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.JS Sim Phase USE THIS > ADMIN (Drey) > Flashcards

ADMIN (Drey) Flashcards

1
Q

Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is in MODE 5
• Preparations are in progress to heatup/startup the plant
• Containment average air temperature is 121°F
• HCN-TE-42A is 121°F
• HCN-TE-42B is 119°F
• HCN-TE-42C is 123°F
• HCN-TE-42D is 115°F
• HCN-TE-42E is 127°F
• A Risk Assessment has NOT been performed

Can an RCS heatup proceed to above 210°F? Why or why not?

A. No. The TS ACTIONS do NOT allow unlimited operation when Containment average air temperature is >117°F.

B. No. The applicable LCO is NOT met when the highest Containment air temperature indicator is >117°F.

C. Yes. The applicable LCO is MET provided Containment average air temperature is < 117°F within 8 hours after entering MODE 4.

D. Yes. The LCO is considered MET until the MODE of APPLICABILITY is entered, then the Containment air temperature must be lowered to < 117ºF.

A

A. No. The TS ACTIONS do NOT allow unlimited operation when Containment average air temperature is >117°F.

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2
Q

Due to the safety analysis for “Uncontrolled CEA Withdrawal From Subcritical Conditions”, which of the following additional restrictions must be observed at ALL times when CEAs are capable of being withdrawn?

A. No CPC channel may be bypassed.

B. LCO 3.4.2 RCS Minimum Temperature For Criticality shall be met.

C. Six matrix channels of RPS Matrix Logic are OPERABLE

D. LCO 3.3.1 Reactor Protective System (RPS) Instrumentation Operating Table 3.3.1-1 Logarithmic Power Level - High instrumentation are OPERABLE

A

C. Six matrix channels of RPS Matrix Logic are OPERABLE

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3
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the 10 CFR 20, Standards for Protection Against Radiation Reporting Requirements for immediate notification of the NRC?

In accordance with 10 CFR 20, Standards for Protection Against Radiation Reporting Requirements, immediate notification of the NRC means …

A. as soon as possible but within 5 minutes.

B. as soon as practical but within one hour.

C. as soon as possible but within 30 minutes.

D. as soon as practical but within 15 minutes.

A

B. as soon as practical but within one hour.

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4
Q

RCS Pressure is 200 psia.

Which ONE of the following is the PREFERRED method of determining subcooling?

A. Subcooled margin on B03.

B. RCS Pressure/Temperature curves.

C. QSPDS REP CET on page display 211.

D. Steam tables using RCS Hot Leg temperature and RCS Pressure.

A

B. RCS Pressure/Temperature curves.

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5
Q 
Given the following conditions:
•	Reactor Trip/Turbine Trip
•	Loss of Offsite Power
•	Highest CET temperature - 595°F
•	REP CET temperature - 585°F
•	Class THOT temperature - 575°F
•	Class TCOLD temperature - 545°F
•	Pressurizer pressure - 2250 psia

Failures require that a manual calculation of Subcooled Margin is performed.

Determine Subcooled Margin.

A. 58°F

B. 68°F

C. 78°F

D. 108°F

A

B. 68°F

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6
Q

Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Operations, what is the minimum number of Area Operators ASSIGNED to each Unit during non-outage periods (not including Outside Area Watch)?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

A

C. 4

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7
Q

Per Conduct of Operations, 40DP-9OP02, in Modes 5 and 6, the individual designated to maintain the Control Room command function will normally be the CRS, but may be …

  1. an STA
  2. a licensed RO
  3. a licensed SRO

A. 1 ONLY

B. 3 ONLY

C. 1 and 3 ONLY

D. 2 and 3 ONLY

A

D. 2 and 3 ONLY

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8
Q

IAW 40DP-9OP02 Conduct of Operations, who can authorize the issuance of Vital Area keys?

A. SM only.

B. SM and CRS only.

C. SM, CRS, and STA.

D. Control Room Staff.

A

A. SM only.

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9
Q

Which of the following conditions would REQUIRE a manual SESS alarm to be inserted for HPSI Train A in Mode 1?

A. Racking out the ‘A’ Containment Spray Pump breaker for 2 hours.

B. Racking out the ‘A’ HPSI pump breaker for a 36 hour online maintenance activity.

C. Opening SIA-V218 HPSI ‘A’ Mini Flow Recirc Orifice Bypass Valve for a 24 hour flow test.

D. 86 Lock-out on the ‘A’ EW pump, to be quarantined in this condition for 24 hours with the 86 not reset.

A

C. Opening SIA-V218 HPSI ‘A’ Mini Flow Recirc Orifice Bypass Valve for a 24 hour flow test.

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10
Q

Which of the following is specifically prohibited by 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Operations, during unplanned transients?

A. Two handed operations.

B. Manual CEA withdrawal.

C. Auto or manual RCS dilution.

D. Manual control of feedwater control valves.

A

B. Manual CEA withdrawal.

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11
Q

Given the following conditions:
• A severe transient is in progress
• The EOPs are NOT mitigating the event
• The CRS desires to take reasonable actions that are significantly outside of the procedural guidance found in the EOPs as well as the License conditions
• There are no actions within the scope of our License that will address the condition of the plant
• The CRS believes that failing to take these actions will lead to adverse consequences to the public health and safety

Based on these conditions, the CRS must ____(1)____ and ____(2)____.

A. (1) invoke 10CFR50.54 (x)
(2) wait for TSC approval for the planned action

B. (1) invoke 10CFR50.54 (x)
(2) direct the actions that the CRS feels are prudent.

C. (1) obtain the Shift Managers permission to deviate from the EOP
(2) wait for TSC approval of the planned action

D. (1) obtain the Shift Managers permission to deviate from the EOP.
(2) direct the actions the CRS feels are prudent

A

B. (1) invoke 10CFR50.54 (x)

(2) direct the actions that the CRS feels are prudent.

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12
Q

10CFR50.54(x) is implemented when…

A. the governor has declared a state of emergency due to problems with the grid.

B. the operating crew believes that modifying an E.O.P. will increase efficiency of mitigating the event.

C. action, which deviates from our license condition, is required to protect the health and safety of the public

D. compliance with Technical Specifications would adversly impact generation availability (capacity).

A

C. action, which deviates from our license condition, is required to protect the health and safety of the public

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13
Q

Given the following conditions:

  • Instrument failure on feedwater control system #1.
  • Steam generator #1 level is 45% narrow range and dropping slowly.
  • Secondary operator believes MANUAL on the master or economizer controllers will stabilize the plant.

WHICH ONE of the following describe the action the control operator is to take for the observed indications?

A. Inform the Control Room Staff; obtain control room supervisor concurrence; manually trip the reactor.

B. Inform the Control Room Staff; obtain control room supervisor concurrence; take MANUAL control of the master controller.

C. Immediately take MANUAL control of the master controller and raise the output; inform the Control Room Staff of results.

D. Immediately take MANUAL control of the economizer controller and raise the output; inform the Control Room Staff of results.

A

B. Inform the Control Room Staff; obtain control room supervisor concurrence; take MANUAL control of the master controller.

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14
Q

The transportation of a Dry Cask from the Unit 2 Fuel Building to its designated storage location at the ISFSI is complete.

____(1)____ has ownership of this Dry Cask concerning the performance of specific conditional surveillances.

____(2)____ has ownership of this Dry Cask concerning the performance of inspections and implementation of E-Plan activities.

A. (1) Unit 1 Shift Manager
(2) Unit 1 Shift Manager

B. (1) Unit 1 Shift Manager
(2) Unit 2 Shift Manager

C. (1) Unit 2 Shift Manager
(2) Unit 1 Shift Manager

D. (1) Unit 2 Shift Manager
(2) Unit 2 Shift Manager

A

A. (1) Unit 1 Shift Manager

(2) Unit 1 Shift Manager

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15
Q

Given the following conditions:
• Unit 1 is 100% power
• An SRO-licensed individual filled the following positions:
• Reactor Operator on Nightshift 9/30/19, 10/1/19, and 10/2/19
• Shift Technical Advisor on Dayshift 11/30/19, 12/2/19, and 12/9/19
• Control Room Supervisor on Dayshift 12/24/19, and 12/29/19

Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Operations, what does this SRO-licensed individual need to do to maintain an Active SRO license as of January 1st, 2020?

A. No further action, all requirements are met.

B. Stand watch as the Reactor Operator on Dayshift 12/31/19.

C. Stand watch as Control Room Supervisor on Nightshift 12/31/19.

D. Stand watch as the Work Control Supervisor on Dayshift 12/31/19.

A

B. Stand watch as the Reactor Operator on Dayshift 12/31/19.

NOTE- The one shift on 9/30/19 is the previous quarter

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16
Q

Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of events/actions to return a manually forward seated MOV to service?

Manually back the valve off of its closed seat ensuring the valve has separated from the seat and then perform (1) full motor stroke(s), and (2) check that the MOV operates properly with no binding.

A. (1) one
(2) locally

B. (1) one
(2) remotely

C. (1) two
(2) locally

D. (1) two
(2) remotely

A

C. (1) two

(2) locally

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17
Q

Given the following conditions:

  1. With the Unit in Mode 1, a Reactor Trip Switchgear Breaker is being changed out by the electricians. The breaker change out and associated testing will be completed prior to the end of shift.
  2. During their rounds in Mode 2, an AO reports that the Turbine Driven AFW Pump, AFA-P01, trip linkage is broken. Maintenance indicates it will be two days to get parts.
  3. In Mode 2, the OATC notices that the PDIL alarm is locked in. The PDIL Alarm Circuit Operability Surveillance Test is on the Mode 3 to Mode 2 Checklist. Troubleshooting is expected to continue through next shift.

Which of the following lists condition(s) that would require a TSCCR be generated?

A. 1 ONLY

B. 3 ONLY

C. 1 and 2 ONLY

D. 2 and 3 ONLY

A

D. 2 and 3 ONLY

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18
Q

A Condition Report (CR) requesting an evaluation should be initiated if a TSCCR was generated due to which of the following?

A. An event is caused by human error

B. Any condition remaining in effect for greater than 12 hours

C. Any condition remaining in effect for greater than 36 hours

D. Any condition remaining in effect for greater than 72 hours

A

A. An event is caused by human error

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19
Q

With the plant in Mode 4, the operating crew wishes to open a normally locked closed Containment Isolation Valve.

Per 40DP-9OP19, Locked Valve, Breaker and Component Tracking, which one of the following is true?

A. The valve may not remain open longer than 1 shift.

B. The operation may not be performed until the plant enters Mode 5.

C. A dedicated operator must be able to close the valve within 60 seconds.

D. An operator must be notified to check the valve open periodically but need not be stationed.

A

C. A dedicated operator must be able to close the valve within 60 seconds.

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20
Q

In accordance with 40DP-9OP19, Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Tracking, relying on an individual to close a Containment isolation valve is…

A. NOT acceptable.

B. acceptable IF the individual can respond to close the open valve within no more than 3 minutes.

C. acceptable IF the individual can respond to close the open valve within no more than 5 minutes.

D. acceptable IF the individual can respond to close the open valve within no more than 60 seconds.

A

D. acceptable IF the individual can respond to close the open valve within no more than 60 seconds.

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21
Q

The various operational boundaries between the Operations Department and other organizations, such as Water Resources Facility (WRF), Maintenance, and Chemistry, is defined by the . . .

A. Operations Interface procedure.

B. Power Block Permit and Tagging procedure.

C. Operations Department Leader memorandum.

D. Technical Documents/Work Instruction Controls procedure.

A

A. Operations Interface procedure.

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22
Q

A Temporary Modification would be required for which one of the following installations?

A. Temporary power to NHN-M04.

B. Domestic service flush line on NCN-P01A while it is tagged out.

C. Voltmeter that monitors control power for LPSI ‘B’ that will be continuously monitored by a technician.

D. Discharge pressure gauge on LPSI ‘A’ while performing 73ST-9SI11 (LPSI Pump Miniflow Inservice Test).

A

A. Temporary power to NHN-M04.

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23
Q

A Proceduralized T-Mod has been installed. The T-Mod procedure requires a Justification Review within (1) of installation and (2) thereafter as long as it is installed.

A. (1) 6 months (2) annually

B. (1) one year (2) annually

C. (1) 6 months (2) every 6 months

D. (1) 3 months (2) every 3 months

A

C. (1) 6 months (2) every 6 months

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24
Q

Given the following conditions:

  • A Surveillance Test is being performed on a specific valve.
  • In order to pass the Surveillance Test, the valve must stroke in less than 15 seconds.
  • The Operations Department, recognizing that this valve tends to stick on the initial stroke, desires to stroke the valve several times before the Surveillance Test begins.

Per 73DP-9ZZ14, Surveillance Testing, which one of the following statements is correct concerning this situation?

A. This is NOT permitted as it is an action that is considered pre-conditioning.

B. This practice can improve the chances of meeting the acceptance criteria of the ST and, therefore, is recommended.

C. This is NOT permitted as it will cause a temperature rise in the motor’s windings, hurting the subsequent stroke times.

D. This practice, although not recommended, is permitted and can be used with the Shift Managers permission to improve the chances of passing the ST.

A

A. This is NOT permitted as it is an action that is considered pre-conditioning.

25
Q

Which of the following describes the correct response to an aborted Surveillance Test?

A. The ST package shall be routed through all normal reviews and processing.

B. The acceptance review will be completed only after the complete performance of the ST.

C. The ST package is maintained, however, the acceptance review is not required to be performed.

D. The acceptance review does not need to be performed and the ST package can be immediately discarded.

A

A. The ST package shall be routed through all normal reviews and processing.

26
Q

Which of the following values would NOT meet proper oxygen levels for continuing work in a Confined Space Area?

1) 18.5%
2) 19.8%
3) 22.8%
4) 24.0%

A. 1 ONLY

B. 1 and 4 ONLY

C. 1, 3, and 4 ONLY

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

A

B. 1 and 4 ONLY

27
Q

Given the following conditions:

  • The ‘A’ Containment Spray system is inoperable.
  • A valve lineup is the only evolution required to declare the system OPERABLE.
  • This valve lineup requires an independent verification.

Based on these conditions, when is the EARLIEST that the ‘A’ Containment Spray system can be declared OPERABLE, in accordance with 02DP-9OP01, Site Wide Status Control Procedure?

A. When the first check of the valve lineup is complete, assuming no discrepancies were noted.

B. Only after the person who performs the independent verification has the paperwork reviewed by the CRS.

C. When the Control Room receives verbal notification that the valve lineup has been independently verified.

D. Only after the person who performs the independent verification makes the appropriate control room log entries.

A

C. When the Control Room receives verbal notification that the valve lineup has been independently verified.

28
Q

Which of the following items should be accomplished using concurrent verification?

A. Single component manipulation outside the control room which, if performed incorrectly, could result in an immediate ESFAS actuation.

B. Manipulations outside the control room of containment isolation valves.

C. When the person designated to perform the second check is not qualified to perform the verification.

D. Removal of equipment from service by a clearance.

A

A. Single component manipulation outside the control room which, if performed incorrectly, could result in an immediate ESFAS actuation.

29
Q

Given the following conditions:
• An Operations controlled barrier in the Auxiliary Building needs to be opened
• The barrier will be out of its configuration for less than an hour
• All prerequisites and compensatory actions identified in Appendix A (Controlled Barrier Identification) of 40DP-9ZZ17 have been met
• The barrier is capable of being restored immediately

Which of the following describes the requirements of an Open Door/Hatch/Floor Plug Permit in this case?

A. If the barrier is open longer than required to pass personnel or equipment through, then it requires a permit to be issued.

B. A permit does NOT need to be generated if this door is continuously manned with a person familiar with the function of the barrier and when it must be restored.

C. Since the barrier will only be out of position for less than an hour, this set of conditions does NOT require the use of a permit and no further compensatory actions are required.

D. A permit does NOT need to be generated if the Operating Crew, specifically the Area Operator, checks the status of this door every 15 minutes to ensure it can still be immediately restored.

A

B. A permit does NOT need to be generated if this door is continuously manned with a person familiar with the function of the barrier and when it must be restored.

30
Q

In an emergency, the ____(1)____ can deviate from the requirements of the Tagging and Permit procedure if following them would ____(2)____.

A. (1) Fire Team Advisor
(2) slow the emergency response significantly and present an unnecessary administrative burden

B. (1) Fire Team Advisor
(2) result in a significant hazard to personnel or equipment or increase radioactive release off site

C. (1) Emergency Coordinator
(2) slow the emergency response significantly and present an unnecessary administrative burden

D. (1) Emergency Coordinator
(2) result in a significant hazard to personnel or equipment or increase radioactive release off site

A

D. (1) Emergency Coordinator

(2) result in a significant hazard to personnel or equipment or increase radioactive release off site

31
Q

Per 40DP-9OP29 (Power Block Clearance and Tagging), the MINIMUM temperature and pressure that requires two valve protection (when possible) is ___(1)___ degrees and ___(2)___ psig.

A. (1) 100
(2) 500

B. (1) 200
(2) 500

C. (1) 200
(2) 1000

D. (1) 500
(2) 1000

A

B. (1) 200

(2) 500

32
Q

Per 40DP-9OP29, Power Block Clearance and Tagging, using an Air Operated Valve which fails OPEN as part of the isolation boundary is ______.

A. NEVER permitted

B. only permitted if a separate air cylinder is installed to ensure the valve has air

C. permitted if the valve has a manual jacking device installed (keeping it closed)

D. only permitted if the air-line to the valve actuator is tagged in a way to ensure air is not lost to valve

A

C. permitted if the valve has a manual jacking device installed (keeping it closed)

33
Q

Who is responsible for hanging electrical grounding tags when a grounding device is installed in a 13.8kV switchgear?

A. Operations.

B. Work Control.

C. Outage Central.

D. Electrical Maintenance.

A

D. Electrical Maintenance.

34
Q

Which of the following immediate actions are required when finding a Red Danger Tag lying on the floor (unattached tag) from an active permit?

A. Destroy the tag and immediately notify the affected unit’s Work Control Shift Manager.

B. Bring the unattached tag to the Responsible Supervisor.

C. Leave the tag as found and immediately notify the Control Room.

D. Verify the correct component and rehang the tag.

A

C. Leave the tag as found and immediately notify the Control Room.

35
Q

Per Housekeeping Controls, 30DP-0WM12, which of the following Zones restricts the use of food and tobacco but does NOT address FME controls?

A. II

B. III

C. IV

D. V

A

C. IV

36
Q

Who is responsible for notifying ECC of personnel entering and leaving the 525kV switchyard?

A. ECC

B. Unit 1 SM

C. Unit 1 STA

D. Unit 2 or 3 SM

A

B. Unit 1 SM

37
Q

Which of the following describes the PVGS responsibility in regards to communicating to Energy Control Center (ECC) following a unit trip due to a PPS failure?

A. The affected Unit Shift Manager must call ECC to give details of the Unit trip within 1 hour of the trip.

B. The affected Unit Shift Manager will call ECC to give details of the Unit trip as soon as the immediate emergency subsides.

C. Since ECC continuously monitors the status of PVGS, a call from the affected Unit Shift Manager is never required when a Unit trips.

D. The affected Unit Shift Manager is not required to communicate with ECC under these conditions, as this type of communication is handled by the Transmission Control Supervisor.

A

B. The affected Unit Shift Manager will call ECC to give details of the Unit trip as soon as the immediate emergency subsides.

38
Q

Following a trip from 100% power when does the affected Unit Shift Manager call the ECC with trip details?
As soon as…

A. the immediate emergency subsides.

B. SPTAs are complete and in all cases within 15 minutes.

C. SPTAs are complete and in all cases within 1 hour.

D. the selected Optimal or Functional recovery procedure is entered and in all cases within 15 minutes.

A

A. the immediate emergency subsides.

39
Q

PVNGS Operations Department personnel may perform emergency switching in all parts of the switchyard under the direction of…

A. the Work Control CRS.

B. the Unit 1 Shift Manager.

C. any unit CRS or Shift Manager.

D. SRP TGO (Transmission and Generation Operations) via ECC.

A

D. SRP TGO (Transmission and Generation Operations) via ECC.

40
Q

The Shift Manager must be notified when a CR is written under which of the following conditions?

A. The wrong oil was placed into ‘B’ LPSI pumps during the last PM cycle.

B. ‘B’ LPSI pump restoration is delayed 1 hour but still within the Tech Spec limit.

C. The ST for the LPSI pumps performance can be made more efficient by resequencing several steps.

D. The system engineer has determined the vibration reading in the ST were overly restrictive, and new vibration data should be incorporated into the next performance of the ST.

A

A. The wrong oil was placed into ‘B’ LPSI pumps during the last PM cycle.

41
Q

Which of the following most accurately defines the term “Adverse Condition” as it applies to Condition Reporting?

A. A condition which is unusual.

B. Any significant threat to electrical generation.

C. Any significant threat to public health and safety.

D. Any item or activity that does not conform to requirements.

A

D. Any item or activity that does not conform to requirements.

42
Q

Given the following conditions:

  • You are performing a surveillance on the Train ‘A’ Diesel Generator.
  • An obvious typographical error exists in the procedure.

Based on these conditions, you must stop the activity, ensure the system/component is in a safe condition, contact supervision for resolution of the problem, obtain your supervisor’s (or Shift Manager’s) review and document in the test log that this is an administrative change and…

A. complete a TAPA before you continue.

B. continue on with the procedure, no further action is required.

C. complete a Condition Report for a Procedure Change Request before you continue.

D. continue on with the procedure and initiate a Condition Report after completion of the activity.

A

C. complete a Condition Report for a Procedure Change Request before you continue.

43
Q

During the performance of an ARP, it is determined that immediate clarification is needed for a step which, if performed as written, could result in an HU error.

The ARP step should be clarified using a(n) ___(1)___ and following approval of this clarification, an Independent Qualified Review (IQR) must be completed within a MAXIMUM of ___(2)___ days.

A. (1) TAPA
(2) 4

B. (1) TAPA
(2) 14

C. (1) Administrative Change
(2) 4

D. (1) Administrative Change
(2) 14

A

B. (1) TAPA

(2) 14

44
Q

Per 01DP-0AP09 Procedure and Work Instruction Use and Adherence, when is the reason for using N/A during the performance of a procedure or work instruction required to be documented in the procedure or work instruction?

(1) Branching steps not performed when the procedure is required to be retained for record retention.
(2) Non-Conditional steps not performed in work instructions.
(3) Entire section of a procedure is not performed.
(4) Establishment of an initial condition is not performed.

A. (1) & (2)

B. (2) & (3)

C. (3) & (4)

D. (4) & (1)

A

A. (1) & (2)

45
Q

When a Continuous Use procedure cannot be performed in the sequence specified, …

A. the procedure is required to be changed prior to proceeding.

B. the user can apply common sense to complete the procedure.

C. the CRS can reorder the steps as long as the intent of the procedure is met.

D. the CRS can reorder the steps with SM concurrence as long as the intent of the procedure is met.

A

A. the procedure is required to be changed prior to proceeding.

46
Q

The Chemistry Department wishes to perform a 1 time waiver of a non-technical specification chemical sampling frequencies.

What is used to document this waiver?

A. CCI

B. LER

C. CRDR.

D. Special Variance.

A

A. CCI

47
Q

A Chemistry Control Instruction is delivered to the Control Room. The SM or CRS shall…

A. direct the actions necessary to carry out the action whether they agree with the instructions or not.

B. sign if he (or she) concurs with the instruction and then direct the actions necessary to carry out the action.

C. sign if he (or she) concurs with the instruction and then permit the Chemistry Department to direct the actions necessary to carry out the action.

D. review the instruction and, based on his (or her) understanding of it, choose to implement the actions or not. If the actions are not implemented, no further action is required.

A

B. sign if he (or she) concurs with the instruction and then direct the actions necessary to carry out the action.

48
Q

Given the following conditions:

  • A Steam Generator Tube Rupture has occurred.
  • Per 40DP-9ZZ14, Contaminated Water Management:
    • Demineralizers are in service.
    • Long Path Recirculation is in service.
  • The Condenser is available and the plant is being cooled down to MODE 5.

Per 40DP-9ZZ14, Contaminated Water Management, this should be continued until…

A. Steam Generators are in wet layup.

B. Condenser level exceeds 108 inches.

C. Condensate activity is less than release limits.

D. Main Steam and extraction/heater drain piping has been completely drained.

A

C. Condensate activity is less than release limits.

49
Q

During power operation, Shutdown Margin control is assured by operating with the shutdown CEAs fully withdrawn and…

A. ASI within the Tech Spec limits.

B. Azimuthal Tilt within the Tech Spec limits.

C. regulating CEA groups in the required sequence.

D. the regulating CEAs above the Power Dependent Insertion Limits.

A

D. the regulating CEAs above the Power Dependent Insertion Limits.

50
Q

Section 6.1, All FSCEAs Fully Inserted, of 72ST-9RX14, Shutdown Margin – Modes 3, 4 and 5, assumes which of the following?

A. No FSCEAs are stuck out.

B. 1 FSCEA is stuck out.

C. 2 FSCEAs are stuck out.

D. ALL CEAs are stuck out.

A

B. 1 FSCEA is stuck out.

51
Q

Concerning the minimum RCS Boron concentration, the required boron concentration decreases from 500°F to 350°F, then increases below 350°F.

Which of the following identifies the reasons?

Boron concentration decreases from 500°F to 350°F due to the…
Boron concentration increases below 350°F due to the…

A. HPSI make-up capability.
shielding of the Log Channel detectors.

B. additional inventory in the RCS.
decreased boron worth at low temperatures.

C. quicker SIT injection.
increased rod worth of the assumed fully withdrawn CEA.

D. decreased effect of a ESD on the primary.
positive reactivity added by the cooldown.

A

D. decreased effect of a ESD on the primary.

positive reactivity added by the cooldown.

52
Q

Technical Documents are removed from the In Progress (I/P) book…

A. following restoration.

B. within 48 hours of entry.

C. within 72 hours of entry.

D. when directed by the CRS.

A

A. following restoration.

53
Q

A fire in the Unit 1 turbine building has been reported by calling 4444 and by calling the Unit 1 control room. What procedure will the Control Room Supervisor use to ensure proper plant response?

A. 40AO-9ZZ19, Control Room Fire

B. 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations

C. 40EP-EO11, Lower Mode Functional Recovery

D. 14DP-0FP32, Emergency Notification and Response

A

D. 14DP-0FP32, Emergency Notification and Response

54
Q

Who determines what actions from 40DP-9ZZ19, Operational Considerations Due To Plant Fire, are warranted in the event of a fire outside of the Control Room?

A. Shift Manager

B. Fire Team Advisor

C. Control Room Supervisor

D. Fire Protection Supervisor

A

C. Control Room Supervisor

55
Q

Given the following information from Tech Specs:

  • Tech Spec 3.7.7 states … with one EW train inoperable, restore the EW train to OPERABLE status within 72 hours
  • Tech Spec 3.7.8 states … with one SP train inoperable, restore the SP train to OPERABLE status within 72 hours

Given the following conditions:

0800 5/10 SP ‘A’ is declared inoperable due to a breaker problem
0800 5/12 EW ‘A’ is declared inoperable due to bad pump seals
1200 5/12 SP ‘A’ is restored to service

Assuming 3.0.6 was implemented, when does EW ‘A’ have to be restored to service?

A. 0800 5/13

B. 1200 5/13

C. 0800 5/14

D. 0800 5/15

A

D. 0800 5/15D. 0800 5/15

56
Q

For the purpose of 40DP-9OP37, Safety Function Determination Procedure, a loss of safety function may exist when a support feature is inoperable, and. . .

A. either Diesel generator is inoperable.

B. any other required feature is inoperable.

C. either Ultimate Heat Sink (UHS) is inoperable.

D. a required feature redundant to the inoperable support feature is also inoperable.

A

D. a required feature redundant to the inoperable support feature is also inoperable.

57
Q

Given the following conditions:

  • A Reactor Operator has worked five 12 hour Day shifts in a row Monday thru Friday.
  • Due to an unexpected illness he was required to stay an additional 4 hours on Friday.

What would be the next full shift he would available to cover?

A. Monday days

B. Saturday days

C. Sunday days

D. Sunday nights

A

A. Monday days

58
Q

Given the following conditions:
• A steam generator tube leak has occurred in Unit 1
• The Unit 1 SM decides that the Contaminated Water Management program is required to be initiated

Who performs the initial actions of implementation?

A. EITHER an affected or unaffected unit SRO

B. An SRO assigned to the affected unit ONLY

C. An SRO assigned to an unaffected unit ONLY

D. The program is ONLY implemented once the TSC is manned and is coordinated by the Emergency Coordinator

A

A. EITHER an affected or unaffected unit SRO

59
Q

The most limiting event for the Shutdown Margin requirements in the COLR is…

A. an ejected CEA above 500°F.

B. a continuous CEA withdrawal above 350°F.

C. a main steam line break above 350°F.

D. an inadvertent dilution above 500°F.

A

C. a main steam line break above 350°F.

.JS Sim Phase USE THIS (19 decks)

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