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medical terminology > Chapter 11: Special Senses > Flashcards

Chapter 11: Special Senses Flashcards

1
Q

OD

A

right eye(oculus dexter)

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2
Q

OS

A

left eye(oculus sinister)

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3
Q

OU

A

each eye(oculus uterque) or both eyes(oculi uterque)

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4
Q

joint commission

A

largest American standards setting accrediting body in health care, recommends writing out out these terms instead of using abbreviations

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5
Q

adnexa of the eyes

A

known as adnexa oculi, structures outside the eyeball., such as the orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

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6
Q

adnexa

A

the accessory or adjoining anatomical parts of an organ

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7
Q

orbit

A

known as eye socket, is the bony cavity skull that contains and protects the eyeball and its associated muscles, blood vessels, and nerves

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8
Q

6 major eye muscles

A
  • superior and inferior oblique muscles
  • superior and inferior rectus muscles
  • lateral and medial rectus muscles
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9
Q

binocular vision

A

occurs when the muscles of both eyes work together in coordination to make normal depth perception possible

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10
Q

upper&lower eyelids, eyebrows and eyelashes

A

help protect the eyeball from foreign matter, excessive light, and injuries due to other causes

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11
Q

canthus

A

is the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet

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12
Q

cilia

A

are small hairs, make up the eyebrows and eyelashes, also in nose to prevent foreign matter from being inhaled

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13
Q

tarsus

A

known as tarsal plate, the framework within the upper and lower eyelids the provides the necessary stiffness and shape

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14
Q

conjunctiva

A

is the transparent mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid and continues to form a protective covering the exposed surface of eyeball

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15
Q

lacrimal apparatus

A

known as the tear apparatus, consists of the structures that produce, store, and remove tears

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16
Q

lacrimal glands

A

secrete lacrimal fluid (tears), are located on the underside of the upper eyelid just above the outer corner of each eye

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17
Q

lacrimal fluid

A

known as tears, to maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball, blinking distributes this

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18
Q

lacrimal canal

A

consists of a duct at the inner corner of each eye. these ducts collect tears and empty them into the lacrimal sacs

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19
Q

lacrimal sac

A

known as tear sac, an enlargement of the upper portion of the lacrimal duct

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20
Q

lacrimal duct

A

known as nasolacrimal duct, is the passageway that drains excess tears into the nose

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21
Q

eyeball

A

known as globe, is a 1-inch sphere with only about one-sixth of its surface visible

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22
Q

optic

A

means pertaining to the eye or sight

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23
Q

ocular

A

means pertaining to the eye

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24
Q

extraocular

A

means outside the eyeball

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25
Q

intraocular

A

means within the eyeball

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26
Q

sclera

A

known as white of the eye, maintains the shape of the eye and protects the delicate inner layers of tissue

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27
Q

choroid

A

known as choroid coat, is the opaque middle layer the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye

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28
Q

scler/o

A

means the white of the eye, and it also means hard

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29
Q

retina

A

is the sensitive innermost layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye, receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via optic nerve

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30
Q

aqueous humor

A

known as aqueous fluid, fills both of these chambers.

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31
Q

aqueous

A

watery or containing water

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32
Q

humor

A

describes any clear body liquid or semifluid substance

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33
Q

intraocular pressure

A

measurement of the fluid pressure inside the eye, regulated by the rate at which aqueous humor enters and leaves the eye

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34
Q

posterior segment

A

makes up the remaining two-thirds of the eyeball, is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor

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35
Q

vitreous humor

A

known as vitreous gel, this is a soft, clear, jelly-like mass that contains millions of fine fibers

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36
Q

rods, cones

A

of the retina images that have passed through the lens of the eye.

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37
Q

macula

A

known as macula lutea, is the clearly defined light-sensitive area in the center of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision

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38
Q

fovea centralis

A

is a pit in the middle of the macula, color vision is best in this area due to it containing high concentration of cones and no rods

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39
Q

optic disk

A

known as blind spot, a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve

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40
Q

optic nerve

A

transmits these nerve impulses from the retina to the brain

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41
Q

uvea

A

the pigmented layer of the eye, has a rich blood supply and consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris

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42
Q

ciliary body

A

located within the choroid, set of muscles and suspensory ligaments that adjust the thickness of the lens to refine the focus of light rays on the retina

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43
Q

iris

A

the colorful circular structure that surrounds the pupil, controls the amount of light that is allowed to enter

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44
Q

dilate

A

making the opening of the pupil larger

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45
Q

cornea

A

the transparent outer surface of the eye covering the iris and pupil, primary structure focusing light rays entering the eye

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46
Q

pupil

A

the black circular opening in the center of the iris that permits light to enter the eye

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47
Q

lens

A

the clear, flexible, curved structure that focuses images on the retina, contained within a clear capsule located behind the iris and pupil

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48
Q

accommodation

A

the process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances

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49
Q

convergence

A

the stimulation inward movement of the eyes toward each other

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50
Q

emmetropia

A

normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

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51
Q

refraction

A

the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

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52
Q

visual acuity

A

the ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance

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53
Q

ophthalmologist

A

a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of disease and disorders of the eyes , from visions correction to eye surgery

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54
Q

optometrist

A

holds a doctor of optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions and measuring the accuracy of vision

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55
Q

optician

A

health care practitioner who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction

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56
Q

ptosis

A

the drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis, blepharoptosis means the same

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57
Q

chalazion

A

a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland

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58
Q

hordeolum

A

known as stye, a pus-filled and often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an acute infection in a sebaceous gland

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59
Q

blepharitis

A

swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles

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60
Q

ectropion

A

the eversion of the edge of an eyelid

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61
Q

entropion

A

is the inversion of the edge of an eyelid

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62
Q

periorbital edema

A

is swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes, bloated face and swollen eyelids

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63
Q

conjunctivitis

A

pinkeye, inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually caused by an infection or allergy

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64
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

an inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infection

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65
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

is bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera, cause by injury and creates a red area over the white of the eye

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66
Q

xerophthalmia

A

known as dry eye, drying of eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva, due to tear glands do not produce enough tears

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67
Q

uveitis

A

inflammation of the urea causing swelling and irritation, can potentially lead to permanent vision loss

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68
Q

iritis

A

most common of uveitis, affects primarily structures in the front of the eye, sudden onset may last 6 to 8 weeks

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69
Q

corneal abrasion

A

injury, such as scratch or irritation to outer layers of the cornea

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70
Q

corneal ulcer

A

a pitting of the cornea caused by an infection or injury, they can leave a cloudy scar that impairs vision after treatment

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71
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

damage to the retina as a complication fo uncontrolled diabetes

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72
Q

keratitis

A

inflammation of the cornea

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73
Q

keratoconus

A

occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision

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74
Q

anisocoria

A

is a condition in which the pupils are unequal in size

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75
Q

cataract

A

the loss of transparency of the lens that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity, usually with aging

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76
Q

floaters

A

known as vitreous floaters, are particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina

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77
Q

photopsia

A

the presence fo what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers

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78
Q

miosis

A

the contraction of the pupil, normally in response to exposure to light but also possibly due to the use of prescription or illegal drugs

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79
Q

mydriasis

A

the dilation of the pupil, opposite of miosis..

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80
Q

nystagmus

A

an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by neurological injury or drug use

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81
Q

papilledema

A

known as choked disk, swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk, can be due to tumor pressing optic nerve

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82
Q

retinal detachment

A

detached retina, and retinal tears are the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid

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83
Q

retinitis pigmentosa

A

is a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision, dark spots in retina

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84
Q

temporal arteritis

A

a form of vasculitis that can cause a sudden vision loss, usually in one eye

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85
Q

glaucoma

A

a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the retinal nerve fibers and the optic nerve

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86
Q

open-angle glaucoma

A

known as chronic glaucoma, trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure.

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87
Q

closed-angle glaucoma

A

known as acute glaucoma, opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork

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88
Q

macular degeneration

A

is a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness

89
Q

diplopia

A

known as double vision, the perception of two images of a single object

90
Q

hemianopia

A

is blindness in one-half of the visual field

91
Q

monochromatism

A

known as color blindness, the inability to distinguish certain colors in a normal manner

92
Q

nyctalopia

A

known as night blindness, a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night

93
Q

photophobia

A

means excessive sensitivity to light and can be result of migraines, excessive wearing of contact lenses, drug use, or inflammation

94
Q

presbyopia

A

the condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with aging

95
Q

strabismus

A

a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly, because the eye muscles are unable to focus together

96
Q

esotropia

A

known as cross-eyes, strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one or both eyes

97
Q

exotropia

A

known as walleye, strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye

98
Q

refractive disorder

A

a focusing problem that occurs when the lens and cornea do not bend light so that it focuses properly on the retina

99
Q

ametropia

A

any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina

100
Q

astigmatism

A

a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

101
Q

hyperopia

A

known as farsightedness, a defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina

102
Q

myopia

A

known as nearsightedness, a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina

103
Q

amblyopia

A

a dimness of vision or partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

104
Q

scotoma

A

known as blind spot, is an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision

105
Q

snellen chart(SC)

A

is used to measure visual acuity

106
Q

refraction test

A

done to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed

107
Q

diopter

A

is the unit of measurement of a lens’s refractive power

108
Q

cover test

A

an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision

109
Q

visual field testing

A

known as perimetry, performed to determine losses in peripheral vision

110
Q

ophthalmoscopy

A

known as funduscopy, is the use of ophthalmoscope to visually examine the fundus(back part) of eye

111
Q

dilation

A

of the eyes is required preparation for the ophthalmoscopic examination of interior of the eye

112
Q

mydriatic drops

A

are placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing pupils to remain dilated even in bright light

113
Q

slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy

A

a diagnostic procedure which a narrow beam of light is focused on parts of the eye, examine the structures at the front of the eye, cornea, iris, and lens

114
Q

fluorescein staining

A

the application of fluorescent dye tot he surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator, appear temp bright green

115
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye as a contrast medium

116
Q

PERRLA

A

is an acronym meaning Pupils are Equal, Round, Responsive to Light and Accommodation, any abnormality could indicate head injury or damage to brain

117
Q

tonometry

A

measurement of the intraocular pressure

118
Q

orbitotomy

A

surgical incision into the orbit, performed for biopsy, abscess drainage, or removal of a tumor or foreign object

119
Q

tarsorrhaphy

A

the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when lids are paralyzed and unable to close

120
Q

corneal transplant

A

known as keratoplasty, surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor

121
Q

enucleation

A

the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact

122
Q

ocular prosthesis

A

known as artificial eye, may be fitted to wear over eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed

123
Q

iridectomy

A

surgical removal of a portion of the tissue of the iris, to treat closed-angle glaucoma

124
Q

radial keratotomy

A

surgical procedure to treat myopia

125
Q

vitrectomy

A

removal of the vitreous humor and its replacement with a clear solution

126
Q

lensectomy

A

the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens

127
Q

phacoemulsification

A

the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract

128
Q

intaocular lens(IOL)

A

surgically implanted replacement for a natural lens that has been removed

129
Q

laser iridotomy

A

uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye

130
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

used to treat open-angle glaucoma by creating openings in the trabecular meshwork to allow the fluid to drain properly

131
Q

LASIK

A

the acronym for Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratopmileusis, LASIK is used to treat vision conditions, such as myopia, are caused by shape of the cornea

132
Q

photocoagulation

A

is the use of a laser to treat some forms of wet macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels

133
Q

retinopexy

A

used to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment

134
Q

auditory

A

pertaining to the sense of hearing

135
Q

acoustic

A

pertaining to sound or hearing

136
Q

pinna

A

known as auricle or outer ear, external portion of the ear

137
Q

external auditory canal

A

transmits these sound waves to the tympanic membrane(eardrum) of the middle ear

138
Q

cerumen

A

known as earwax, secreted by ceruminous glands that line auditory canal, sticky yellow-brown substance to prevent debris entering

139
Q

middle ear

A

located between outer and inner ear, transmits sound across the space between these two parts

140
Q

tympanic membrane

A

known as eardrum, between outer and middle ear, transmits sound by vibrating

141
Q

mastoid process

A

the temporal bone containing hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear

142
Q

auditory ossicles

A

three small bones located within the middle ear, transmit sound waves from eardrum to inner ear by vibration

143
Q

eustachian tubes

A

known as auditory tubes, narrows tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat, to equalize the air pressure within the middle ear

144
Q

inner ear

A

contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance,

145
Q

labyrinth

A

structures of the inner ear are a maze-like system

146
Q

oval window

A

located under the base of the stapes, is the membrane that separates the middle from the inner ear, vibrations enter through this

147
Q

cochlea

A

snail-shaped structure of the inner ear and is where sound vibrations are converted into nerves impulses

148
Q

organ of corti

A

receives the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers

149
Q

semicircular canals

A

connects to cochlea by the vestibule, contain the liquid endolymph and sensitive hair cells

150
Q

acoustic nerves

A

called auditory nerves, transmit this information to the brain, 2 parts…cochlear nerves that transmit sound for hearing, and vestibular that sense balance and head position

151
Q

air conduction

A

process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and travel down external auditory canal until strike the tympanic membrane

152
Q

bone conduction

A

occurs as eardrum vibrated and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate

153
Q

sensorineural conduction

A

occurs when these sound vibrations reach the inner ear

154
Q

audiologist

A

specializes in measurement of hearing function in the rehabilitation of persons with hearing impairments

155
Q

speech-language pathologist(SLP)

A

can be involved in numerous medical areas including audiology, problems relating to swallowing, speech, communication disorders

156
Q

impacted cerumen

A

an accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal

157
Q

otalgia

A

known as earache, is pain in the ear

158
Q

otitis

A

inflammation of the ear

159
Q

otomycosis

A

is a fungal infection of the external auditory canal

160
Q

otopyorrhea

A

is the flow of pus from the ear

161
Q

otorrhea

A

is any discharge from the ear

162
Q

otorrhagia

A

is bleeding from he ear

163
Q

barotrauma

A

is a pressure-related ear condition,

164
Q

cholesteatoma

A

known as pearly tumor, is destructive epidermal cyst in middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol

165
Q

mastoiditis

A

inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone

166
Q

infectious myringitis

A

a contagious inflammation that causes painful blisters on the eardrum

167
Q

otitis media

A

inflammation of the middle ear

168
Q

acute otitis media

A

associated with an upper respiratory infection, most commonly seen in young children

169
Q

serous otitis media

A

fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection

170
Q

otosclerosis

A

the ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss

171
Q

labyrinthitis

A

inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness

172
Q

vertigo

A

a sense of whirling, dizziness, and loss of balance that is often combined with nausea and vomiting

173
Q

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

a common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is shift in location of small crystals in the semicircular canals

174
Q

meniere’s disease

A

rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss

175
Q

tinnitus

A

condition of a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

176
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear

177
Q

deafness

A

complete or partial loss of the ability to hear

178
Q

presbycusis

A

a gradual loss of sensorineural hearing that occurs as the body ages

179
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear

180
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

known as nerve deafness, develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged

181
Q

noise-induced hearing loss(NIHL)

A

a type of nerve deafness caused by repeated extremely loud noises that continue for a long period of time

182
Q

decibel

A

commonly used as measurement of the loudness of sound

183
Q

audiological evaluation

A

known as audiometry, measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness

184
Q

audiometry

A

use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity

185
Q

audiogram

A

resulting graph that represents the ability to hear a variety of sounds at various loudness levels

186
Q

audiometer

A

an electronic device that produces acoustic stimuli of a set frequency and intensity

187
Q

hertz

A

a measure of sound frequency that determines how high or low a pitch is

188
Q

otoscope

A

an instrument used to examine the external ear canal

189
Q

pneumatic otoscope

A

has attachment of a bulb filled with air

190
Q

monaural testing

A

involves one ear

191
Q

binaural testing

A

involves both ears

192
Q

tympanometry

A

use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear

193
Q

acoustic reflectometry

A

measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, way to test how much fluid is in middle ear to diagnose otitis media

194
Q

Weber and Rinne test

A

use a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses

195
Q

otoplasty

A

surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear; “ear pinning” is cosmetic surgery to bring protruding ears closer to the head

196
Q

ear tubes

A

known as tympanostomy tubes, are tiny ventilating tubes places through eardrum to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure that can build up after childhood ear infections

197
Q

mastoidectomy

A

surgical removal of mastoid cells

198
Q

myringotomy

A

small incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid

199
Q

stapedectomy

A

surgical removal of the top portion of the stapes bone and the insertion of a small prosthetic device known as a piston that conducts sound vibrations to the inner ear

200
Q

tympanoplasty

A

surgical correction of damaged middle ear, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function

201
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth, to relieve uncontrolled vertigo

202
Q

vestibular rehabilitation therapy(VRT)

A

a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders

203
Q

assistive listening device(ALD)

A

transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid

204
Q

cochlear implant

A

an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

205
Q

fenestration

A

surgical procedure in which a new opening is created in the labyrinth to restore lost hearing

206
Q

hearing aids

A

electronic device are worn to correct a hearing loss

207
Q

analog hearing aid

A

external electronic device that uses a microphone to detect and amplify

208
Q

digital hearing aid

A

uses a computer chip to convert the incoming sound into a code that can be filtered before bring amplified

209
Q

lens

A

phac/o , phak/o

210
Q

lacrimal apparatus

A

dacryocyst/o , lacrim/o

211
Q

outer ear

A

pinn/i

212
Q

middle ear

A

myring/o , tympan/o

213
Q

inner ear

A

labyrinth/o

214
Q

trop/o

A

turn, change

215
Q

presby/o

A

old age

216
Q

scler/o

A

sclera, white of eye, hard

217
Q

kerat/o

A

horny, hard, cornea

218
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

219
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

medical terminology (12 decks)

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