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Anatomy and Physiology > Skeletal System > Flashcards

Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

list the 5 functions of the skeletal system

A
  1. protection
  2. support
  3. locomotion
  4. mineral storage (Ca and P)
  5. blood cell formation (in bone marrow)
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2
Q

what are the two subsections of the skeleton?

A
  1. axial skeleton

2. appendicular skeleton

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3
Q

what does the axial skeleton contain?

A

all bones along or attached to the median plane, including the skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum

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4
Q

what does the appendicular skeleton contain?

A

bones of the limbs

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5
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do all mammals have?

A

7

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6
Q

how many cervical vertebrae do birds have? are they all separate?

A

14, but they’re all fused together

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7
Q

why do birds have a larger sternum?

A

to support breast muscles

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8
Q

list and describe the 5 bone shapes

A
  1. long bones: longer than they are wide, found in limbs
  2. short bones: more cube-shaped, found in carpus and tarsus
  3. flat bones: flatter than other bones, found in skull, sternum, ribs, scapula
  4. irregular bones: don’t fit with other classifications, usually unpaired, ex. vertebrae
  5. sesamoid bones: resemble sesame seeds, found in the patella and digits
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9
Q

describe pneumatic bones

A

contain air spaces called sinuses, lighter than others, avian skeleton has more than mammalian because flight

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10
Q

list and describe the 5 types of vertebrae

A
  1. cervical: most cranial, all mammals have 7
  2. thoracic: attached to/joined with ribs
  3. lumbar: lower back
  4. sacral: joined with pelvis, fused together
  5. caudal: most caudal, make up the tail
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11
Q

list the 8 basic vertebrae structures

A
  1. vertebral body
  2. spinous process
  3. pair of transverse processes
  4. pair of lamina
  5. pedicle
  6. pair of articular processes
  7. vertebral foramen
  8. transverse foramen
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12
Q

describe the location of the vertebral body

A

on the ventral side of the vertebrae, contains intervertebral disk

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13
Q

describe the spinous process

A

projects dorsally off vertebrae

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14
Q

where do the transverse processes project?

A

laterally off the vertebrae

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15
Q

what do the paired lamina do?

A

connect spinous process to transverse processes

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16
Q

what does the pedicle connect?

A

transverse processes to the vertebral body

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17
Q

describe the location of the paired articular processes

A

sit on the pedicle, where one vertebrae joins with the next

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18
Q

describe what the vertebral foremen contains

A

site of the spinal cord

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19
Q

describe the transverse foramen

A

holes in pedicle of cervical vertebrae, where blood vessels and nerves run through neck

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20
Q

where are transverse foramen found?

A

ONLY in cervical vertebrae!!

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21
Q

list the 3 types if bone cells

A
  1. osteoblasts
  2. osteoclasts
  3. osteocytes
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22
Q

give the function of osteoblasts

A

ossification, secrete hydroxyapatite, the mineral component of bone that makes bone hard

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23
Q

what is ossification?

A

formation of bone by osteoblasts

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24
Q

where are osteoblasts found?

A

found on the outside/lining bone surfaces so they can secrete bone on top of existing bone

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25
Q

describe osteocytes

A

mature bone cells, form when osteoblasts are surrounded by bone and become osteocyctes

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26
Q

describe the function of osteoclasts

A

resorption (breakdown of bone)

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27
Q

give the 6 structures specific to long bones

A

1, epiphysis

  1. diaphysis
  2. metaphysis
  3. epiphyseal plate
  4. epiphyseal line
  5. medullary cavity
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28
Q

describe the epiphysis

A

either end of a long bone (proximal epiphysis on top, distal epiphysis on bottom)

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29
Q

describe the diaphysis

A

the long shaft of a long bone

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30
Q

describe the metaphysis

A

connects epiphysis to diaphysis (proximal and distal end)

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31
Q

describe the epiphyseal plate and give the location

A

found in the meatphysis, is a layer of hyaline cartilage where growth of long bone occurs

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32
Q

describe the epiphyseal line

A

replaces epiphyseal plate when growth ceases, made up of compact bone

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33
Q

describe the medullary cavity

A

in center of diaphysis, does not contain bone, but bone marrow, and is hollow

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34
Q

describe red bone marrow

A

found in young animals, blood cell formation site

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35
Q

describe yellow bone marrow

A

found in adults, made of adipose (fat) tissue

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36
Q

list 3 structures found in all bones

A
  1. articular cartilage
  2. periosteum
  3. endosteum
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37
Q

describe articular cartilage

A

thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers surfaces of a bone within a joint

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38
Q

describe the periosteum

A

covers the rest of the bone, 2 layers

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39
Q

list and describe the 2 layers of the periosteum

A
  1. superficial/outermost layer: dense irregular connective tissue, provides protection
  2. deep/inner layer: single layer of osteoblasts
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40
Q

describe the endosteum

A

lines internal surfaces of bone, thin layer of osteoblasts AND osteoclasts

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41
Q

list the 2 classifications when bone is classified by amount of extracellular matrix to amount of space

A
  1. spongy (cancellous) bone

2. compact bone

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42
Q

describe spongy bone

A

more space is found around matrix, made up of trabeculae, spaces between trabeculae contain red bone marrow and blood vessels, even as animal ages

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43
Q

what are trabeculae?

A

interconnecting rods of bone

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44
Q

describe compact bone

A

less space is found around matrix, more dense, found on the outside and is tougher, arranged in osteons

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45
Q

what are osteons?

A

the basic unit of compact bone, also called Haversian systems

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46
Q

list the 5 structures in osteons

A
  1. central canals
  2. lamellae
  3. lacunae
  4. canaliculi
  5. perforating canals
47
Q

describe the central canals of osteons

A

contains blood vessels and nerves

48
Q

describe the lamellae of osteons

A

circular plates of bone that surround the central canal

49
Q

describe the lacunae of osteons

A

structures within the lamellae that house osteocytes

50
Q

describe the canaliculi of osteons

A

tiny canals that connect lacunae

51
Q

describe the perforating canals of osteons

A

connect central canals

52
Q

what is calcification?

A

the deposition of calcium salts in any tissue other than bone

53
Q

what is a functional result of calcification?

A

the os penis

54
Q

what are centers of ossification?

A

location where ossification begins after calcification

55
Q

what is intramembranous ossification?

A

occurs in a primitive connective tissue membrane (embryonic growth), how most flat bones are formed

56
Q

what is endochondral ossification?

A

occurs in a hyaline cartilage model, which is already in the shape of the bone and gets replaced through the process; formation of limbs, as the connective tissue is now specialized and happens during fetal development

57
Q

list the 5 zones in growth in length of a long bone in order

A
  1. resting zone
  2. zone of proliferation
  3. zone of hypertrophy
  4. zone of calcification
  5. zone of ossification
58
Q

where is the resting zone located and what happens there?

A

at the epiphyseal plate, closest to the epiphysis; chondrocytes are at rest here

59
Q

what happens in the zone of proliferation (2nd zone in long bone length growth)?

A

chondrocytes begin to divide rapidly, dividing chondrocytes form columns

60
Q

what happens in the zone of hypertrophy (3rd zone in long bone length growth)?

A

chondrocytes enlarge

61
Q

what happens in the zone of calacification (4th zone in long bone length growth)?

A

chondrocytes absorb bone matrix and die; blood vessels from diaphysis enter lacunae leftover from dead chondrocytes; osteoblasts differentiate from blood vessels

62
Q

what happens in the zone of ossification (5th zone in long bone length growth)?

A

osteoblasts secrete bone; epiphysis has been pushed away from diaphysis to add length; happens on both ends of long bones

63
Q

what 3 things affect the rate of bone growth?

A
  1. nutrition
  2. growth hormone
  3. sex hormones
64
Q

how does nutrition affect bone growth?

A

malnutrition inhibits growth as cells don’t get enough nutrients to divide and grow

65
Q

how does a calcium, phosphorus, or vitamin D deficiency affect bone growth?

A

osteoblasts can’t form hydroxyapatite, meaning they can’t form bone

66
Q

what does a vitamin C deficiency impair?

A

Collagen synthesis

67
Q

how does growth hormone affect rate of growth?

A

acts on liver to cause secretion of insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

68
Q

what does IGF (insulin-like growth factor) do for rate of growth?

A

acts on chondrocytes to cause proliferation

69
Q

how do sex hormone affect rate of growth? (2 ways)

A

testosterone and estrogen stimulate the secretion of growth hormone, resulting in a growth spurt during puberty, and they also stimulate the closure of the epiphyseal plate to cease growth

70
Q

list the 7 steps of intramembranous ossification

A
  1. cells within a connective tissue membrane differentiate into osteoblasts
  2. osteoblasts begin to secrete bone and calcify surrounding tissue
  3. a center of ossification forms
  4. osteoblasts secrete bone around collagen fibers in connective tissue membrane, forming tiny trabeculae
  5. osteoblasts line the tiny trabeculae and secrete bone to thicken the trabeculae, forming true trabeculae
  6. spaces between trabeculae develop into red bone marrow
  7. periosteum forms and osteoblasts in the periosteum secrete compact bone around trabeculae
71
Q

where does endochondral ossification take place?

A

in a hyaline cartilage model

72
Q

list the 10 steps of endochondral ossification

A
  1. hyaline cartilage model forms
  2. cells on outside of model differentiate into osteoblasts and secrete bone along outside of cartilage model
  3. cells inside the model absorb bone matrix, become calcified, and die
  4. blood vessels enter cartilage model through lacunae left behind by dead cells
  5. osteoblasts will differentiate inside cartilage, start to secrete bone, and form a primary center of ossification
  6. osteoblasts continue to replace cartilage with bone
  7. osteoclasts form and break down bone to form medullary cavity
  8. red bone marrow develops in medullary cavity
  9. cartilage in epiphysis of model begins to absorb bone and secondary centers of ossification form
  10. osteoblasts continue to secrete bone until all cartilage has been replaced with bone
73
Q

what 2 hormones regulate blood calcium homeostasis?

A

calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH)

74
Q

what causes the thyroid to secrete calcitonin?

A

high blood calcium levels

75
Q

what does calcitonin do and how?

A

lowers blood calcium levels by targeting osteoclasts to reduce activity/resorption

76
Q

what causes the parathyroid to release PTH?

A

low blood calcium levels

77
Q

what does PTH do and how?

A

raises blood calcium levels by targeting osteoclasts to increase activity/resorption

78
Q

what is hyperparathyroidism?

A

oversecretion of PTH, causes increased bone resorption leading to weakened bones

79
Q

what is hypoparathyroidism?

A

undersecretion of PTH, leads to muscle cramping and twitching (tetany), major muscle contraction issues

80
Q

list the 3 aspects of bone mechanics

A
  1. bone is not elastic
  2. bone is subjected to stresses
  3. bone is dynamic
81
Q

what is the major reason for breaks and permanent bone stretching (of bone dynamics)?

A

bone is not elastic

82
Q

list and describe the 4 types of stresses that bones are subjected to?

A
  1. compression: press together
  2. shearing: rub together
  3. bending: pressure
  4. torsion: pivoting
83
Q

what is the implication of the fact that bone is dynamic?

A

it can repair and rebuild, the reason for normal bone healing

84
Q

describe a simple fracture

A

skin over fracture is intact

85
Q

describe an open fracture

A

skin over fracture is damaged and exposing fractured bone

86
Q

describe a displaced fracture

A

broken ends of bone are out of alignment

87
Q

describe a nondisplaced fracture

A

broken ends of bone remain in alignment

88
Q

describe a complete fracture

A

bone is broken across entire length/width

89
Q

describe an incomplete fracture

A

bone is not broken across entire length/width

90
Q

describe a transverse fracture

A

bone broken perpendicular to axis

91
Q

describe an oblique fracture

A

bone not broke perpendicular to axis

92
Q

describe a spiral fracture

A

bone has twisted apart due to torsion stresses

93
Q

describe a comminuted fracture

A

bone has splintered or been crushed into small fragments

communes have many parts

94
Q

describe a segmental fracture

A

fracture in more than one part of the bone (segments)

95
Q

describe an avulsed fracture

A

fragment is separated from rest of bone, common at ends of long bones

96
Q

describe an impacted fracture

A

bone fragments are driven together due to compression stresses

97
Q

describe a torus/buckle fracture

A

break in spongy bone causes bulging from inflammation

98
Q

describe a greenstick fracture

A

bone is broke on one side and other side is only bent

99
Q

what do torus and greenstick fractures have in common?

A

they are incomplete fractures, commonly found in young animals

100
Q

list the 4 phases of normal bone healing

A
  1. hematoma formation
  2. callus formation
  3. callus ossification
  4. bone remodeling
101
Q

describe the hematoma formation step of normal bone healing

A

hematoma forms due to broken blood vessels, and blood accumulates around broke ends of bone, blood clots around bone

102
Q

describe the callus formation step of normal bone healing

A

chondroblasts secrete cartilage (inner callus) and osteoblasts secrete bone (outer callus) around outside of break and between broken ends of bone, the cartilage/bone mixture forms a callus to hold broken ends of bone in place

103
Q

does the callus form if a bone isn’t in alignment? what does this mean?

A

yes, it forms whether the bone is in alignment or not, which is why we have to reset bones sometimes

104
Q

describe the callus ossification step of normal bone healing

A

callus gets replaced with bone, similar to endochondral ossification

105
Q

describe the bone remodeling step of normal bone healing

A

osteoblasts and osteoclasts secrete and breakdown bone to return it to its normal shape

106
Q

how long does bone remodeling take and what factors affect it?

A

can take up to a year, and bone will still be slightly larger at break site, depends on blood supply, age, and damage to surrounding tissue

107
Q

what is osteodistrophy?

A

any abnormality in bone development

108
Q

give an example of osteodistrophy?

A

rickets (young animals)/osteomalacia (adults)

109
Q

describe rickets/osteomalacia

A

inadequate mineralization of bone leads to softer bones, causing bow leggedness

110
Q

what two things causes rickets/osteomalacia and which one is preventable?

A

hyperparathyroidism (nonpreventable) or a deficiency in vitamin D, P, or Ca (preventable)

111
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

porous bone, or loss of bone mass itself, causes brittle bones

112
Q

what causes achondroplasia?

A

fusion of epiphyseal plates early in development means bone doesn’t continue to grow in height, only in width, leading to short stubby legs

113
Q

what animals are bred for achondroplasia?

A

dachsunds, mini cattle, mini cats

Anatomy and Physiology (18 decks)

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