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Principles > Microbiology: Systemic Bacteriology > Flashcards

Microbiology: Systemic Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

how are micro-organisms classified

A
  • appearance
  • growth requirements
  • enzyme/metabolic tests
  • molecular tests
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2
Q

how are micro-organisms classified on their appearance

A

shape, size, structure, cell wall (gm-ve/+ve), arrangement

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3
Q

how are organisms classified on their growth requirements

A
  • aerobic/anaerobic
  • requirements for blood proteins
  • sensitivity to inhibitory agents
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4
Q

what enzyme/metabolic tests can be carried out on a micro-organism

A
  • coagulase test
  • haemolysis
  • catalase test
  • biochem profiling
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5
Q

what molecular tests can be carried out on a micro-organism

A
  • DNA sequencing
  • protein profiling
  • immunological tests
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6
Q

what microscopic identifications are used

A
  • staining (gm stains, Ziehl Neilson, fluorochromes)
  • structures
  • shape, group, sizing
  • pure culture or polymorph
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7
Q

what are the common shapes of bacterial structures and their names

A
  • cocci - spheres
  • bacilli - rods
  • spiral-shaped
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8
Q

what is the division plane of diplococcus

A

1 plane, 2 spheres

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9
Q

what is the division plane of sterptococcus

A

1 plane into chains

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10
Q

what is the division plane of staphylococcus

A

3 planes, clumps

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11
Q

what do bacillus duplicate into

A

chains

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12
Q

what are bacillus called

A

vibrio

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13
Q

are vibrio gm -ve or gm +ve

A

gm -ve

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14
Q

what are the two types of spiral shaped bacteria

A
  • spirillum, rigid

- spirochaete, flexible

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15
Q

what are spores resistant to

A

chemical and physical challenge

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16
Q

what are spores

A

condensed DNA encased in a shall with no active protein processes

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17
Q

describe how spores react to antibiotics

A

they dont

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18
Q

what colour stain does
- gm -ve
- gm +ve
bacteria go

A

+ve - purple

-ve - pink

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19
Q

what organisms dont stain well with gm stain

A

myobacterium TB and treponema pallidum

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20
Q 
what are the growth requirements of 
- aerobic
- obligate aerobes
- obligate anaerobes
- facultative anaerobes 
- capnophilic 
organisms
A
  • grow in O2
  • need O2
  • killed by O2
  • tolerate O2
  • prefer high CO2 levels
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21
Q

what is selective media

A

media that selects the growth of different bacteria with the presence of specific substances permitting the growth of one organism over another

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22
Q

what is differential media

A

media that has chemicals incorporated that produces visible changes in colonies that allow identification

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23
Q

describe the different types of haemolysis

A
  • alpha, partial - greening
  • beta, full - yellow
  • gamma, none
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24
Q

what is metabolic profiling

A

utilisation of carbon/amino acids

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25
Q

what does a coagulase test look for and what bacterium

A

clot plasma

- S. Aureus gm+ve

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26
Q

what does a catalse test for

A

the H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2

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27
Q

what bacterium does a lipid hydrolysis test look for

A

clostrida species

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28
Q

what reaction does a urease test look for

A

urea -> ammonia + CO2

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29
Q

what do serological tests look for

A

host immune response and antibodies (i.e. presence of a specific IgM ab)

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30
Q

what can serological tests detect

A
  • rapid virus detection

- specific bacteria serotypes

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31
Q

what types of DNA technology is available

A
  • PCR
  • ribosome 16S RNA
  • MLST
  • MALDITOF
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32
Q

what is MLST

A

multi-licus sequence typing - genome sequencing

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33
Q

what is MALDITOF

A

matrix-assoc. laser desorption ionisation time of flight - mass spec

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34
Q

what does MALDITOF do

A

detects spectrum of proteins from samples

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35
Q

what bacterium is MALDITOF bad for

A

staphylococci and streptococci

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36
Q

what microbio tests are available

A
  • pus swab
  • mucous sample
  • blood/urine/faeces culture
  • bloods
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37
Q

what are exogenous bacteria

A

not part of normal flora

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38
Q

describe the parasitic life cycle

A
  • pathogen enters host from reservoir of pathogens or by host via direct contact
  • the parasite the colonies and invades, evading host defences, it multiplies/completes its life cycle and exits host after causing damage
  • it then is spread going into reservoir or directly into host
39
Q

virulence

A

capacity of pathogen to cause damage

40
Q

pathogen

A

harmful organisms that causes pathology

41
Q

commensal/mutualism/symbiotic

A

endogenous organism thats part of normal flora, often mutualistic

42
Q

opportunistic pathogen

A

organism that causes infection when opportunity/change in natural immunity arises

43
Q

contaminant

A

organism accidentally grown in culture

44
Q

in what type of people do fungal infections occur

A

immunocompromised

45
Q

what type of diseases to protozoans cause

A

malaria, GI infections, toxoplasma

46
Q

what are the 2 types of pathogenic gm-ve diplococci

A
  • Neisseria meningitis

- Neisseria gonorrhoea

47
Q

what pathogenic bacteria are associated with the GI tract

A
  • salmonella
  • shigella
  • VTEC producing E.coli -0157, 0104
48
Q

what commensal bacteria are associated with the GI tract

A
  • most E. coli forms
  • klebsiellla
  • enterobacteria
  • proteus
49
Q

coliforms

A

gm-ve bacilli that look like E.coli on gm film and blood cultures

50
Q

in what sort of environment do coliforms best grow

A

aerobically but can grow anaerobically

51
Q

how are coliforms differentiated

A
  • biochem reactions
  • serotyping
  • O antigens
  • H antigen
52
Q

how can coliforms cause infection

A

by getting into naturally sterile site

53
Q

what antibiotic is 1st line for coliform infection

A

gentamicin

54
Q

how is coliform sepsis very bad

A

endotoxin is released from cell wall when the bacteria die

55
Q

how do endotoxins produce a response

A

bind to receptors on macrophages, B cells and others stimulating acute cytokine release

56
Q

describe an endotoxin membrane

A

gm -ve and assymetrical with LPS

57
Q

describe fever production

A
  • endotoxon antigen or LPS interacts with macrophages
  • cytokines released
  • cytokines travel to anterior hypothalmus
  • PGE released and body thermal set point increased
  • body initiates cold response
  • fever
  • increased infection survival
58
Q

what do cytokines stimulate, other than fever, in hypothlmus

A

adverse effects of sepsis

59
Q

how can harm arise from a fever

A

febrile convulsions in children

60
Q

what is sepsis

A

host response to severe infection

61
Q

describe the mechanism behind sepsis

A
  • leaky blood vessels allow fluid to be lose to tissues
  • HR increased due to decreased blood vol to
  • poor tissue perfusion results in blood supply to less vital organs shutting down to maintain brain blood supply
  • clotting cascade activated causing clots in tiny blood vessels
62
Q

how can sepsis increase haemorrhage risk

A

clotting factors are used up therefore less can be usedin caseof haemorrhage

63
Q

4 gm +ve pathogens

A
  • streptococci
  • staphylococcus
  • enterococcus
  • clostridia
64
Q

what type of bacteria are differentiated using haemolysis

A

sterpotococci

65
Q 
describe 
- alpha 
- beta 
- gamma
haemolysis
A
  • partial haemolysis, greenish discolouration, Hb in RBCs denatures
  • complete haemolysis, yellow, complete lysis of Hb in RBCs
  • none
66
Q

what type of streptococci (in terms of haemolysis) is the most pathogenic

A

beta

67
Q

GAS

A

group A streptococci

68
Q

what type of haemolysis do GAS undergo

A

beta

69
Q

infections associated with GAS

A
  • strep pyrogens
  • strep sore throat (scarlet fever)
  • invasive disease - necrotising fascitis
  • peurperal sepsis
70
Q

describe strep pneumoniaes differentiating features

A
  • gm +ve
  • alpha haemolytic
  • short chains or pairs
71
Q

what bacteria is the most common cause of pneumonia and what else can this bacteria cause

A
  • streptococcal pneumoniae

- severe meningitis

72
Q

what group of non-haemolytci streptococci are the most important

A

enterococci

73
Q

what is the most common cause of UTIs

A

non-haemolytic streptococci

74
Q

what are VREs and where do they break out

A
  • vancomycin-resistant enterococci

- outbreaks in hospitals

75
Q

are non-haemolytci streptococci part of normal bowel flora or nah

A

yes

76
Q

two types of staphylococci

A
  • S. Aureus

- S. Epidermis

77
Q

describe staphylococcis differentiating features

A

gm+ve irregular clusters, non-motic, +ve catalse, -ve oxidase, coagulase can be either, aerobe and faculative anaerobe, 15% NaCl

78
Q

where does S. aureus usually stay

where does it break out

A
  • anterior nares and perineum

- nosocomial and community

79
Q

where does S. epidermis usually stay

where does it break out

A
  • skin and mucosal membranes

- nosocomial and immunocompromised

80
Q

where and who does MRSA infect

A
  • nosomical in ICU - IV lines

- immunocompromised, elderly, burns, dialysis and surgical patients

81
Q

what are S. epidermis infections associated with

A

foreign bodies

82
Q

what is the most common skin, soft tissue, wound, bone and joint infection

A

S. Aureus

83
Q

what type of S. aureus causes food poisoning

A

enterotoxin producing strains

84
Q

how does S. aureus cause

  • local inflam
  • bacteremia
  • sepsis
A
  • multiplies at sites of acquisition
  • once its in bloodstream
  • disseminates to distant sites in the body
85
Q

where does S. aureus cause abscesses

A

spleen, liver, kidney

86
Q

describe clostriodes differentaiting features

A
  • gm +ve, anaerobic bacilli
  • normal flora
  • spore producing
87
Q

clostriodes produce spores meaning what

A

they can survive outsidethe body for months

88
Q

what type of clostriodes produce enterotoxins

A
  • C. difficile
  • C. perfringens
  • C. tetani
89
Q

what infection is C. difficile associated with

A

antibiotic associated diarrhoea in the elderly

90
Q

what infection is C. perfringens associated with

A

gangrene

91
Q

what infection is C. tetani associated with

A

tetanus

92
Q

what can enterotoxin producing clostriodes cause

A

severe tissue damage

93
Q

what causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

C. difficule

94
Q

what is the link of C. difficile to antibiotic therapy

A

proliferates in absence of normal bowel flora

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