Spring 2020 - pharm exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The sodium/potassium pump is responsible for? (choose 2)

A

A. Maintains oncotic equilibrium

B. Creates sodium gradient

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2
Q

Which of the following are true of halothane? (Choose 2)

A

a. high potency, quick onset and recovery
b. vapor malfunction caused by thymol

slide 89 of gas ppt

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3
Q

Plasma fluoride concentration is higher after administration of sevoflurane than enflurane, but exposure of renal tubules to fluoride is limited because most elimination is through the:

A

Lungs

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4
Q

Which of the following are true of Sevoflurane? (choose 2)

A

A. Though controversial, 2 L/min of fresh gas flow prevents the breakdown of compound A

B. CO2 absorbents react with sevoflurane to eliminate hydrogen fluoride

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5
Q

Though controversial, 2 L/min of fresh gas flow prevents the breakdown of compound A with the use of which gas?

A

sevo

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6
Q

CO2 absorbents react with which gas to eliminate hydrogen fluoride

A

sevoflurane

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7
Q

Maintains oncotic equilibrium

A

sodium /potassium pump

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8
Q

what creates sodium gradiant?

A

sodium /potassium pump

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9
Q

which gas has a high potency, quick onset and recovery?

A

halothane

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10
Q

which gas is associated with a vapor malfunction caused by thymol

A

halothane

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11
Q

the ratio b/w the LD50 and ED50?

A

Therapeutic Index (TI)

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12
Q

The time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or during a constant infusion) represented by:

A

0.7 x Vd/Cl

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13
Q

0.7 x Vd/Cl =

A

The time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or during a constant infusion) represented by:

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14
Q

Propofol classification

A

GABA Agonist

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15
Q

MOA of Malignant hyperthermia:

A

constant leak of Ca through ryanodine receptors

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16
Q

List volatile anesthetics from greatest to least HEPATIC effects:

A

Halothane > Enflurance >Isoflurane > Desflurane

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17
Q

Which is true regarding properties of inhaled anesthetics?

A

The higher the concentration of gas, the quicker the effects take place

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18
Q

The higher the concentration of gas….

A

the quicker the effects take place

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19
Q

True or False?

The higher the concentration of gas, the quicker the effects take place

A

True

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20
Q

How do inhaled anesthetics work? What do they act on?

choose 2

A
  • GABA receptor

- Influx of Cl- ions into the cell to hyperpolarize cells

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21
Q

most soluable anesthetic gas in blood?

A

sevoflurane (was only choice that was most soluble)

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22
Q

What is the Boiling point for Desflurane?

A

BP = 22.8

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23
Q

What is the vapor pressure for Desflurane?

A

VP = 669

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24
Q

Blood gas solubility of Sevo:

A

0.69

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25
Q

Pharmacokinetics does NOT include:

A

Bioavailability

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26
Q

Hydrolysis does not involve

A

P450

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27
Q

What is broken down in the plasma by hydrolysis?

A

succ

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28
Q

What is the exchange ratio of the Na Atpase Pump?

A

3Na IN

2K OUT

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29
Q

Chronic alcoholics require more anesthetic gases, why?

A

chronic alcoholism causes increased metabolism due to enzymes that break down the drug faster.

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30
Q

What is the order of potency for morphine (compared to sufentanil, dillaudid, fentanyl)

A

Sufentanil> fentanyl> hydromorphone> morphine

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31
Q

Which drug has the least protein binding?

A

Procaine (ester)

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32
Q

exogenous epi dose:

A

6mcg/kg

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33
Q

Which volatile agent causes transient increase in HR?

A

Desflurane

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34
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is caused from? (choose two)

A
  1. ) succinylcholine

2. ) continuous release of ca from the ryanodine receptor

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35
Q

Malignant hyperthermia results from the continuous release of….

A

ca from the ryanodine receptor

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36
Q

what is the process of allowing temporary per-op myocardial ischemia to prepare a pt for surgery?

A

Ischemic perconditioning

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37
Q

which of the following gases has a blood gas solubility that allows for a rapid rise to equilibrium?

A

Desflurane

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38
Q

which gas is used as the first gas of the second gas effect?

A

Nitrous Oxide

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39
Q

gas that enters the mouth, pharynx, and trachea but does not reach the alveoli is referred to as:

A

anatomical dead space

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40
Q

what gas is not stable in sode lime?

A

sevoflurane

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41
Q

Graph with A B C D choices.

Which one does the CRNA want?

A

C - line between LD1, ED99

??

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42
Q

LD1, ED99 describes the need for:

A

vigilance

43
Q

which of the following best describes the need for vigilance?

A

LD1, ED99

44
Q

Therapeutic index is not optimal. What is a more effective ratio for anesthesia?

A

LD1, ED99

45
Q

What is the therapeutic index? (ratio)

A

LD 50, ED 50

46
Q

A drug infused at a constant rate reached 94% of steady state after how many half lifes?

A

4

47
Q

What is involved in Phase 1 metabolism? (choose 2)

A
  1. cytochrome P450 enzymes

2. yields water soluble metabolites

48
Q

An 80 year old patient with liver disease is expected to have: (choose 2)

A
  1. Increase in volume of distribution

2. Decrease in plasma protein

49
Q

Which of the following is descriptive of fetal ion trapping (choose 3):

A
  1. fetal pH lower than the mother
  2. drug converting from non-ionized to ionized form in fetus
  3. drugged becoming trapped in fetus leading to toxicity.
50
Q

Which of the following is an ester?

A

Tetracaine

“i” esters

51
Q

which of the following is associated with fetal ion trapping (choose 2):

A
  1. fetus being more acidic than the mother

2. specific amides

52
Q

definition of peak concentration:

A

rate of absorption = rate of elimination

53
Q

definition of a prodrug:

A

inactive until metabolized

54
Q

Chloroprocaine has no protein binding, what are two things you can assume about it?

A
  1. short duration of action

2. dissociates from Na channels with ease

55
Q

choose/name three characteristics of LIPID soluble drugs that help them spread:

A
  1. can pass through the BBB
  2. high protein binding
  3. because of Vd, it does not get cleared out of the body as quickly
56
Q

what are the correct definitions for efficacy and potency?

A

Efficacy is max effect a drug can produce.

Potency is amount of drug needed for a given effect.

57
Q

Efficacy is

A

max effect a drug can produce.

58
Q

Potency is

A

amount of drug needed for a given effect.

59
Q

What describes liver metabolism before the drug enters circulation?

A

First pass effect

60
Q

First pass effect is:

A

the metabolism by the liver before the drug enters circulation

61
Q

Receptor theory, those that are responsible for no action at the receptor side (2):

A
  • Non-competitive antagonist

- competitive antagonist

62
Q

Responsible for moving morphine out of the CNS?

A

P-glycoprotein

63
Q

Most ions are insoluble or soluble to the cell membrane?

A

Insoluble

64
Q

Most ions cross cell membrane through:

A

Protein channels

65
Q

Na/K pump is responsible for: (choose 2)

A

Na/K transport

Transmembrane electrical potential

66
Q

Glucose moves across cell membrane by: (2)

A
  1. sodium cotransport system

2. insulin

67
Q

O2 and CO2 move into the cell by:

A

simple diffusion

68
Q

What are the two most abundant constituents in the cell membrane?

A
  1. protein

2. phospholipids

69
Q

Cholesterol provides ___ and ____ to the cell membrane.

A
  • Flexibility

- Stability

70
Q

What provides SPECIFICITY to the cell membrane?

A

Protein(s)

71
Q

How many liters of plasma do we have?

A

3Liters

72
Q

Constituent are identical but quantities vary:

A
  1. plasma
  2. interstitial fluid
  3. intracellular fluid
73
Q

Total body weight is composed of:

A

65% water

35% non-water

74
Q

What coefficient parallels anesthetic requirement?

A

Oil : gas partition

75
Q

Oil : gas partition parallels what?

A

anesthetic requirement

76
Q

negative middle ear pressures may develop after d/c of Nitrous Oxide leading to:

A

serous otitis

77
Q

Conjugation is not part of (metabolism) Phase :

A

Phase 1

78
Q

All of the following are a part of phase I metabolism except:

A

Conjugation

79
Q

Tissue uptake is determined by:

A

pH

80
Q

Biotransformation occurs primarily in the :

A

Liver

81
Q

Context sensitive half time (2):

A
  1. time it takes for the plasma concentration to decrease by 50%
  2. depends on the duration of the infusion
82
Q

Half time elimination (2):

A
  1. Directly proportional to volume of distribution

2. inversely proportional to clearance

83
Q

time it takes for the plasma concentration to decrease by 50% (defines)

A

context sensitive half time

84
Q

the duration of the infusion influences

A

context sensitive half time

85
Q

what is directly proportional to volume of distribution?

A

half time elimination

86
Q

what is inversely proportional to clearance?

A

half time elimination

87
Q

Half time elimination is directly proportional to:

A

volume of distribution

88
Q

Half time elimination is inversely proportional to:

A

clearance

89
Q

What is the term for when two drugs produce the same effect are given together and one enhances the effect of the other?

A

synergistic

90
Q

When two drugs are present in a mixture of 50/50 they are referred to as:

A

racemic mixture

91
Q

What LA has no protein binding?

A

Procaine?

92
Q

What generally decreases membrane fluidity and permeability?

A

Cholesterol

93
Q

a patient has a hx of seizures. What gas would the CRNA avoid?

A

Enflurane

94
Q

The most potent inhaled anesthetic:

A

insoflurane

95
Q

osmotic pressure (flow of fluid)

A

hypotonic to hypertonic

96
Q

Signs of diffusion hypoxia with decreased respiration’s (hypoventilation). Use of what gas could cause this?

A

Nitrous Oxide

97
Q

Which stage of anesthesia do you want your patient in?

A

Stage 3

98
Q

Induction (partial pressure equilibrate order):

A

PA –>Pa –> Pbr

99
Q

Patient has divergent gaze and breath holding. What stage of GA is pt in?

A

Stage 2

100
Q

100% MAC =

A

N2O

101
Q

What is the equation for Minute ventilation?

A

tidal vol x breaths/min

102
Q

Vapor pressure of Sevoflurane:

A

170

103
Q

Gas coefficient of Sevoflurane:

A

0.69

104
Q

Not stable in soda lime:

A

sevoflurane (and halothane)