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PANCE PREP > Things I forget 2 > Flashcards

Things I forget 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 conditions that are associated with neohritic syndrome

A
  • igA nephropathy
  • post infections
  • goodpastures (anti GBM)
  • wagners (C- anca)
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2
Q

endocarditis tx
native
subacute
PV

A

nafcillin + gent
ampcillin + gent
Vaco + Rifampin + Gent

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3
Q

JNC 8 what is the goal HTN

A
  1. <140/90

2. If > 60 yo: 150> 90

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4
Q

tx for esophageal verices

A
  • endoscopic ligation

- octreotide

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5
Q

meningitis tx

1m - 50 year

A

Ceftriaxone + Vanco 398

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6
Q

meningitis tx

> 50 year

A

Ceftriaxone + ampcillin 398

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7
Q

meningitis tx

< 1 m

A

Cefotaxime + ampcillin 398

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8
Q

tx of osteomyelitis in adults

A

nafcillin + Vanco

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9
Q

tx of osteomyelitis in sickle cell

A

ceftriaxone + cipro

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10
Q

what is the gold standard for osteomyelitis

A

bone aspiration

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11
Q

tx septic arthritis 2 +

A

Nafcillin + Vanco

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12
Q 
CAP OP 2
CAP IP 
CAP ICU 2
HAP
aspiration
A
  • azithro OR Doxcy
  • (azithro + Doxcy) OR Levo
  • Ceftriaxone + Levo
  • Zozyn + Levo
  • Clinda
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13
Q

what condition is associated with erythema multiform

A

herpes

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14
Q

what is the Tx for diverticulitis

A

cipro+Flagyl

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15
Q

what labs are associated with CUC

A

P anca

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16
Q

rice water stools

A

vibro choleare

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17
Q

vibro choleare tx

A

supportive

tetracycline

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18
Q

enterotoxogenic e coli tx 2

A

fluids

fluorquinolones

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19
Q

Campylobactor enteritis tx

A

erythromycin

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20
Q

salmonella diarrhea tx

A

cipro

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21
Q

enterohemorragic ecoli E 0157H7

primary transmission

A

undercooked beef

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22
Q

frothy greasy diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

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23
Q

enterotoxogenic e coli tx 2

A

fluids

fluorquinolones

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24
Q

what is travelers diarrhea that is trasmitted via water

A

enterotoxogenic e coli

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25
Q

what type of vision loss with DM

A

central

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26
Q

what are the three tx for acute closed angle glaucoma

A
  • acetazalamide
  • Beta blocker
  • cholinergics (pilocarpine)
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27
Q

precancerous hyperkeratosis due to chronic irritation of the mouth, cannot be scraped off

A

oral leukoplakia

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28
Q
  • Flashing lights
  • floaters
  • curtain coming down
  • loss of central vision
A

retinal detachment

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29
Q

redness
poor vision
pain increased with EOM

A

orbital cellulitis

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30
Q

Small yellow white spots around the rim

- Drusen

A

macular degeneration

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31
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia cause

A

EBV

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32
Q

bacterial conjunctivitis tx contact lens use

A
  • cipro
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33
Q

what is the subjective / popcorn with amaurosis fugax

A

curtain coming down

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34
Q

prearicular lymphadenopathy

A

viral conjuntivitis

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35
Q

ages for AOM

A
  • 6 - 18 months
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36
Q

what causes oral hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV

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37
Q

painless white plaque on lateral tongue

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

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38
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia TX

A

none

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39
Q

how often is erythroplakia cancer

A

often 90%

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40
Q

what duct is stensens duct

A

parotid

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41
Q

how do you tx sailithiasis

A

hard candies

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42
Q

lacy leukopnakia of the oral mucosa

A

oral lichen planus

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43
Q

oral lichen planus tx

A

steroids

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44
Q

swelling of the upper neck with pus on the floor of the mouth

A

ludwigs angina

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45
Q

causes of bacterial meningitis

  • < 1 month
  • 1mo - 18 years
  • 18-50 years
  • > 50
A
  • < 1 month: strep agalanctate
  • 1mo - 18 years: N. Meningitidis
  • 18-50 years: strep pneumo
  • > 50: strep pneumo
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46
Q

TX for of bacterial meningitis

  • < 1 month
  • 1mo - 18 years
  • 18-50 years
  • > 50
A
  • < 1 month: ampcillin + cefotiaxieme
  • 1mo - 18 years: Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
  • 18-50 years: Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
  • > 50: Ceftriaxone + ampcillin
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47
Q

lip smaking what type of seizure

A

complex partial

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48
Q

what are the three components of the GCS

A
  • eyes
  • verbal
  • motor
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49
Q

what type of DTR with HYPO thyroid

A

decreased DTR

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50
Q

what is cushing reflex 3

A
  • irregular respiration
  • HTN
  • Bradycardia
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51
Q 
SCI
- Motor: Loss Lower 
- pain, temo, light touch: Lower 
- bladder dysfunction
(what region)
A
  • anterior
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52
Q 
SCI
- Motor: Loss upper
- pain, temo, light touch: upper
- shawl distribution
(what region)
A
  • central
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53
Q

SCI
- Loss of vibratory sense only
(what region)

A
  • posterior
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54
Q

what side of the the brain is a stroke that is dominated by aphasia

A
  • left
55
Q

how to manage TIA 2 meds

A
  • asprin

- plavix

56
Q

if you think it is bacterial meningitis what should you do

A
  • start ABX
57
Q

How is crypotcoccius transmitted

A

pigeon / bat droppings

58
Q

Bird / Bat droppings
cave exploring
mississippi ohio

A

histoplasmosis

59
Q

crypotcoccius tx (2 + 1 )

A

(amphotericin B + flucytosine) 2X weeks

followed by oral Fluconazole

60
Q

what pathogen is associated with the india ink strain

A

cryptococcosis

61
Q

what ts the tx for tetanus

A
  • metronidazole + tetnus IG
62
Q

what is the most sn and specific for HSV -1 and HSV - 2 Dx

A

PCR

63
Q

what are the two aids illnesses at < 100

A
  • toxoplasmosis

- cryptococcius

64
Q

what are the two aids illnesses at < 50

A

MAC

CMV

65
Q

Screening Breast cancer

  • no history
  • history
A
  • 50-75 every 2 years
  • 40 every 2 years

(282)

66
Q

screening for CRC

  • age risk
  • 1st degree < 60
  • 1st degree > 60
A
  • age risk: 50 Q-10
  • 1st degree > 60: 40 Q 10
  • 1st degree < 60: 40 Q 5
67
Q

what is the triad for adult PCKD

A
  • flank pain
  • palpable mass
  • HTN
68
Q

what block has a progressively longer PR with drop beats

A

II-A

69
Q

bronchial carcinoid tumor tx 2

A

octreotide

resection

70
Q

what are the 4 types of pulmonary HTN

A
  1. idiopathic
  2. due to left heart disease
  3. due to COPD
  4. due to PE
71
Q

“thumb sign”

A

acute epiglottis

72
Q

barking cough

A

croup

73
Q

how do you tx ARDS

A

PEEP

74
Q

cornerstone of tx for bronchiectasis

A

bacrium

75
Q

what two abx are big for psudomonas coverage

A
  • Bactium

- cipro

76
Q

bronchial carcinoid tumor tx

A
  • surgical excision

- octriotide

77
Q

what breathing pattern is a resonse to hypercarnea

A

cheyne stokes

78
Q

what is the acronym for metabolic acidosis

A

MUDPILERS

79
Q

what test for scleroderma AB

A

anti centromere AB

80
Q

what fat pad is always abnormal

A

posterior

81
Q

how do you you tx scleroderma

A

DMARDS

82
Q

what is the test for a DVT manual

A

homans

83
Q

what is the test for achilles ruputre

A

thompson

84
Q

what are the 5 types of invasive infectious diarrhea

A
  • Campylobactor enteritis
  • shigella
  • salmonella
  • enterohemorragic ecoli E 0157H7
85
Q

how do you tx growth hormone producing tumors

A

octreotide

86
Q

endoscopy is AKA

A

EGD

87
Q

what is quad therapy for PUD

A
  • PPI
  • Bismuth subsalicyalate
  • tetracycline
  • metronightazole
88
Q

what is the only hereditary syndrome that increased direct Bili

A

Dubin Johnson

89
Q

what comes first Ig- G or Ig- M

A

IG- M

90
Q

what is the ROME criteria 4

A

dx for IBS 1 day a week for the past 3 months

  • related to defication
  • change in frequency
  • chnage is stool form
91
Q

how do you dx CUC

A

flex sig

92
Q

what is erythyma multiform

A

it’s a type IV hypersensitibvy skin reaction

93
Q

3 MC triggers for erythema multiformin

A
  • sulfonamides
  • penicillin
  • phenbarbital
94
Q

what are the two MC drugs to cause SJS

A
  • sulfa

- anticonvulsants

95
Q

target lesion

A

Erythema multiformin

96
Q

Erythema multiformin TX

A

steroids

97
Q

what are the DTR with HYPERcalcemia

A

decreased DTR

98
Q

what is the DTR with GBS

A

hypo

99
Q

DTR with Hyperthyroid

A

increased

100
Q 
what are 
- trousseau's 
- chvosteks 
- Increased DTR
associated with
A

HYPOcalcemia

101
Q

3 tx for HYPERcalcemia

A
  • Fluids
  • fursemide
  • bisphosphenates
102
Q

Flat T waves

U waved

A

HYPOkalemia

103
Q

peaked T waved

A

HYPERkalemia

104
Q

what are the 3 tx for HYPER-Kalemia

A
  • calcium gluconate (stabilized the membrane)
  • Insulin
  • albuterol
105
Q

test for adisons

A

ACTH stimulation test

106
Q

test for cushings

A

dexamenasone supression

107
Q

aldoderone is what type of corticoid

A

mineral

108
Q

what are the two subjective reports for prolactin tumor

A
  • amenorrhea

- galactorrhea

109
Q

prolactin tumor tx 2

A

carbogaline

bromocriptine

110
Q

what has mental status changes DKA or HUS

A

HUS

111
Q

3 DKA Tx

A
  • fluids
  • insulin
  • postassium
112
Q

what P is most affected with MEN

A

parathyroid

113
Q

Antistreptolysin O antibody tests what

A

Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis

114
Q

what is group A strep

A

strep pyogenys

115
Q

what type of kidney stone cannot be scene on KUB

A
  • uric acid

that is why the test of choice is a CT

116
Q

consists of maladaptive behavioral or emotional symptoms. These follow a stressful life event and occur within three months and end within six months.

A

adjustment disorder

117
Q

first step in tx HYPERkalemia

A

Calcium gluconate

- stabilize the membraine

118
Q

what meds do you want to avoid with WPW syndrome

A
  • Adenosine
  • Beta blocker
  • CCB
  • Dige
119
Q

how do you tell a functional rhythm

A

no P waves (16)

120
Q

how long betaeen nitro

A

5 min

121
Q

shayne stokes breathing associated with

A

CHF

122
Q

most useful test for CHF

A

Echo

123
Q

3 tests for CHF

A
  • echo
  • CXR
  • B NP
124
Q

what is the PCWP that is consistent with CHF

A

> 18

125
Q

what is a non infectious condition that can cause pericarditis

A

SLE

126
Q

what position is best to hear a pericardial friction rub

A

expiration leaning forward

127
Q

tx for dresslers 2

A
  • aspirin

- cholachasine

128
Q
  • muffled heart sounds
  • low voltage QRS
  • electrical alternans
A
  • pericardial effution
129
Q

what is pulses paridoxis

A

> 10mm hg systolic increase with inspiration

130
Q

what pathology requires an immedate pericardial centesis

A
  • tampanode
131
Q

opening snap

A

Mitral stenosis

132
Q

what are the 2 major criteria for endocarditis

A
  • echo

- clutures

133
Q

what is the major and minor break down

A

2 major
1 major 3 minor
5 minor

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