Basophils have phagocytic activity</div>

<div>D. IFN-γ activates macrophages<br></br> E. Innate Lymphoid Cells 2 protect against fungi</div>

Answer 35

<div>Which of the following statements are TRUE?</div>

<div>A. Neutrophils act as sentinel cells (FALSE)</div>

<div>B. Innate Lymphoid Cells 1 assist in immunity against viruses (TRUE)</div>

<div>C. Basophils have phagocytic activity (FALSE)</div>

<div>D. IFN-γ activates macrophages (TRUE)<br></br> E. Innate Lymphoid Cells 2 protect against fungi (FALSE)</div>

Question 36

<div>Which statement about soluble components of the innate system is FALSE?</div>

<div>A. Leukotrienes are formed through the lipoxygenase pathway </div>

<div>B. Platelet activating factor activates neutrophils </div>

<div>C. Plasmin cleaves C3</div>

<div>D. Thromboxane is derived from cell membrane phospholipids <br></br> E. Bradykinin actives C3</div>

Answer 36

C. Plasmin cleaves C3

Question 37

<div>Select the INCORRECT statement</div>

<div>A. Neutrophils secrete CXCL8</div>

<div>B. Endothelial cells express CD31</div>

<div>C. E-Selectin binds Sialyl-Lewis X</div>

<div>D. Monocytes express VLA-4<br></br> E. Neutrophils express LFA-1</div>

Answer 37

C. E-Selectin binds Sialyl-Lewis X

Question 38

<div>Select the CORRECT statement </div>

<div>A. Complement receptor 1 (CR1) binds C3a</div>

<div>B. Properdin is a negative regulator of the alternative pathway</div>

<div>C. Deficiency in Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) leads to autoimmune-like conditions </div>

<div>D. The classical complement pathway is the first to act <br></br> E. The alternative pathway involves antibody-antigen interactions</div>

Answer 38

C. Deficiency in Decay-accelerating factor (DAF) leads to autoimmune-like conditions

Question 39

<div>Which antibody is most prevalent in serum?</div>

<div>A. IgM</div>

<div>B. IgD</div>

<div>C. IgE</div>

<div>D. IgG<br></br> E. IgA</div>

Answer 39

D. IgG

Question 40

<div>Which statement about MHC Class II molecules is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. They are processes via the endoplasmic reticulum </div>

<div>B. The peptide binding groove is closed </div>

<div>C. HLA-DR is an isotype of MHC Class II molecules </div>

<div>D. The peptide binding groove binds peptides 13-25 amino acids in length <br></br> E. They are made from two transmembrane chains</div>

Answer 40

B. The peptide binding groove is closed

Question 41

<div>Which statement about T cells is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. CDR1 is the most variable region in the T cell receptor </div>

<div>B. T cell receptors have a secreted component </div>

<div>C. The T_H2 signature transcription factor is T-BET</div>

<div>D. The T cell receptor undergoes somatic hypermutation <br></br> E. CD28 on the T cell receptor binds B7 on antigen presenting cells</div>

Answer 41

E. CD28 on the T cell receptor binds B7 on antigen presenting cells

Question 42

<div>Which pairing is the odd one out?</div>

<div>A. Type 1 diabetes and pancreatic cell antigen </div>

<div>B. Myasthenia gravis and acetylcholine receptor </div>

<div>C. Graves’ disease and TSH receptor </div>

D. Mixed essential cryoglobulinemia and myelin basic protein <br></br> E. Goodpastures’ syndrome and collagen type IV

Answer 42

D. Mixed essential cryoglobulinemia and myelin basic protein

Question 43

<div>Which statement is CORRECT?</div>

<div>A. In ABO blood grouping A allele adds a terminal galactose </div>

<div>B. The Arthus reaction is a type II hypersensitivity reaction </div>

<div>C. In type I hypersensitivity reactions, the mast cells release serotonin </div>

<div>D. Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity is mediated within 24-72 hours<br></br> E. Pigeon fanciers lung is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction</div>

Answer 43

C. In type I hypersensitivity reactions, the mast cells release serotonin

Question 44

<div>Cytokine expression helps determine the T cell lineage. Which cytokine and T cell pairing is INCORRECT?</div>

<div>A. IL-6 stimulates T_FH differentiation </div>

<div>B. IL-12 stimulates T_H1 differentiation </div>

<div>C. IFN-γ stimulates T_H­2 differentiation </div>

<div>D. IL-23 stimulates T_H17 differentiation <br></br> E. IL-4 stimulates T_H2 differentiation</div>

Answer 44

C. IFN-γstimulates T_H­2 differentiation