Blood Flashcards

1
Q

list the 9 functions of blood

A
  1. distribution of nutrients
  2. oxygen transport
  3. CO2 transport
  4. transport of waste products
  5. hormone transport
  6. body temperature control
  7. maintain pH of body fluids
  8. blood loss prevention
  9. defense of body against disease
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2
Q

list and describe the 3 components of blood

A
  1. formed elements: RBCs, WBCs, platelets
  2. plasma: fluid portion
  3. buffy coat
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3
Q

what is the main component of plasma?

A

water

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4
Q

list the 7 components of plasma

A
  1. water
  2. proteins
  3. nutrients: glucose, fatty acids, vitamins and minerals
  4. electrolytes: Na+, K+, Ca+
  5. hormones
  6. buffers: bicarbonate
  7. waste products: urea
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5
Q

list the 3 proteins found in plasma and describe if needed

A
  1. albumin
  2. globulins: antibodies are immunoglobulins
  3. fibinogen: plays a role in clotting
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6
Q

why do you need to include an anticoagulant when collecting plasma?

A

since it contain fibrinogen, it will clot unless an anticoagulant is present

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7
Q

what is serum?

A

all components of plasma except fibrinogen, no anticoagulant needed when collecting

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8
Q

list the 3 formed elements

A
  1. erythrocytes (RBCs): 45% of blood
  2. leukocytes (WBCs): 5 types
  3. thrombocytes (platelets): clotting, cell fragments
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9
Q

what is hematopoiesis?

A

formation and development of the formed elements of blood in the red bone marrow

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10
Q

what are hematopoietins?

A

chemical signals that determine the formation of formed elements

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11
Q

describe the structure of erythrocytes

A

biconcave disks with no nuclei (except for in chickens) meaning they have a finite lifespan

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12
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

a major component of RBCs, consists of 1 globin protein and 4 heme groups, with each heme group containing an iron (Fe2+ ferrous) that LOOSELY and REVERSIBLY binds to oxygen

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13
Q

what do erythrocytes do?

A

transport O2 from lungs throughout body and CO2 from cells in the body to the lungs

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14
Q

when does oxyhemoglobin form?

A

when O2 binds to hemoglobin in the lungs

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15
Q

when does carbaminohemoglobin form?

A

when CO2 binds to hemoglobin

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16
Q

when does carboxyhemoglobin form and why is it bad?

A

when carbon monoxide (CO) binds very tightly to hemoglobin, prevents O2 from binding to hemoglobin = no O2 transport = suffocation

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17
Q

what is nitrate poisoning?

A

when nitrate converts ferrous iron (Fe2+) to ferric iron (Fe3+), which can’t bind to oxygen, forming methemoglobin, turning blood a chocolate color

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18
Q

where is nitrate found, which can cause nitrate poisoning?

A

on freshly fertilized pastures

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19
Q

what is erythropoiesis?

A

formation of erythrocytes

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20
Q

what is erythropoiesis stimulated by?

A

erythropoietin, which is produced by kidney cells

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21
Q

when is erythropoietin released?

A

when kidneys sense decreased O2 delivery and release erythropoietin, which stimulates erythropoiesis in red bone marrow, leading to the production of RBCs

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22
Q

how is the release of erythropoietin stopped?

A

more erythrocytes will deliver O2 to kidneys, which inhibits further release of erythropoietin (negative feedback)

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23
Q

how are erythrocytes removed from circulation (broad)

A

by macrophages in the liver and spleen, which perform phagocytosis

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24
Q

describe what happens to the globin protein when hemoglobin is broken down

A

the globin protein is broken down into amino acids that are used for new protein synthesis

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25
Q

describe what happens to the iron from the heme group when hemoglobin is broken down

A

iron is transported through blood, bound to transferrin, then stored in the liver as ferritin, or used by red bone marrow for erythropoiesis

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26
Q

describe what happens to the heme group when hemoglobin is broken down

A

the heme group is converted to biliverdin (green), then to bilirubin (yellow), which is then incorporated into bile in the liver

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27
Q

what happens to bile once it leaves the liver?

A

it is secreted into the small intestine, and then reacts with bacteria in the large intestine, which gives feces it characteristic color, or it leaves the kidneys through urine

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28
Q

list 6 conditions of RBCs

A
  1. icterus/jaundice
  2. hemoglobinemia
  3. hemoglobinuria
  4. hemogglutination
  5. anemia
  6. polycythemia
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29
Q

describe icterus/jaundice

A

yellow discoloration of skin and mucus membranes

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30
Q

what causes icterus/jaundice?

A

bilirubin builds up in blood, caused by liver damage or bile duct damage, or increased rate of erythrocyte destruction

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31
Q

what is hemoglobinemia?

A

buildup of free hemoglobin from hemolysis

32
Q

what is hemolysis?

A

breakdown of RBCs and release of free hemoglobin

33
Q

what color is plasma when hemoglobinemia is occurring?

A

red

34
Q

what is hemoglobinuria?

A

excretion of hemoglobin in urine, urine is red

35
Q

what causes hemoglobinuria? (3)

A

bacterial toxins, snake venom, parasites

36
Q

what is hemagglutination?

A

clumping (agglutination) of RBCs

37
Q

describe the physiology of why hemagglutination can occur

A

RBCs have antigens (proteins) on their surface, and animals produce antibodies for proteins/antigens that are not found on the surface of their RBCs, so if a blood transfusion is given to an animal with different antigens on their RBCs than what is given, hemagglutination occurs

38
Q

what is anemia?

A

a decrease in the number of functional RBCs

39
Q

what 3 things can cause anemia?

A

kidney damage/failure, iron deficiency, bone marrow disease

40
Q

what is hematocrit/packed cell volume (PCV)

A

the percentage by volume of whole blood that is erythrocytes

41
Q

what is a normal PCV?

A

35-45%

42
Q

what is polycythemia?

A

decrease in the fluid portion of blood, less plasma due to dehydration

43
Q

what are the 2 classes of leukocytes?

A
  1. granulocytes

2. agranulocytes

44
Q

describe how granulocytes are classified, and list all 3

A

classified based on presence of cytoplasmic granules

  1. neutrophils
  2. eosinophils
  3. basophils
45
Q

describe how agranulocytes are classified and list both of them

A

based on the absence of cytoplasmic granules

  1. lymphocytes
  2. monocytes
46
Q

what are neutrophils

A

the most common WBC, phagocytic cells that cause pus, the first responders during an infection

47
Q

what are bird neutrophils called?

A

heterophils

48
Q

describe what neutrophils look like

A

segmented , skinny nuclei, clearish cytoplasm

49
Q

what do eosinophils do?

A

respond to parasitic infections, release granules to kill parasites

50
Q

describe what eosinophils look like

A

pink staining bumpy granules

51
Q

describe basophils’ function

A

release granules to kill parasites

52
Q

what are the least common WBCs?

A

basophils and eosinophils

53
Q

describe monocytes

A

2nd most common WBC, and the largest, enter tissues and become macrophages (phagocytic cells)

54
Q

what do monocytes look like?

A

will typically see an indentation in nucleus, very big nucleus, peanutish

55
Q

list and describe the 2 types of lymphocytes

A
  1. T lymphocytes: kill virally infected cells

2. B lymphocytes: produce antibodies

56
Q

describe what lymphocytes look like

A

smallest WBC, can’t visually see difference between T and B

57
Q

what is a Differential WBC Count?

A

tells percent of each type of WBC in a sample

58
Q

what are platelets?

A

fragments of megakaryocytes

59
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A

reduce blood loss from injured blood vessels

60
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

the stopping of bleeding, 3 steps

61
Q

what are the 3 steps of hemostasis?

A
  1. vasoconstriction
  2. platelet plug formation (has 7 steps)
  3. coagulation
62
Q

describe vasoconstriction

A

smooth muscle of injured vessel contracts to decrease size of the hole/tear

63
Q

list the 7 steps of platelet plug formation

A
  1. collagen fibers from underlying connective tissue are exposed
  2. platelets bind to exposed collagen fibers
  3. platelets become activated and release thromboxane A2
  4. Thromboxane A2 attracts more platelets to site of injury
  5. additional platelets bind to activated platelets
  6. platelets plug up the hole in the injured vessel
  7. activated platelets express a receptor for fibrinogen
64
Q

what do healthy epithelial cells release while the platelet plug is forming and what does it do?

A

they release prostacyclin, which inhibits platelet plug formation as a way to stop the plug once fully formed

65
Q

describe coagulation

A

a series of reactions to produce fibrin

66
Q

what is the main result of coagulation?

A

fibrinogen binds to activated platelets and reactions occur to activate it to fibrin

67
Q

list and describe the 2 coagulation pathways

A
  1. extrinsic pathway: begins with factors not found in blood

2. intrinsic pathway: begins with factors found in blood

68
Q

what is needed to start both coagulation pathways?

A

calcium

69
Q

what does the fibrinolytic system do?

A

converts plasminogen to plasmin

70
Q

what is the function of plasmin?

A

breaks down fibrin

71
Q

what 2 things activate the fibrinolytic system?

A
  1. presence of fibrin (duh)

2. tissue plasminogen activator

72
Q

what secretes tissue plasminogen activator?

A

healthy, intact, epithelial cells

73
Q

what vitamin is necessary for the synthesis of blood clotting factors?

A

vitamin K

74
Q

what prevents proper formation of blood clotting factors? list and give locations of 2 examples

A

vitamin K antagonists

  1. dicumarol: found in expired sweet clover
  2. warfarin: common agent in rat poison
75
Q

what is fibrin?

A

the activated form of fibrinogen