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Admin Flashcards

1
Q

For Surveillance Test that was aborted, the…

A. Paperwork can be immediately discarded.
B. Acceptance review will be completed, noting that the ST is incomplete.
C. Acceptance review will be completed only after the complete performance of the ST.
D. Paperwork is maintained, however, the acceptance review is not required to be performed.

A

B. Acceptance review will be completed, noting that the ST is incomplete.

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2
Q

During an emergency situation the Emergency Coordinator has the authority to allow a worker to exceed _____ limits to protect valuable property.

A. 10 CFR 19
B. 10 CFR 20
C. 10 CFR 55
D. 10 CFR 100

A

B. 10 CFR 20

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3
Q

In accordance with 02DP-0ZZ01, Verification of Plant Activities, which ONE of the following is REQUIRED for ‘physical verification’ of throttled valve position?

A. The manipulator and verifier work together. The valve is positioned by the manipulator only.
B. The manipulator and verifier work together. The valve is positioned by BOTH the manipulator and verifier.
C. The manipulator and verifier work independently. The valve is positioned by the manipulator only.
D. The manipulator and verifier work independently. The valve is positioned by BOTH the manipulator and the verifier.

A

A. The manipulator and verifier work together. The valve is positioned by the manipulator only.

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4
Q

Per Conduct of Shift Operations, 40DP-9OP02, the minimum requirements to maintain an active Reactor Operator license are…

A. 40 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous month.
B. 60 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous month.
C. 40 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous calendar quarter.
D. 60 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous calendar quarter.

A

D. 60 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous calendar quarter.

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5
Q

Which of the following is the 10 CFR20 annual exposure limit for Whole Body (TEDE) and Lens of the eyes (LDE)?

A. 1500 mrem TEDE, 15 Rem LDE
B. 1500 mrem TEDE, 50 Rem LDE
C. 5 Rem TEDE, 15 Rem LDE
D. 5 Rem TEDE, 50 Rem LDE

A

C. 5 Rem TEDE, 15 Rem LDE

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6
Q

A large break LOCA has occurred.
Due to emergency conditions a gaseous radioactive release from Containment must be performed to relieve pressure in the containment and bring the plant to a safer condition.
Who may authorize this release without a release permit?

A. Shift Manager.
B. Effluents Supervisor.
C. Chemistry Supervisor.
D. Radiation Protection Supervisor

A

A. Shift Manager.

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7
Q

Unit 1 is planning a 15% down power.
The crew is about to start the Reactivity Brief.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the Reactivity Management guidance found in Operations Department Practices (ODP-01)?

A. The Shift Technical Advisor (STA) must attend the reactivity brief.
B. A Maneuvering Box game plan must be used for this planned power reduction.
C. A peer check is required prior to each reactivity evolution performed during the down power.
D. An additional reactivity brief is required for each turbine manipulation performed during the down power.

A

C. A peer check is required prior to each reactivity evolution performed during the down power.

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8
Q

A General Emergency has been declared.
Satellite Technical Support Center (STSC) has been activated.
Operation so Support Center (OSC) has been activated.
It has been determined that in order to stabilize the plant repair activities are required to be performed in a high dose area.
Who can authorize a ‘Protecting Valuable Property’ exposure and what is the Dose Limit?

A. Emergency Coordinator ONLY, 25 Rem TEDE.
B. Emergency Coordinator ONLY, 10 Rem TEDE.
C. Emergency Coordinator or Radiation Protection Monitor, 10 Rem TEDE.
D. Emergency Coordinator or Radiation Protection Monitor, 25 Rem TEDE.

A

B. Emergency Coordinator ONLY, 10 Rem TEDE.

Note: Version of question for LifeSaving and LifeSaving Voluntary

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9
Q

Unit 1 has automatically tripped from 100% power.
Standard Post Trip Actions (SPTAs) are in progress.
You are the ‘At the Controls’ operator.
SIAS/CIAS have just actuated.
In accordance with Operations Department Practices (ODP-1) which one of the following is the correct method to communicate this information to the ‘Crew’?

A. Inform the CRS of the SIAS/CIAS, then wait for a Control Room Brief to inform the remaining crew members.
B. Announce ‘Crew Update’ wait for all crew members to respond ready then announce the SIAS/CIAS/. State ‘End of Update’.
C. Wait for SPTAs to be completed, then ensure that the CRS is aware of the SIAS/CIAS prior to them choosing which EOP to implement.
D. Announce ‘Attention for a Brief’. The CRS will wait for all crew members to report ready, you can then inform the crew of the SIAS/CIAS when the CRS asks you to report any problems or concerns. CRS announces ‘End of Brief’.

A

B. Announce ‘Crew Update’ wait for all crew members to respond ready then announce the SIAS/CIAS/. State ‘End of Update’.

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10
Q

What is the significance of the Control Room instruments that have a white placard attached?
These instruments…

A. Are appendix ‘R’ /fire qualified.
B. Are associated with ESFAS actuation set-points.
C. Can also be found at the Remote Shutdown panel.
D. Are post accident monitoring/harsh containment qualified.

A

D. Are post accident monitoring/harsh containment qualified.

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11
Q

Per 40AC-0ZZ06, (Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Control), when verifying the position of a locked throttled valve, the second checker must:

A. Check the valve closed and return it to throttled position and install lock.
B. Independently verify the valve is throttled by position indication then lock it.
C. Concurrently verify the correct throttled position and verify the lock installed correctly.
D. Verifies proper position by redundant means (proper flow, temperature, or pressure).

A

C. Concurrently verify the correct throttled position and verify the lock installed correctly.

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12
Q

Which one of the following require entry into a one hour or less LCO conditions while in Mode 1, steady state conditions?

A. Pressurizer level is 57%.
B. Reactor Coolant system T-Cold is 540F.
C. An 86 lockout of SIA-P01, High Pressure Safety Injection Pump ‘A’.
D. WCB-UV-63, chill water supply header outside CNMT the isolation valve, has failed it’s stroke time surveillance test.

A

B. Reactor Coolant system T-Cold is 540F.

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13
Q

You have been directed to perform a valve lineup on the Purification filters with the following conditions:
-General area dose rate is 90 mrem/hr.
-Airborne Radioactivity exists due to ongoing maintenance activities.
-No environmental condition exist that preclude the use of a respirator.
Internal dose rate if respirator is worn is 0 mrem/hour.
Internal dose rate without respirator is 22 mrem/hour.
Time to complete job while wearing a respirator is 3.0 hours.
Time to complete job without a respirator is 2.5 hours.
Which one of the following describes whether a respirator will be worn and why?

A. No, wearing a respirator will raise total exposure.
B. Yes, wearing a respirator will lower total exposure.
C. No, wearing a respirator will make no difference to the total exposure.
D. Yes, a respirator must be worn anytime that airborne radiation is present.

A

B. Yes, wearing a respirator will lower total exposure.

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14
Q

The following information is posted on a survey map outside a room you are about to enter.
-General Area Radiation levels of 75 mrem/hr.
-Swipes of 75,000 dpm/100cm2.
The posting of this room should be a…

A. Radiation Area only.
B. Radiation Area and Contamination Area.
C. Radiation Area and High Contamination Area.
D. High Radiation Area and High Contamination Area.

A

B. Radiation Area and Contamination Area.

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15
Q

Pressurizer pressure is 250 psia.
Reactor Coolant System T-cold is 190F.
Shutdown Cooling Train ‘A’ is in service.
The crew attended training last week.
The Control Operator did not attend training but is scheduled to attend next week.
The Reactor Operator attended and successfully completed her training week.
The CRS failed the weekly exam and is scheduled to be remediated next week.
The 3rd Reactor Operator holds an active SRO license and successfully completed his training week.
Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, _____ may be designed to maintain the Control Room command function for this shift?

A. Only the 3rd Reactor Operator.
B. Either the 3rd Reactor Operator or CRS.
C. Either the Reactor Operator or 3rd Reactor Operator.
D. Either the Reactor Operator, Control Operator or 3rd Reactor Operator.

A

D. Either the Reactor Operator, Control Operator or 3rd Reactor Operator.

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16
Q

1310 - An Alert, (FA-1) was declared due to a LOCA and the RCS being at saturation conditions.
1330 - REP CET readings are 710F.
1330 - RVLMS indicates 0% in the plenum.
It is the Emergency Coordinator responsibility to inform the State/County agencies no later than (A) of the upgrade to a (B).

A. (A) 1400 (B) Site Area Emergency.
B. (A) 1400 (B) General Emergency.
C. (A) 1430 (B) Site Area Emergency.
D. (A) 1430 (B) General Emergency.

A

A. (A) 1400 (B) Site Area Emergency.

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17
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 5 during a refueling outage.
‘A’ Train shutdown cooing is in service.
Spent Fuel Pool Level Hi or Lo is in alarm.
Spent Fuel Pool Level Lo-Lo is in alarm.
An Auxiliary Operator confirms Spent Fuel Pool level is 136ft 6 inches and slowly lowering.
What is the current status of (A) LCO 3.7.14, Fuel Storage Pool Water Level (B) Spent Fuel Pool Cooling (C) and which procedure should be implemented to correct this condition?

A. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is not required (B) SFP cooling must be secured at this level (C) 40AO-9ZZ23, Loss of SFP Level or Cooling.
B. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is required (B) SFP cooling can remain in operation at this level (C) 40AO-9ZZ23, Loss of SFP Level or Cooling.
C. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is required (B) SFP cooling must be secured at this level (C) 40EP-9EO11, Lower Mode Functional Recovery Procedure.
D. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is not required (B) SFP cooling can remain in operation at this level (C) 40EP-9EO11, Lower Mode Functional Recovery Procedure.

A

B. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is required (B) SFP cooling can remain in operation at this level (C) 40AO-9ZZ23, Loss of SFP Level or Cooling.

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18
Q

Per 01DP-9ZZ01, Systematic Trouble shooting, who is responsible to determine the level of troubleshooting gameplan?

A. Shift Manager.
B. System Engineer.
C. Shift Technical Advisor.
D. Unit Department Leader.

A

A. Shift Manager.

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19
Q
  • Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
  • An Abnormal Operating procedure has been implemented.
  • The following steep has been completed.
    If cooling water can not be restored, THEN perform the following:
    1.) Ensure the Reactor is tripped.
    2.) Stop all the RCPs.
    3.) Isolate controlled bleed-off.
    4.) PERFORM the appropriate procedure for current plant conditions.
    Which statement below best describes the use of Abnormal Operating Procedures (AOPs) after the crew has entered the Emergency Operating procedures (EOPs)?

A. Immediately exit the AOP being performed.
B. No further AOP actions are permitted until after the SPTAs are completed.
C. Any AOP that has been started prior to a reactor trip must be performed through completion.
D. Continue through the AOP until a step is reached that directs exiting the procedure.

A

D. Continue through the AOP until a step is reached that directs exiting the procedure.

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20
Q

In accordance with PVNGS Policies, Practices and Procedures, which one of the following conditions/actions requires notification of the NRC?

A. Single PPS channel trip.
B. Loss of both Nuclear Cooling Water pumps.
C. Fire in the Operations Support Building that is extinguished within 10 minutes.
D. Auxiliary Operator is referred to medical due to a finger laceration while operating a manual valve.

A

B. Loss of both Nuclear Cooling Water pumps.

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21
Q

Which ONE of the following in the lower oxygen concentration limit which establishes confined space entry requirements?

A. 16.0%
B. 19.5%
C. 21.0%
D. 23.5%

A

B. 19.5%

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22
Q

Which ONE of the following describes the control room personnel that MUST attend a reactivity brief for a normal shiftly dilution per ODP-1 (Operations Principles and Standards)?
The CRS, RO…

A. And CO.
B. And STA.
C. CO and SM.
D. STA and SM.

A

A. And CO.

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23
Q
  • Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
  • The operating crew is performing a lineup to Drain the Safety Injection Tank (SIT) 1A.
  • SIE-V463 (SIT Fill and Drain Line Containment Isolation Valve) is to be opened to support the evolution.
  • The CRS has verified this to be a normally locked closed Containment Isolation valve.
    Per guidance found in 40DP-9OP19 (Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Tracking), this valve…

A. Is prohibited from being operated while in Mode 1.
B. May be opened provided that the four hour action for an inoperable containment penetration is entered when the valves is opened.
C. May be opened provided an Operator is identified in the Control Room log with the responsibility to close the valve with in 1 (ONE) hour.
D. Many be opened provided a dedicated Operator is stationed at the valve who must be in constant communication with the Control Room.

A

D. Many be opened provided a dedicated Operator is stationed at the valve who must be in constant communication with the Control Room.

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24
Q
  • A Surviellance Test (ST) is being performed on numerous valves.
  • The ST is being performed at the 90% due date.
  • The CO strokes one particular valve several times prior to beginning the ST due to his experience with this valve sticking.
  • Upon completion of the ST several pages have no other entries than an N/A.
  • One valve had to be re-tested due to a failure of M&TE.
  • The CRS recognizes the pre-conditioning condition during his administrative review of the ST.
  • The STA is NOT licensed.
    Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this situation?

A. The ST pages whose only entry is an N/A should be discarded.
B. The acceptance review should be completed by the STA prior to the end of the shift.
C. Replacement pages may be added to complete testing on the valve with the failed M&TE.
D. The pre-conditioning valve must be declared inoperable at the time the CRS recognition.

A

C. Replacement pages may be added to complete testing on the valve with the failed M&TE.

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25
Q

Which ONE of the following describes the 10CFR20 NON-Emergency radiation dose limit for Extremities (Elbows and below, Knees and Below)?

A. 5 Rem per year.
B. 15 Rem per year.
C. 25 Rem per year.
D. 50 Rem per year.

A

D. 50 Rem per year.

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26
Q
  • You are preparing to enter the RCA on an approved Radiological Exposure Permit (REP).
  • Electronic Personnel Dosimeter (EPD) dose alarm setting is 500 mrem.
  • Electronic Personnel Dosimeter (EPD) dose rate alarm setting is 1000 mrem/hr.
  • The expected RP work area dose rate is 200 mrem/hr.
  • The actual work area dose rate is 1000 mrem/hr.
    Based on the conditions above which ONE of the following describes when you would be required to exit the Radiological Control Area (RCA)?

A. Immediately due to the EPD dose alarm.
B. In 30 minutes due to the EPD dose alarm.
C. Immediately due to the EPD dose rate alarm.
D. In 30 minutes due to an EPD dose rate alarm.

A

C. Immediately due to the EPD dose rate alarm.

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27
Q
  • Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to an RCS leak.
  • A loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) occurred on a trip.
  • Standard Post Trip Actions (SPTAs) are in progress.
  • Bus Plus criteria is not currently being met.
    In accordance with the EOP User guide (40DP-9AP16) which ONE of the following actions is appropriate?

A. The Functional Recovery Procedure may be entered directly if the Entry Conditions are met.
B. The use of AOPs is NOT allowed in conjunction with the EOPs, The Standard Appendices shall be implemented as required.
C. Upon completion of the Reactivity Safety Function the CRS may direct actions in an AOP that would recover the required electrical bus(s).
D. If the CRS determines that the MVAC safety function is not met during the SPTAs he may immediately implement the Functional Recovery Procedure.

A

C. Upon completion of the Reactivity Safety Function the CRS may direct actions in an AOP that would recover the required electrical bus(s).

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28
Q

Unit 3 has tripped.
SPTAs are in progress.
Which ONE of the following describes the use of Alarm Response Procedures during the EOPs?
Use of Alarm Response Procedures should…

A. Resume only after the EOPs are exited.
B. Resume only after the SPTAs are exited.
C. Be used concurrently with the SPTAs at all times.
D. Resume only after the plant stabilizes and when directed by the CRS.

A

D. Resume only after the plant stabilizes and when directed by the CRS.

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29
Q

A plant perturbation is in progress that if not properly addressed could result in a manual or automatic Unit trip.
Which ONE of the following sets of procedures would be used to mitigate this event?

A. Normal Operating Procedures.
B. General Operating Procedures.
C. Abnormal Operating Procedures.
D. Emergency Operating Procedures.

A

C. Abnormal Operating Procedures.

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30
Q

Which ONE of the following describes when a plant-wide announcement is required to be made?

A. Changing from Mode 3 to Mode 2.
B. Energizing PNA-D25 after a permit has been cleared.
C. Starting HCN-A01C (CTMT Normal ACU Fan) from the Control Room.
D. AFB-P01 (Essential Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump) started automatically on AFAS-1.

A

A. Changing from Mode 3 to Mode 2.

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31
Q
  • Unit 1 is in a Mid-Loop Condition
  • Maintenance requests permission to re-lug ESFAS jumper leads.
    Prior to this Work Order being released to the field, who (by title) is responsible to verify the proper RCS perturbation Code?

A. Releasing Organization and Outage Coordinator.
B. Releasing Organization and Operations Shift Manager.
C. Outage Coordinator and Mid-loop Operations Coordinator.
D. Mid-loop Operations Coordinator and Operations Shift Manager.

A

D. Mid-loop Operations Coordinator and Operations Shift Manager

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32
Q

Which ONE of the following is the lowest (least severe) Emergency Action Level that REQUIRES the EC to direct accountability, per Emergency Plan?

A. Unusual Event.
B. Alert.
C. Site Area Emergency.
D. General Emergency.

A

C. Site Area Emergency.

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33
Q
  • Unit 2 has declared a SITE AREA EMERGENCY.
  • The Unit 2 Shift Manager has been relieved as Emergency Coordinator (EC).
    Which ONE of the following positions must approve a PVNGS worker receiving Potassium Iodide (KI)?

A. Unit 2 Shift Manager.
B. Emergency Coordinator.
C. Radiological Protection Monitor.
D. Emergency Operations Director.

A

B. Emergency Coordinator.

34
Q
  • Unit 1 is MODE 4.
  • An Inservice Test is being performed on containment penetration isolation valves using 73ST-9XI23, CP, EW, IA, and NC Valves - Inservice Test.
  • The Close Stroke Time is slower than the Tech Spec Acceptance Criteria.
    For this test, the valve stroke time is measured from hand-switch operation to when the (1) AND the crew must apply the requirements of LCO (2).

A. (1) green light is ON. (2) 3.9.3, Containment Penetrations.
B. (1) green light is ON. (2) 3.6.3, Containment Isolation Valves.
C. (1) red light goes OUT. (2) 3.9.3, Containment Penetrations.
D. (1) red light goes OUT. (2) 3.6.3, Containment Isolation Valves.

A

D. (1) red light goes OUT. (2) 3.6.3, Containment Isolation Valves.

35
Q

Per 40AC-0ZZ06, (Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Control), when verifying the position of a locked throttled valve, the second checker MUST:

A. Independently verity the valve is throttled boy position indication, then lock it.
B. Independently check the valve closed and return it to throttled position and install lock.
C. Concurrently verify the correct throttled position and verify the lock installed correctly.
D. Concurrently verify the valve is throttled but position indication, then independently verify position by alternate verification methods and install lock.

A

C. Concurrently verify the correct throttled position and verify the lock installed correctly.

36
Q
  • A Temporary Approved Procedure Action (TAPA) is required due to a procedure deficiency.
  • The task cannot be completed without a change to the procedure.
  • The proposed change meets all the requirements of 01DP-0AP01, Procedure process.
  • The change has been approved but two members of the plant supervisory staff including the shift manager.
    After the TAPA is approved for use it…

A. Will be cancelled upon completion of the task.
B. Is routed as a permanent procedure change with no further review required.
C. Must undergo completion of an Independent Quality Review (IQR) and Owner approval within 4 days.
D. Must undergo completion of an Independent Quality Review (IQR) and Owner approval within 14 days.

A

D. Must undergo completion of an Independent Quality Review (IQR) and Owner approval within 14 days.

37
Q

Which one of the following meets the MINIMUM requirements of 40DP-9OP29, Power Block Clearance and Tagging with regards to High Energy systems?
Fluid or gas systems that operate with temperature greater than (1) should be isolated by two valves in series and (2).

A. (1) 200F (2) if possible OPEN a vent or drain between the two closed isolation valves.
B. (1) 200F (2) ensure there are NO open vents or drains between the two closed isolation valves.
C. (1) 500F (2) if possible OPEN a vent or drain between the two closed isolation valves.
D. (1) 500F (2) ensure there are NO open vents or drains the two closed isolation valves.

A

A. (1) 200F (2) if possible OPEN a vent or drain between the two closed isolation valves.

38
Q
  • Motor-operated ESF valve is disabled and unable to perform its function.
  • The Valve is NOT alarmed.
  • The impairment will last more than one shift.
    In accordance with 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, the operating crew shall…

A. Perform and document an IV of the valve’s position.
B. Rack out the valve breaker after it has been disabled.
C. Hang a Yellow Caution Tavg on the valve’s hand switch.
D. Insert a manual SESS alarm associated with the valve.

A

D. Insert a manual SESS alarm associated with the valve.

39
Q

Which ONE of the following correctly identifies the Federal Exposure Limits?

A. 1.5 Rem/year, Whole Body and 15 Rem/year Eye Dose.
B. 1.5 Rem/year, Whole Body and 50 Rem/year Eye Dose.
C. 5 Rem/year, Whole Body and 15 Rem/year Eye Dose.
D. 5 Rem/year, Whole Body and 50 Rem/year Eye Dose.

A

C. 5 Rem/year, Whole Body and 15 Rem/year Eye Dose.

40
Q
  • Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
    Subsequently
    1. The running Plant Cooling Water Pump faults and trips.
    2. The standby Plant Cooling Water Pump does not auto-start.
    3. Attempts to manually start the standby pump have failed.
    Which ONE of the following was the correct use of procedures?
    Implement a(n) (1) when attempting to start the standby Plant Cooling Water pump, then transition to a(n) (2).

A. (1) Normal Operating procedure (2) General Operating procedure.
B. (1) Abnormal Operating procedure (2) General Operating procedure.
C. (1) Normal Operating procedure (2) Abnormal Operating procedure.
D. (1) Abnormal Operating procedure (2) Emergency Operating procedure.

A

D. (1) Abnormal Operating procedure (2) Emergency Operating procedure.

41
Q
  • Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power.
  • SPTAs are complete and the CRS has implemented the appropriate EOP.
  • You have been directed to perform a Standard Appendix.
  • You determine that a step on the left side column CANNOT be completed.
    What should be done if the contingency action CANNOT be completed either?

A. Proceed to the next step in the left hand column.
B. Proceed to the next step in the right hand column.
C. Exit the Appendix/EOP and enter the Functional Recovery Procedure.
D. Progress thru the Standard Appendix must be halted until the step can be completed.

A

A. Proceed to the next step in the left hand column.

42
Q
  • Unit 1 is in a Refueling outage.
  • Refueling pool level is at 138 ft 2 inches.
    Per LCO 3.9.1 the minimum refueling pool boron concentration is (1) ppm, which is designed to maintain Keff less than or equal to (2) during fuel movement.

A. (1) 2150 (2) .95
B. (1) 2150 (2) .99
C. (1) 3000 (2) .95
D. (1) 3000 (2) .99

A

C. (1) 3000 (2) .95

43
Q
  • Unit 2 is operating at 100% power.
  • The unit is staffed as follows:
    Unit 1- 1 SM, 1 STA (unlicensed), 1 CRS, 2 ROs, 4 AOs (unlicensed)
    Unit 2- 1 SM, 1 STA (unlicensed), 1 CRS, 2 ROs, 4 AOs (one AO left protected area to attend training)
    Unit 3- 1 SM, 1 STA (unlicensed), 1 CRS, 3 ROs, 4 AOs (unlicensed)
    In accordance with BOTH Tech Spec and PVNGS administrative procedures: Unit 2 staffing requirements are currently…

A. NOT met, 4 AOs are required to be within the unit at all times per ODP-2, Operations Shift Coverage.
B. Met, all of the Tech Spec and PVNGS administrative requirements are satisfied by the current manning.
C. NOT met, each unit is required to have their own licensed individual designated as the FTA per TS 5.2.2, Organization; Unit Staff.
D. Met, provide the 3rd RO in Unit 3 satisfies all requirements and has been designated the FTA per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.

A

D. Met, provide the 3rd RO in Unit 3 satisfies all requirements and has been designated the FTA per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.

44
Q

The REQUIRED method used to track an INOPERABLE Boron Dilution Alarm channel is via the/a…

A. Operations Concerns database.
B. Equipment Status Tag (EST) Log.
C. CORA (Control Room Automated) Timer.
D. Technical Specification Component Condition Record (TSCCR)

A

D. Technical Specification Component Condition Record (TSCCR)

45
Q

According to 40DP-9OP29, Power Block Clearance and Tagging, which ONE of the following defines a MINIMUM value, or a condition, that requires two valve protection, when possible?

A. System Temperature of 210F
B. System Pressure of 500psig.
C. When any caustic chemical system is tagged.
D. When a vent/drain path CANNOT be established within the clearance boundary.

A

B. System Pressure of 500psig.

Note: >200F and >500psig requires double isolation, but question asks MINIMUM value

46
Q
  • Unit 1 is in Mode 6.
  • Refueling operations are on-going.
  • LSRO is stationed in containment.
    (1) Reactor Operator monitors Spent Fuel Pool level to ensure it is maintained above the T.S. LCO 3.7.14, Fuel Storage Pool Water Level, Minimum of ___ feet over the top of irradiated fuel assemblies seated in the storage racks.
    (2) As stated in 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, the individual designated to maintain the Control Room command function will normally be the CRS but maybe…

A. (1) 22.5 (2) Only another qualified SRO.
B. (1) 22.5 (2) Either a qualified RO or SRO.
C. (1) 23 (2) Only another qualified SRO.
D. (1) 23 (2) Either a qualified RO or SRO.

A

D. (1) 23 (2) Either a qualified RO or SRO.

47
Q

The Palo Verde Fire Response Team includes a Fire Team Advisor (FTA) who at a MINIMUM must be a qualified (1) and ONE is required for (2).

A. (1) Reactor Operator (2) the site.
B. (1) Reactor Operator (2) each unit.
C. (1) Senior Reactor Operator (2) the site.
D. (1) Senior Reactor Operator (2) each unit.

A

A. (1) Reactor Operator (2) the site.

48
Q

Unit 1 has declared an Emergency Action Level.
Command and Control has been transferred to the EOF.
Under these conditions, the NRC Operations Center shall be notified using the (1) and they must be notified (2) following notifications from the state and local agencies.

A. (1) NAN Phone (2) within 15 minutes.
B. (1) Emergency Notification System (ENS) telephone (2) within 15 minutes.
C. (1) NAN Phone (2) Immediately, but no later than 1 hour after the declaration.
D. (1) Emergency Notification System (ENS) telephone (2) Immediately, but no later than 1 hour after the declaration.

A

D. (1) Emergency Notification System (ENS) telephone (2) Immediately, but no later than 1 hour after the declaration.

49
Q

In order to comply with the minimum staffing requirements as defined in the Technical Specifications, 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, requires that an SRO meet which of the following requirements to maintain an ACTIVE SRO license>
The Senior Reactor License holder must stand a minimum of…

A. 40 hours and all must be in an SRO-only supervisory position.
B. 40 hours with a minimum of one complete shift in an SRO-only supervisory position.
C. Five 12 hour shifts and all must be in an SRO-only supervisory position.
D. Five 12 hour shifts with a minimum of one complete shift in an SRO-only supervisory position.

A

D. Five 12 hour shifts with a minimum of one complete shift in an SRO-only supervisory position.

50
Q
  • Unit 1 - 1 SM, 1 STA (unlicensed), 1 CRS, 2 ROs.
  • Unit 2 - 1 SM, 1 STA (unlicensed), 1 CRS, 2 ROs.
  • Unit 3 - 1 SM, 1 STA (unlicensed), 1 CRS, 3 ROs.
    The Fire Team Advisor is being supplied by the Unit 3 third RO.
    One of the Unit 1 ROs becomes ill and has to leave the site immediately.
    It is three hours until the end of the shift.
    Which ONE of the following describes the appropriate response?
    The Unit 1 Operating Crew…

A. Can continue to operate with the reduced manning for the remainder of the shift per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.
B. Must enter LCO 3.0.3 immediately and make preparations to be in MODE 5 within 37 hours due to failure to meet Technical Specifications 5.2.2, Unit Organization Staff.
C. Can continue to operative with the reduced manning, provided that the FTA from Unit 3 assumes the 2nd RO in Unit 1 to comply with Technical Specifications 5.2.2, Unit Organization Staff.
D. Can continue to operate with the reduced manning for up to 2 hours, provided immediate action is taken to restore crew manning to the minimum requirements per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.

A

D. Can continue to operate with the reduced manning for up to 2 hours, provided immediate action is taken to restore crew manning to the minimum requirements per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations.

51
Q

During an Emergency Plan event involving a radiological release, the (1) is responsible for exposure limit authorization up to a MAXIMUM of (2) in order to ‘protect valuable property’ of the station.

A. (1) Emergency Coordinator (2) 10 Rem TEDE per event.
B. (1) Emergency Coordinator (2) 25 Rem TEDE per event.
C. (1) Emergency Operations Director (2) 10 Rem TEDE per event.
D. (1) Emergency Operations Director (2) 25 Rem TEDE per event.

A

A. (1) Emergency Coordinator (2) 10 Rem TEDE per event.

52
Q

Per ODP-01, Operations Principles and Standards, which of the following evolutions would REQUIRE a plant announcement?

A. Starting a Spray Pond Pump for a surveillance test.
B. Starting an Emergency Diesel Generator during SPTAs.
C. Commencing a hydrogen on-load from a vendor supply truck.
D. Commencing a Containment Purge to lower Containment pressure.

A

A. Starting a Spray Pond Pump for a surveillance test.

53
Q

When working at heights in the RCA, fall protection is required for any work being performed above a MINIMUM height of (1) feet, and RP must be contacted to evaluate the need to perform a survey for any work being performed above a MINIMUM height of (2) feet.

A. (1) 4 (2) 6
B. (1) 4 (2) 8
C. (1) 6 (2) 6
D. (1) 6 (2) 8

A

A. (1) 4 (2) 6

54
Q

The use of an air-operated valve, which fails open one a loss of air, as part of an isolation boundary is…

A. Never permitted.
B. Permitted ONLY if a separate air cylinder is installed to ensure the valves has air.
C. Permitted ONLY if the valve has a manual jacking device installed to keep it closed.
D. Permitted ONLY if the air line to the valve actuator is tagged in a way to ensure air cannot be isolated to the valve.

A

C. Permitted ONLY if the valve has a manual jacking device installed to keep it closed.

55
Q

Per 40ST-9ZZM1, Operations Mode 1 Surveillance Logs:

  1. Appendix B, Mode 1 SHIFTLY Surveillance Logs Data Sheets, must have the Acceptance Review completed NO LONGER THAN…
  2. Appendix C, Mode 1 DAILY Surveillance Logs Data Sheets, is directed to be performed during…

A. (1) 0800 on day shift and 2000 night shift (2) Day shift
B. (1) 0800 on day shift and 2000 night shift (2) Night shift
C. (1) 1100 on day shift and 2300 on night shift (2) Day shift
D. (1) 1100 on day shift and 2300 on night shift (2) Night shift

A

D. (1) 1100 on day shift and 2300 on night shift (2) Night shift

56
Q
  • Operators are preparing to perform work inside Containment during a refueling outage.
  • Current conditions in the work area are as follows:
    • Area radiation is 150 mrem/hr.
    • Highest containment level in the area is 30,000 dpm/100cm2.
      Based on current radiological conditions, the MINIMUM Protective Clothing (PCs) required is a (1) and continuous RP coverage (2) required.

A. (1) Single set of PCs (2) IS
B. (1) Single set of PCs (2) is NOT
C. (1) Double set of PCs (2) IS
D. (1) Double set of PCs (2) is NOT

A

B. (1) Single set of PCs (2) is NOT

57
Q

When using a friskier to check for potential personal contamination, the area background radiation level must be less than a MAXIMUM of (1) cpm, and RP must be called if a MINIMUM of (2) cpm above background is detected during the frisk.

A. (1) 100 (2) 100
B. (1) 100 (2) 300
C. (1) 300 (2) 100
D. (1) 300 (2) 300

A

C. (1) 300 (2) 100

58
Q
  • The CRS received a Condition Report which describes an abnormal amount of oil leaking from the ‘A’ Charging Pump.
  • The Work Week Manager informed the Control Room that the ‘A’ Charging Pump is scheduled to be worked on during the outage scheduled 45 days from now.
    Per 40DP-9OP26, Operations Condition Reporting Process the ?Operability Determination/Function Assessment, a (1) shall be performed on the ‘A’ Charging Pump, and any compensatory measures resulting from the evaluation will be communicated to the crews via a (2).

A. (1) Functional Assessment (2) Night Order
B. (1) Functional Assessment (2) Standing Order
C. (1) Immediate Operability Determination (2) Night Order
D. (1) Immediate Operability Determination (2) Standing Order

A

B. (1) Functional Assessment (2) Standing Order

59
Q
  • A large break LOCA has occurred.
  • Emergency Coordinator turnover form the Shift Manager to the TSC and EOF has been completed.
  • Due to emergency conditions, a gaseous radioactive release from Containment must be performed to relieve pressure in the Containment and bring the plant to a safer condition.
    Who may authorize this release without a release permit?

A. Emergency Operations Director.
B. TSC Operations Manager.
C. OSC Manager.
D. Shift Manager.

A

D. Shift Manager.

60
Q

While directing actions in an AOP, the CRS encounters the following set of steps:
- Step 4. Trip the Reactor.
- Step 5. Trip all 4 RCPs.
- Step 6. Go to 40EP-9EO01, SPTAs.
Per 40DP-9AP18, Abnormal Operating Procedure User Guide, the CRS should direct tripping the RCPs (1) and the CRS should (2).

A. (1) Prior to addressing the Reactivity Control Safety Function (2) Exit the AOP and direct SPTAs.
B. (1) Prior to addressing the Reactivity Control Safety Function (2) Continue in the AOP while directing SPTAs.
C. (1) Immediately after addressing the Reactivity Control Safety Function. (2) Exit the AOP and direct SPTAs.
D. (1) Immediately after addressing the Reactivity Control Safety Function. (2) Continue in the AOP while directing SPTAs.

A

C. (1) Immediately after addressing the Reactivity Control Safety Function. (2) Exit the AOP and direct SPTAs.

61
Q

Which of the following are approved methods of verifying the current revision of a procedure per 01DP-0AP09, Procedure and Work Instruction Use and Adherence?

  1. Verify the current revision electronically using eProc.
  2. Verify the current revision electronically using SWMS.
  3. Verify the current revision by comparing to a controlled copy of the procedure.

A. 1 and 2 ONLY.
B. 1 and 3 ONLY.
C. 2 and 3 ONLY.
D. 1,2 and 3

A

D. 1,2 and 3

62
Q

(1) When a procedure says, ‘CHECK that the pump is running’, the word ‘CHECK’ means to check that the pump is running, and if not,…
(2) When a procedure says, ‘PERFORM 40OP-9XX01’, the word ‘PERFORM’ means to…

A. (1) attempt to start it. (2) exit the procedure in use and perform 40OP-9XX01.
B. (1) attempt to start it. (2) perform 40OP-9XX01 concurrently with the procedure in use.
C. (1) do not attempt to start it. (2) exit the procedure in use and perform 40OP-9XX01.
D. (1) do not attempt to start it. (2) perform 40OP-9XX01 concurrently with the procedure in use.

A

D. (1) do not attempt to start it. (2) perform 40OP-9XX01 concurrently with the procedure in use.

63
Q

During the performance of an ARP, it is determined that immediate clarification is needed for a step which, if performed as written, could result in an HU error.
The ARP step should be clarified using a(n) (1) and following approval of this clarification, an Independent Quality Review (IQR) must be completed within a MAXIMUM of (2) days.

A. (1) TAPA (2) 4
B. (1) TAPA (2) 14
C. (1) Administrative Change (2) 4
D. (1) Administrative Change (2) 14

A

B. (1) TAPA (2) 14

64
Q

Per 40DP-9OP15, Operator Challenges and Discrepancy Tracking, Control Room annunciators which are jumped out shall be marked by placing a(n) ___ on the affected annunciator window.

A. Blue dot.
B. Orange dot.
C. Pink label.
D. White label.

A

B. Orange dot.

65
Q

Which of the following personal dosimeter you devices are REQUIRED to be worn in order to enter the Unit 2 Turbine Building?

  1. Dosimeter of Legal Record (DLR)
  2. Self-Reading Dosimeter (SRD)
  3. IPaM-Tx External Alarming Device.

A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 and 3 Only
D. 2 and 3 Only

A

A. 1 Only

66
Q
  • Unit 2 was in MODE 2 when the Reactor automatically tripped on low SG pressure
  • MSIS did not automatically actuate.
    Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Operations, CRS authorization (1) required before manually initiating MSIS, and SPTAs (2) required to be completed prior to transitioning to the optimal EOP.

A. (1) IS (2) ARE
B. (1) IS (2) are NOT
C. (1) is NOT (2) ARE
D. (1) is NOT (2) are NOT

A

C. (1) is NOT (2) ARE

67
Q
  • RCS Temperature is 250F and stable.
  • RCS Pressure is 200 psia and stable.
    Per Technical Specifications section 5.0, Administrative Controls, and 10CFR50.54(m), there must be a MINIMUM of (1) licensed operators in the Control Room and the Control Room command function can be performed (2).

A. (1) one (2) ONLY but an SRO.
B. (1) one (2) by either an RO or an SRO
C. (1) two (2) ONLY by an SRO
D. (1) two (2) by either an RO or an SRO

A

C. (1) two (2) ONLY by an SRO

68
Q

(1) Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Operations, the role of Reactivity Manager may be filled…
(2) The Reactivity Manager ___ allowed to perform peer checks during reactivity manipulations.

A. (1) ONLY by an active SRO license holder (2) is
B. (1) ONLY by an active SRO license holder (2) is NOT
C. (1) by EITHER an active or inactive SRO license holder (2) IS
D. (1) by EITHER an active or inactive SRO license holder (2) is NOT

A

B. (1) ONLY by an active SRO license holder (2) is NOT

69
Q
  • Unit 1 is in MODE 1
  • Emergent maintenance is required which will place Unit 1 in ORANGE Risk Management Action Level
    Per 02DP-9RS01, Operational Risk Management, whose approval is required prior to conducting the emergent maintenance?

A. Work Week Manager
B. Work Control Manager
C. Unit Operations Manager
D. Site General Manager

A

D. Site General Manager

70
Q

Per EP-0905, Protective Actions, the EPA guidance for life-saving or protection of large populations allows for a MAXIMUM TEDE exposure of (1) and authorization for this exposure is required to be given by the (2).

A. (1) 10 Rem (2) Emergency Coordinator
B. (1) 10 Rem (2) Radiation Protection Coordinator
C. (1) 25 Rem (2) Emergency Coordinator
D. (1) 25 Rem (2) Radiation Protection Coordinator

A

C. (1) 25 Rem (2) Emergency Coordinator

71
Q

At time = 1000 on 9/1/16, the CRS is notified that a Surveillance Requirement (SR) with a frequency of 12 hours was last performed 16 hours ago.
Per Technical Specifications Section 3.0, Surveillance Requirement Applicability, what is the LATEST time the SR can be completed prior to having to declare the associated LCO not met?

A. 1300 on 9/1/16
B. 2200 on 9/1/16
C. 0100 on 9/2/16
D. 1000 on 9/2/16

A

D. 1000 on 9/2/16

72
Q
  • Unit 3 is operating at 80% power.
  • Part Strength CEAs have been inserted to 132” withdrawn for ASI control.
    Subsequently:
  • Part Strength CEA 32 began withdrawing with no operator action.
  • The RO placed the Mode Select Switch in STANDBY.
  • CEA 32 stopped at 139.5” withdrawn.
  • All other Part Strength CEAs remained at 132” withdrawn.
    In order to comply with Technical Specifications, the crew must (1) and this action must be completed within a MAXIMUM of (2).

A. (1) commence a boration to restore SDM (2) 15 minutes.
B. (1) commence a boration to restore SDM (2) one hour.
C. (1) reduce power to within the limits of the COLR (2) 15 minutes.
D. (1) reduce power to within the limits of the COLR (2) one hour.

A

D. (1) reduce power to within the limits of the COLR (2) one hour.

73
Q

In order to meet the operability requirements of LCO 3.4.6, RCS Loops - MODE 4, a MINIMUM of (1) RCS loops and SDC trains (any combination) must be OPERABLE and a MINIMUM of (2) RCS loop(s) and/or SDC train(s) must be in operation.

A. (1) 2 (2) 1.
B. (1) 2 (2) 2.
C. (1) 3 (2) 1.
D. (1) 3 (2) 2.

A

A. (1) 2 (2) 1.

74
Q

Per Technical Specifications section 2.0, Safety Limits, the MAXIMUM allowable RCS Pressure is (1) psia, and if this limit is exceeded in MODE 3, compliance must be restored within a MAXIMUM of (2).

A. (1) 2500 (2) 5 minutes.
B. (1) 2500 (2) 1 hour.
C. (1) 2750 (2) 5 minutes.
D. (1) 2750 (2) 1 hour.

A

C. (1) 2750 (2) 5 minutes.

75
Q
  • Unit 1 spuriously tripped from 100% power.
  • The unit has been maintained in MODE 3 since the trip.
  • A Reactor startup is in progress using 40OP-9ZZ03, Reactor Startup.
    Subsequently:
  • The Channel ‘B’ Log Safety Channel NI failed low and was declared inoperable.
  • The Channel ‘B’ Log Power High trip bistable has been bypassed to comply with LCO 3.3.2, RPS Instrumentation - Shutdown.
    In this condition, Unit 1 (1) enter MODE 2 (2).

A. (1) may NOT (2) because all four Log Safety Channel NIs are required to be OPERABLE PRIOR to entering MODE 2.
B. (1) may NOT (2) since the provisions for LCO 3.0.4 may only be used to enter a lower MODE in which an LCO is not met.
C. (1) MAY (2) because the Log Power High trip function is NOT required to be OPERABLE in MODE 2.
D. (1) MAY (2) By invoking LCO 3.0.4 since the required actions in LCO 3.3.1, RPS instrumentation - Operating, allow for continued operation for an unlimited period of time.

A

D. (1) MAY (2) By invoking LCO 3.0.4 since the required actions in LCO 3.3.1, RPS instrumentation - Operating, allow for continued operation for an unlimited period of time.

76
Q
  • Unit 1 is operating at 85% power.
  • Condenser back-pressure is 5.1 inches HgA and degrading at 0.1 HgA/minute.
  • The CRS has entered 40AO-9ZZ07, Loss of Condenser Vacuum.
  • A 10%/hr down power is in progress due to degrading condenser vacuum.
  • ASI just exceeded the limits specified in the Core Operating Limits Report (COLR).
    Based on these conditions, the CRS will enter LCO 3.2.4, Axial Shape Index (ASI), Condition A and must restore ASI to within limits within a MAXIMUM of (1) hours; and if condenser vacuum continues to degrade to >7 inches HgA, the CRS should direct a manual (2).

A. (1) 2 (2) Reactor Trip.
B. (1) 2 (2) Turbine Trip.
C. (1) 4 (2) Reactor Trip.
D. (1) 4 (2) Turbine Trip.

A

A. (1) 2 (2) Reactor Trip.

77
Q

The PRIMARY indication of possible fuel cladding failure and elevated RCS activity is provided by (1) and per the Technical Specification Bases for LCO 3.4.17, RCS Specific Activity, adherence to RCS activity limit is will ensure (2).

A. (1) Letdown Line Radiation Monitor RU-155D (2) control room personnel do not exceed 5 Rem during a postulated LOCA.
B. (1) Letdown Line Radiation Monitor RU-155D (2) offsite and control room doses do not exceed limits in the event of a SGTR.
C. (1) Primary Coolant Activity Monitors RU-150 and RU-151 (2) control room personnel do not exceed 5 Rem during a postulated LOCA.
D. (1) Primary Coolant Activity Monitors RU-150 and RU-151 (2) offsite and control room doses do not exceed limits in the event of a SGTR.

A

B. (1) Letdown Line Radiation Monitor RU-155D (2) offsite and control room doses do not exceed limits in the event of a SGTR.

78
Q

To meet operability requirements for Train ‘A’ per LCO 3.8.9 Distribution Systems - Operating, a MINIMUM of (1) Class 480V Load Centers must be OPERABLE, and a MINIMUM of (2) Class 480V Motor Control Centers must be OPERABLE.

A. (1) 2 (2) 3
B. (1) 2 (2) 4
C. (1) 3 (2) 3
D. (1) 3 (2) 4

A

D. (1) 3 (2) 4

79
Q

Spray Pond Control Room Indication is 56F and ~12.4’.
Assuming the unit is in MODE 1, LCO 3.7.9, Ultimate Heat Sink, is NOT MET due to Spray Pond (1) and the required action for this condition is to (2).

A. (1) Level (2) be in MODE 3 within 6 hours.
B. (1) Level (2) restore to OPERABLE within 72 hours.
C. (1) Temperature (2) be in MODE 3 within 6 hours.
D. (1) Temperature (2) restore to OPERABLE within 72 hours.

A

A. (1) Level (2) be in MODE 3 within 6 hours.

80
Q

Following a Reactor trip, Boron Dilution Alarm System (BDAS) must be placed in service per Standard Appendix 8, BDAS Channel Check, within a MAXIMUM of (1) of power lowering to 2x10-6%.
Per the Technical Specification Bases for LCO 3.3.12, BDAS, in MODES 3-5, a BDAS alarm will alert the crew a MINIMUM of (2) prior to criticality.

A. (1) 15 minutes (2) 15 minutes.
B. (1) 15 minutes (2) 30 minutes.
C. (1) 60 minutes (2) 15 minutes.
D. (1) 60 minutes (2) 60 minutes.

A

C. (1) 60 minutes (2) 15 minutes.

.JS Sim Phase USE THIS (19 decks)

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